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Organizational Psychology Exam Bank - 1987 Verified Questions

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Organizational Psychology Exam Bank

Course Introduction

Organizational Psychology explores the scientific study of human behavior within workplace settings, focusing on how individuals, groups, and organizational structures influence efficiency, motivation, satisfaction, and wellbeing at work. This course examines core theories and practices related to employee selection, leadership, teamwork, communication, organizational culture, job design, and conflict resolution. Students will learn to apply psychological principles to address real-world challenges in recruitment, performance appraisal, organizational change, and employee development, with an emphasis on fostering healthy, productive, and inclusive work environments.

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Organizational Behavior 18th Edition by Stephen P. Robbins

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18 Chapters

1987 Verified Questions

1987 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: What Is Organizational Behavior?

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Sample Questions

Q1) An organization is a consciously coordinated social unit composed of two or more people.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Group functioning refers to the quantity and quality of a group's work output.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q3) Productivity refers to the degree to which an organization can achieve its ends at a low cost.

A)True

B)False Answer: False

Q4) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Diversity in Organizations

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ is a dimension of intellectual ability which refers to the ability to understand what is read or heard and the relationship of words to each other.

A) Lateral masking

B) Verbal comprehension

C) Depth perception

D) Spatial visualization

E) Visual perception

Answer: B

Q2) Compare and contrast four different kinds of physical abilities.

Answer: Extent flexibility is the ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible. Dynamic flexibility refers to the ability to make rapid, repeated flexing movement. Both of these physical abilities can be classified under flexibility factors. Explosive strength is the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of explosive acts. In comparison, the ability to exert force against external objects is known as static strength. Both of these physical abilities can be classified under strength factors.

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Chapter 3: Attitudes and Job Satisfaction

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ refers to evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events.

A) Attitude

B) Behavior

C) Appearance

D) Demeanor

E) Performance

Answer: A

Q2) ________ refers to a positive feeling about one's job resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.

A) Job satisfaction

B) Job design

C) Positivity offset

D) Constructive dismissal

E) Picketing

Answer: A

Q3) No individual can completely avoid dissonance.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Emotions and Moods

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Sample Questions

Q1) When Ariana Winter is told that her dog has been killed by a car, she feels deeply saddened. Her feelings are then overcome by a surge of anger at the car driver. However, minutes later, she is able to laugh and talk about the good memories spent with her pet. What is one of the reasons that Winter's reaction can be categorized as an emotion?

A) Its cause is general and ambiguous.

B) It lasted for a brief time period.

C) It is not action-oriented.

D) It is a negative feeling.

E) It is cognitive in nature.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of an epicurean activity which helps increase a person's positive mood?

A) attending a meeting

B) playing video games

C) going on a ski vacation

D) eating a meal with friends

E) watching a movie

Q3) What is emotional intelligence? Briefly explain the arguments for and against emotional intelligence.

Q4) What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions?

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Personality and Values

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most common means of measuring personality?

A) in-depth interviews

B) self-report surveys

C) career portfolio

D) reference interviews

E) stress interviews

Q2) When rating themselves, people in individualistic cultures trend toward self-enhancement, while people in collectivist cultures trend toward self-diminishment.

A)True

B)False

Q3) John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Which of the following is one of these six types?

A) analytic

B) imaginative

C) practical

D) investigative

E) intuitive

Q4) Explain the effect of core self-evaluation on job performance.

Q5) Discuss John Holland's personality-job fit theory.

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Chapter 6: Perception and Individual Decision Making

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Sample Questions

Q1) Individuals who report unethical practices by their employer to outsiders are known as ________.

A) change agents

B) boundary spanners

C) early adopters

D) whistle-blowers

E) free riders

Q2) Individuals engage in ________ because it is impossible for them to assimilate everything they see and can take in only certain stimuli.

A) selective perception

B) cognitive dissonance

C) self-serving bias

D) emotional labor

E) self-fulfilling prophecy

Q3) An organization's reward system influences decision makers by suggesting which choices have better personal payoffs.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is selective perception?

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Chapter 7: Motivation Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the three key elements in the definition of motivation.

