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Organizational Leadership explores the principles, theories, and practices that enable individuals to effectively lead and manage teams within a variety of organizational settings. The course examines the dynamic role of leaders in shaping organizational culture, driving change, fostering innovation, and achieving strategic objectives. Students will analyze leadership styles, ethical decision-making, communication strategies, and motivational techniques, as well as the challenges of leading diverse groups. Through case studies, interactive activities, and practical applications, learners will develop critical thinking and leadership skills necessary for succeeding in todays complex and rapidly evolving business environments.
Recommended Textbook
Project Management A Managerial Approach 8th Edition by Jack R. Meredith
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538 Verified Questions
538 Flashcards
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Q1) Discuss the factors that have contributed to the growth of the Project Management Institute.
Answer: The complexity of problems faced by the project manager and the rapid growth in the number project-oriented organizations has contributed to the professionalization of project management. The growth in membership reflects the growth in the use of projects as well as the importance of PMI in the development of project management as a profession. The mission of PMI is to foster the growth of project management and to build professionalism in the field. PMI is responsible for codifying the areas of learning required for competent project management. PMI also offers a certificate called the Project Management Professional (PMP®)that includes a group of education, experience, and testing requirements to obtain.
Q2) Describe the project life cycle.
Answer: The project life cycle describes the set of tasks that must be completed in order to produce a product or service. There are many different project life cycles that exist, but a typical set includes: conception, selection, planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling, and evaluation and termination.
Q3) __________ is a subset of a project, consisting of work packages.
Answer: Task
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is defined as inappropriately intense loyalty to the project.
Answer: Projectitis
Q2) Identify the statement that is NOT a major advantage of placing a project within a functional element of the parent organization.
A)The flexible use of staff increases.
B)Expertise is easily shared across multiple projects.
C)The functional division tends to be oriented towards activities particular to its function.
D)The functional division serves as a base of technological continuity.
Answer: C
Q3) According to Dewhurst, a group of individuals working independently is a __________.
Answer: name only team (NOT)
Q4) __________ engineering refers to the use of a design team that includes design and manufacturing engineers as well as staff from other relevant areas of the business.
Answer: Concurrent
Q5) The __________ matrix is least similar to the pure project organizational form.
Answer: holistic
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Q1) When the decision maker's information is not complete, he/she will have to make a decision under conditions of __________.
Answer: uncertainty
Q2) The __________ is the interest rate set by an organization as the minimum acceptable rate of return for a project.
Answer: hurdle rate
Q3) Consider the following three-year projects A and B each with the same initial investment of $1000. You are presented with the following measures for the projects:
Project A: NPV $400; Payback 24 months
Project B: NPV $545; Payback 26 months
Which project would you choose and why?
Answer: Project B would be the better choice for the following reasons: Project B has a greater NPV. Since NPV takes into account the time value of money and Payback does not, NPV is a more robust estimate. The fact that the Payback is delayed by two months (a 5.5% delay in a 36 month project)does not warrant leaving $145 on the table (36.25% higher NPV).
Q4) Financial forecasts are reported as __________ financial statements. Answer: pro forma
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Q1) According to the authors, of all the characteristics desirable in a project manager, __________ is the most important.
A)availability
B)a strong technical background
C)ability to keep the project team happy
D)drive to complete the task
Q2) The aesthetic values of a culture are communicated through the culture's __________.
Q3) Project managers must have __________, which refers to possessing enough technical abilities to direct the project.
A)technical credibility
B)managerial credibility
C)negotiation skill
D)drive to complete the task
Q4) Most of the time spent by a project manager is spent __________.
A)attending technical workshops
B)overseeing the workforce
C)filing paperwork
D)communicating
Q5) The laws of the nation are often a product of the nation's __________.
Page 6
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Q1) __________ is a method of transforming contractual relationships into a cohesive, cooperative project team with a single set of goals and established procedures for resolving disputes in a timely and effective manner.
Q2) Identify the three fundamental categories of conflict that occur during a project's lifecycle.
Q3) Which one of the following choices was NOT identified by the authors as one of the reasons why organizations enter into partnership arrangements with each other?
A)avoidance of litigation
B)diversification of technical risk
C)reducing internal conflict
D)avoidance of capital investment
Q4) There are several words that are synonyms for negotiate. Which of the following is NOT quoted by the authors?
A)arbitrate
B)bicker
C)conciliate
D)haggle
Q5) Describe the four points of principled negotiation described by Fisher and Ury.
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Q1) __________is an approach that breaks the planning task down into the activities that must be done in each managerial level of the organization. Typically, the upper level sets the objectives for the next lower level.
Q2) According to the authors, any project plan must contain all of the following EXCEPT
A)evaluation methods
B)contractual aspects
C)resources
D)a 'ballpark' estimate
Q3) The __________ of a project includes the objectives of the project as well as the time and cost required to complete the project to the customer's satisfaction.
A)scope
B)change order
C)outcome
D)purpose
Q4) Compare the risk response planning techniques for threats and opportunities.
