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Organizational Policy and Strategy examines how organizations develop, implement, and evaluate policies to achieve strategic objectives in complex, dynamic environments. The course explores key concepts such as mission and vision formulation, environmental analysis, competitive advantage, and policy alignment. Students learn to assess internal and external factors influencing organizational decisions, apply strategic management frameworks, and analyze case studies of policy development in diverse industries. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, stakeholder management, and the integration of functional areas to create cohesive long-term strategies that drive organizational success.
Recommended Textbook Strategy 4th Edition by Bob de Wit
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Q1) What are the key aspects of strategic management?
Answer: .The strategy itself. The establishment of a clear direction for the organization and for every business,product and service,and a means for getting there which requires the creation of strong competitive positions.
.Implementation of strategies in order to yield effective performance.
.Creativity and innovation needed to ensure that the organization is responsive to pressures for change and that strategies are improved and renewed.
.Ability to manage strategic change,both continuous,gradual,incremental changes and more dramatic,discontinuous changes
Q2) Strategic competitiveness is achieved when a firm successfully formulates and implements a value-creating strategy.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Strategic creation is always about change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) In Kaplan and Norton's terms a lagged measure is:
A) An obsolete measure
B) A measure of past progress
C) A measure that focuses on future activity
D) A measure of the performance of competitors
Answer: B
Q2) Judgment is the capability of making successful decisions when no obviously correct model or rule is available or when relevant data are unreliable or incomplete.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) It is not necessary for strategic objectives to be understood by all managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Emergent strategies tend to have measureable objectives attached to them.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Q1) Some CSR advocates who question the motives of firms implementing CSR are pleased that:
A) Firms are embarking on some tangible CSR journey
B) CSR's legitimacy is rising on the organizational agenda
C) By adopting codes of conduct (even if only for "window dressing" purposes), they create a set of criteria against which they can be judged
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Monitoring by shareholders is usually accomplished through:
A) Management consultants
B) Government auditors
C) The firm's top managers
D) The board of directors
Answer: D
Q3) Organizations can encourage ethical behavior by:
A) Establishing systems and programs to ensure ethical compliance
B) Having a CEO that reinforces ethical behavior
C) Creating an "integrity program" to communicate and reinforce values
D) All of the above
Answer: D

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Q1) Most successful companies have multiple cultures with none particularly dominant. A)True
B)False
Q2) An organization with a fragmented culture could suggest what?
Q3) Which of the following is not a dimension used to describe national cultures?
A) The degree to which members of the society accept or expect uneven power distributions in society
B) The degree to which the focus of society is on individuals or the group
C) The degree to which members of the society reflect established ethical norms
D) The degree to which members of society are tolerant of uncertainty and ambiguity
Q4) A market-driven organization is likely not to be:
A) Consistent and disciplined in what it does
B) Adhere to systems and procedures
C) Strong on teamworking
D) All of the above
Q5) What are the three power aspects of organizational culture?
Q6) What are the three people aspects of culture that shape how it materializes in organizations?
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Q1) Capabilities and resources have the potential to lead to competitive advantage if they are valuable and unique.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The more core competencies a firm has,the more likely it is to generate a sustained competitive advantage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tacit knowledge is probably the most _________ resource.
A) Valuable
B) Unique
C) Hard-to-imitate
D) All of the above
Q4) Imitation is not likely to be a successful strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is it important to prevent core competencies from becoming core rigidities?
Q6) What is the relationship between resources and capabilities? Is one more important than the other in creating a sustainable competitive advantage?
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Q1) There are three major types of competitors discussed in Porter's five-forces model: existing,potential,and indirect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Switching costs refer to the:
A) Cost to a producer to exchange equipment in a facility when new technologies emerge
B) Cost of changing the firm's strategic group
C) One-time costs suppliers incur when selling to a different customer
D) One-time costs customers incur when buying from a different supplier
Q3) Identify the five forces that underlie the five forces model of competition. Explain briefly how they affect industry profit potential.
Q4) Monitoring involves the development of a forecast of what might happen at a future point in time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is analysis of social trends important?
Q6) According to Porter,when do customers exhibit a powerful force on competition in an industry?
8
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Q1) When a product's unique attributes provide value to customers,the firm is implementing:
A) A differentiation strategy
B) A cost leadership strategy
C) An integrated cost leadership/differentiation strategy
D) A single-product strategy
Q2) How can a firm be successful by pursuing a differentiation strategy and what are some of the risks associated with it?
Q3) In general,firms can be most effective if they develop business-level strategies that will serve the needs of the "average customer."
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some of the risks associated with a low-cost strategy?
Q5) A best cost strategy combines the elements of low-cost leadership and differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the risks of a differentiation strategy.
Q7) What are the five generic business-level strategies? Briefly describe each one.
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Q1) One method of facilitating the transfer of competencies between firms is to:
A) Virtually integrate the two firms
B) Transfer key people into new management positions
C) Share support activities, such as purchasing practices
D) Restructure the weaker firm to mirror the structure of the more successful firm
Q2) Corporate strategy answers the question "What businesses should we be in?" while business strategy answers the question "How should we compete in this business?"