Q2) McClelland's theory of needs has received little research support, particularly when cultural dimensions are considered.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding the cognitive evaluation theory?

A) People need extrinsic rewards in order to be motivated.

B) Extrinsic rewards tend to reduce intrinsic interest in a task.

C) Intrinsic rewards are almost as effective as extrinsic rewards.

D) Externally imposed standards of work largely improve intrinsic motivation.

E) Extrinsic rewards, including verbal praise, significantly decrease intrinsic motivation.

Q4) The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.

A) two-factor

B) self-determination

C) goal-setting

D) self-efficacy

E) reinforcement

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Chapter 8: Motivation: From Concepts to Applications

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Sample Questions

Q1) The percentage of Canadian major corporations that offer flexible benefits plans is decreasing.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A(n) ________ pay plan pays for individual performance based on performance appraisal ratings.

A) piece-rate

B) merit-based

C) employee stock ownership

D) profit-sharing

E) gainsharing

Q3) Which of the following is true about flextime in regard to different cultures?

A) Flextime tends to be viewed similarly in cultures throughout the world.

B) Flextime is only available in the U.S., not in other cultures.

C) In some countries, employers cannot refuse reasonable request for flextime.

D) Collectivist cultures offer flextime at high rates since autonomy is valued and expected.

E) Collectivist cultures do not offer flextime.

Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of flextime.

Q5) Describe the five core job dimensions of the job characteristics model.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Foundations of Group Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Often, our identification with our workgroups is stronger than with our organizations. Both are important to positive outcomes in attitudes and behaviors. Additionally, if we have low identification in relation to the group, there may be increased competition and decreased organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) by group members. If we have low identification with our organizations, we may experience decreased satisfaction and OCB.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

A) acceptance of a solution

B) speed

C) efficiency

D) clear responsibility

E) legitimacy

Q3) What is the relationship between performance norms, cohesiveness, and group productivity?

Q4) According to the status characteristics theory, what are the three sources of status?

Q5) Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.

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Chapter 10: Understanding Work Teams

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following terms describes the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service?

A) social conformity

B) organizational value

C) organizational demography

D) diversity

E) organizational multiculturalism

Q2) Which of the following statements is true with regard to team processes?

A) This category comprises variables that relate to how teams should be staffed.

B) Effective teams invest time and effort to discuss and agree on a purpose that belongs to them both collectively and individually.

C) Once a specific goal is chosen, effective teams resist making any changes in them so as to maintain the momentum of the team.

D) Effective teams do not engage in task and relationship conflicts.

E) Effective teams begin by selecting the right kind of people to be members of the team.

Q3) What is social loafing? How can the management undermine the tendency of social loafing?

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Chapter 11: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Communicating through e-mail provides ________.

A) a host of nonverbal cues to understand the message better

B) the best means to convey negative information

C) a cheaper alternative to the conventional communication through letters

D) a secure communication link that nobody else can access

E) an option to hold real-time meetings with people in different locations

Q2) What are the seven key parts of the communication process?

Q3) In a communication process, the ________ initiates a message by encoding a thought.

A) receiver

B) decoder

C) transmitter

D) sender

E) receptor

Q4) Social networking is a tool for prospective employees, hiring managers, and employees.

A)True

B)False

Q5) List and explain four of the barriers to effective communication.

Q6) How would you relate the concepts of wheel network and information overload?

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Leadership

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure refers to the extent to which ________.

A) a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings

B) a leader engages in participative management

C) a leader is accepting of and respects individual differences among various team members

D) a leader is likely to define and organize his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment

E) a leader initiates efforts to communicate personally with employees

Q2) Describe the path-goal theory of leadership.

Q3) Which of the following is true about substitutes for leadership?

A) Substitutes are clearly distinguishable from neutralizers.

B) Substitutes enhance the need for leader's support or ability to create structure.

C) Substitutes increase the levels of identification-based trust.

D) Substitutes are factors and conditions that replace formal leadership.

E) Organizations cannot provide any substitutes for leadership.