Q5) List the seven subprocesses of project risk management.
Q6) Identify four important outcomes associated with the project launch meeting.
Q7) The __________ chart is a tree diagram used to represent a hierarchical plan.
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Q1) Given a project salary cost of $400,000 per year and forecasted wage increases of 5 percent per year, calculate the nondiscounted total salary cost over a three-year project lifecycle.
Q2) The pattern of constraints in a budget embodies organizational __________.
Q3) The traditional organizational budget is __________.
A)category-oriented
B)project-oriented
C)program-oriented
D)project-oriented or program-oriented
Q4) A work element whose cost is fully developed would __________.
A)exclude the cost of labor and resources
B)include only the profit and direct costs
C)exclude the cost of special machinery and overheads
D)include direct costs plus overhead and G&A charges
Q5) The __________ charge is composed of the costs of senior management, the various data functions, and any other expenses not included in overhead. Often, these charges are a fixed percentage of either the direct costs or the total of all direct and indirect costs.
Q6) Describe the top-down budgeting process.
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Q7) Explain why senior managers view the bottom-up budgeting process as being risky.

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Q1) Describe the benefits of forming a network of activity and event relationships that graphically portrays sequential relations between tasks in a project.
Q2) A(n)__________ is a point where one or more lines (arrows)begin or terminate, commonly used for depicting an event or activity.
Q3) Explain the difference between Total Slack and Free Slack in a network.
Q4) The difference between the late start and early start for an activity is called its __________.
A)critical path
B)task
C)progress
D)float
Q5) The __________ for an activity is equal to the largest early finish for its preceding activities.
A)early start
B)late start
C)late finish
D)critical path
Q6) The _________ was developed by Henry Gantt in 1917.
Q7) Describe the process for determining the critical path in a network.
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Q1) The points between the extreme points of the relationship between time use and resource use represent __________.
A)time constrained projects
B)resource constrained projects
C)alternative trade-offs between time and resources
D)a non-feasible solution space of trade-off alternatives related to time and resource use
Q2) __________ describes the amounts of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods.
Q3) In CPM, __________ are specified.
A)exact levels of uncertainty associated with activities
B)an expected time, a crash time, and the standard deviation time
C)three costs
D)Two activity times and two costs
Q4) Given W = D * U for an effort-driven task. Assume an 8-hour workday. Initially, task R was assigned to Bob. Bob was expected to accomplish 32 hours of work in five days. If Bob were 100 percent available to work on task R during the entire five days, his efficiency rate is __________%.
Q5) __________ refers to the amount of time past a project's due or delivery date.
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Q1) The project __________ describes what is being done, when and the planned level of resource usage for each task, work-package or element in the project.
Q2) If EV = $500, AC = $475, PV = $450; SV = $________.
Q3) The earned value rule that divides the actual task time-to-date by the scheduled time for the task to calculate percent complete is called the __________ rule.
Q4) In earned value analysis, the 0 - 100 percent rule allows __________.
A)100 percent credit before starting work and 0 percent credit after the completion
B)0 percent credit when work begins and 100 percent credit when the project is complete
C)0 percent credit when work begins and 100 percent credit at completion of the activity
D)0 percent credit at completion of the activity and 100 percent credit at formal acceptance during scope verification
Q5) List the four conventions used to aid in estimating percent completion.
Q6) Ordinal rankings of performance are examples of a __________ type of measure.
Q7) In earned value analysis, BAC refers to the __________.
Q8) If EV = $500, AC = $450, PV = $475; CPI = __________.
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Q1) A majority of uncertainty has its source in systems that lie outside the project, in its
Q2) In their 2005 paper Hussain and Wearne reported the results of a survey of over 1000 project managers who were asked to identify the "greatest problem of project management". Which of the following was NOT one of the top three responses?
A)Organizational issues
B)Scope change issues
C)Resource issues
D)Time issues
Q3) Change control systems, in some industries, are part of a firm's __________.
Q4) A(n)__________ is a monitoring system that forewarns the project manager if trouble arises.
Q5) Identify some of the factors that can cause a project to require control of performance.
Q6) With respect to financial controls, courts will require the practice of __________ regarding financial controls, practices, and record-keeping.
Q7) What are the two fundamental objectives of control?
Q8) The most common type of control system is the __________, or steering control.
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Q1) The value of project audits/evaluations conducted during the post-project stage will depend on the __________ to future projects.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a project audit life cycle event?
A)project audit initiation
B)project baseline definition
C)establishing an audit database
D)post-completion analysis of the project
Q3) Managerial audits look at __________ and their use.
Q4) The __________ section of the audit should be reported as of the time of the audit. It should contain the following measures of performance: cost, schedule, progress, and quality.
Q5) The __________ dimension of project success includes factors relating to opening a new market, developing a new line of products or services. Alternatively, if an internal project, success factors include developing new technologies, skills, or competencies.
A)project efficiency
B)customer impact/satisfaction
C)business/direct success
D)future potential
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