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common criticism that applies to many portfolio models is that they are based on the past instead of the future.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the two fundamental roles of the corporate parent and what activities are associated with this.
Q5) What issues should head offices address when considering how they might best add value to the business as a whole?
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Q1) After a firm decides to compete internationally,it must select its strategy and choose a mode of entry into international markets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A multidomestic strategy uses a highly decentralized approach meaning that country managers have the autonomy to customize the firm's products as necessary to meet the needs and preferences of local customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A global strategy is easier to manage because of the limited need to coordinate strategies and decisions across country borders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Industry regulation is increasing worldwide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the four factors that provide a basis for international business-level strategies?
Q6) Why should some firms not pursue international business?
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Q1) Firms are likely to imitate the actions of a competitor that is noted for risky,complex,and unpredictable behavior because this is a way to imitate unobservable core competencies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Firms operating in the same market,offering similar products and targeting similar customers are competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A disadvantage to being a first mover is that a company moves down the experience curve and loses the benefits from its experiences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following would not be considered an initial set of actions to gain competitive advantage:
A) Price cuts
B) Advertising campaigns
C) Market entries
D) Counterattacks
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Q1) The proper matching of what a firm can do with what it might do allows the firm to:
A) Balance the internal characteristics of the firm with the characteristics of the external environment
B) Overcome the rigidity and inertia resulting from a history of success
C) Develop its vision, pursue its mission, and select and implement its strategies
D) Develop core competencies based on human knowledge
Q2) The traditional view of leaders in organizations is that they:
A) Are dictators to be followed without question
B) Set direction, make the important decisions, and rally the followers
C) Rise to the top of an organization just like cream on milk
D) Are ineffective
Q3) A heterogeneous top management team:
A) Is ineffective in most competitive settings
B) Can be prone to "group think"
C) Makes implementing a strategy easier
D) Is made up of managers with a wide variety of backgrounds, education, and experience.
Q4) What are the four primary leadership responsibilities of the CEO?
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Q1) An organization without adequate financial management might:
A) Ignore aspects of cost and cash-flow management
B) Have tight budget controls
C) Have clear financial reporting processes
D) Assign financial responsibility at all managerial levels
Q2) The mismanagement of large projects often involves what mistakes?
Q3) In a recession:
A) Budgets can be relaxed as there is more capital available.
B) The number of failing organizations reduces.
C) Retrenchment strategies are frequently required as demand falls and costs need containing.
D) Strategies become obsolete.
Q4) Threats:
A) Come only from the broad environment
B) Typically cannot be overcome
C) Can stand in the way of organizational competitiveness and stakeholder satisfaction
D) Are generally the result of moving too slowly against competitors
Q5) What themes determine the likelihood of turnaround success?
Q6) What competitive forces could result in a weak competitor being in decline?
14
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Q1) When change is intermittent the timing of change initiatives are not important.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Revolutionary change occurs when an abrupt and radical change takes place over a short period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Strategic change is driven by:
A) Shareholders
B) Stakeholders
C) Customers
D) Strategic leaders
Q4) Evolutionary change takes the organization's current operations as the starting point and builds incrementally from there.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The timing of change can vary from intermittent to constant.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What does the implementation of change require?
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Q1) It is not necessary for individuals in an organization to become integrated with the implementation process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is needed to increase the chances of successful strategy implementation?
Q3) A single company currency,one of the five keys to implementation control,means that a company should:
A) Reward as many people as possible using the same "currency"
B) Use the same financial reporting standards throughout the organization
C) Control expenses by using a single company credit card for travel and entertainment
D) Reward everyone who has an acceptable level of performance or better with the same percentage merit raises
Q4) The beginning of an implementation process is unlikely to be dominated by the management of perceptions and beliefs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the characteristics of metrics that can be used effectively at the functional level of an organization.
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Q1) If a firm is very decentralized and has a web of independent offices in each region,with little or no formal hierarchy,which structure is it likely to have?
A) Functional
B) Divisional
C) Matrix
D) Network
Q2) Structural inertia facilitates change in organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The coordination method of mutual adjustment seems to work best when there is a small group of people and the means to success is uncertain and a strong degree of innovation is required.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a matrix structure and when should it be used?
Q5) Restructuring can be defined as a detailed analysis of a firm's competitors and other external stakeholders and competitive forces.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Entrepreneurs are motivated by:
A) High risks, high stakes and, potentially, high results
B) Low risks, low stakes and moderate results
C) Achievement, power, influence and independence
D) Power, control and independence
Q2) Behaviour of entrepreneurs differs from non-entrepreneurs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which would tend to result in a greater level of entrepreneurship?
A) Ability to reduce the bargaining power of buyers
B) Fewer numbers of incumbents
C) Capital-intensive industries
D) Weak bargaining power of suppliers
Q4) As a general rule,entrepreneurs' previous international experience differentiates rapid internationalization from slow/no internationalization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify four implications for action by the savvy entrepreneur?
Q6) Identify the characteristics of intrapreneurs.
Q7) Identify the five paths an entrepreneurial start-up may take.
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