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Chapter 13: Power and Politics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tina Simmons worked as a welder at a shipyard company where she was forced to encounter nude and partially nude pictures posted by her male co-workers in common areas. The men also referred to her using obscene nicknames and made offensive remarks concerning her body. When Tina complained, her supervisor took no corrective action despite having an active sexual harassment policy approved by the EEOC. Tina wished to file a discrimination suit but instead she chose to endure the harassment as she could not risk losing her job. Which of the following, if true, would have strengthened her resolve to file a discrimination suit?

A) The colleagues who sexually harassed Tina shared a great rapport with her supervisor.

B) Tina had heard of only one prior instance wherein an employee in the company had filed a discrimination suit.

C) Tina shared a strained working relationship with her supervisor.

D) The company policy prescribed that Tina would face no backlash if she approached the EEOC.

E) Tina had few female colleagues at the shipyard where she worked.

Q2) What is impression management? Who is more likely to engage in impression management?

Q3) Define power.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a necessary condition for integrative bargaining to succeed in organizations?

A) Opposing parties have a zero-sum outlook.

B) Opposing parties are open with information.

C) Opposing parties are candid about concerns.

D) Opposing parties are sensitive to the other's needs and trust.

E) Opposing parties maintain flexibility.

Q2) Conflicts related to how the work gets done are called ________ conflicts.

A) communication

B) task

C) job

D) relationship

E) process

Q3) Explain how gender affects negotiating, and describe what this means to the outcomes of the negotiation process.

Q4) Cross-cultural negotiations have no issues of trust.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Outline and discuss the conflict process.

Q6) Discuss the effects of moods and emotions on effectiveness of negotiations.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Foundations of Organization Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the three dimensions that characterize the environment of an organization?

Q2) The strength of a bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform standardized activities in a highly efficient manner.

A)True

B)False

Q3) ________ refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized.

A) Formalization

B) Empowerment

C) Work specialization

D) Departmentalization

E) Decentralization

Q4) Which of the following is typically a characteristic of the mechanistic model of organization?

A) low formalization

B) extensive departmentalization

C) decentralized management

D) wide spans of control

E) low specialization

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Chapter 16: Organizational Culture

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the metamorphosis stage of the socialization process, a new employee compares his or her expectations-about the job, co-workers, the boss, and the organization in general-with the reality in the organization.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following steps could your supervisor take to best help you develop a commitment to your new company?

A) encourage you to work independently at first to learn the ropes

B) explain the rules and policies of the organization to you

C) discourage you from putting too much emphasis on your perception of the organization

D) encourage you to look carefully at your own assumptions, which may be biased

E) encourage you to develop friendship ties within the organization

Q3) Top managers' actions set the general climate in an organization, including what is acceptable behavior and what is not, and employees sustain and perpetuate the culture.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the characteristics of a strong culture.

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Chapter 17: Human Resource Policies and Practices

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Sample Questions

Q1) A formal mentoring program is an example of an off-the-job training method.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What purposes do performance evaluations serve in organizations?

Q3) Your organization has reduced layers, flattening the organization. Your employees now need to perform a wider variety of tasks. As a result, you need to provide employees with training to help develop their ________ skills.

A) basic literacy

B) technical

C) interpersonal

D) problem solving

E) communication

Q4) Discuss the problems underlying the work-life conflict and explain some of the techniques that an organization can use to help employees achieve the work-life balance.

Q5) Performance evaluations identify training and development needs.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Compare and contrast between on-the-job training and off-the-job training.

Q7) Provide some suggestions for improving performance evaluations.

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Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Stress Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding innovation in organizations?

A) Organic structures negatively influence innovation.

B) Interunit communication is low in innovative organizations.

C) Short tenure in management is associated with innovation.

D) Innovation is nurtured when there is an abundance of resources.

E) Innovative organizations reward both successes and failures.

Q2) Selective information processing is a major source of resistance to change. It indicates that ________.

A) changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized groups so these groups tend to resist change

B) individuals hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges the world they've created

C) limited changes in subsystems tend to be nullified by the larger system

D) groups in the organization that control sizable resources often resist change

E) even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as a constraint

Q3) Describe Lewin's three-step model used for managing change.

Q4) What is organizational development? What are the various values on which the organizational development techniques are based?

Page 20

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