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Organizational Development Exam Preparation Guide - 1987 Verified Questions

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Organizational Development Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Organizational Development is a course designed to explore the strategies and processes that enable organizations to improve their effectiveness, adapt to change, and achieve long-term success. Students will examine key concepts such as organizational culture, change management, group dynamics, diagnostic models, and intervention techniques. Through case studies, practical exercises, and theoretical discussions, learners will develop the skills necessary to assess organizational challenges, implement development initiatives, and facilitate positive transformation within various types of organizations. The course prepares participants to become effective agents of change by integrating both human and structural aspects to support organizational growth and sustainability.

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Organizational Behavior 18th Edition by Stephen

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Page 2

Chapter 1: What Is Organizational Behavior?

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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding technical skills?

A) They can be learned only through formal education.

B) They encompass the ability to apply specialized knowledge.

C) They are not required at all kinds of jobs.

D) They are monopolized by professionals.

E) They comprise the ability to understand and motivate people.

Answer: B

Q2) Entomology is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) According to Fred Luthans and his associates, managers involved in traditional management activities undertook which of the following tasks?

A) motivating

B) socializing

C) decision making

D) training

E) politicking

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Diversity in Organizations

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Q1) Describe some ways by which management can attract, select, and recruit diverse employees in an organization.

Answer: A method of enhancing workforce diversity is to target recruiting messages to specific demographic groups underrepresented in the workforce. This means placing advertisements in publications geared toward specific demographic groups; recruiting at colleges, universities, and other institutions with significant numbers of underrepresented minorities; and forming partnerships with associations. Diversity advertisements that fail to show women and minorities in positions of organizational leadership send a negative message about the diversity climate at an organization. The selection process is one of the most important places to apply diversity efforts. Managers who hire need to value fairness and objectivity in selecting employees and focus on the productive potential of new recruits. When managers use a well-defined protocol for assessing applicant talent, and the organization clearly prioritizes nondiscrimination policies, qualifications become far more important in determining who gets hired than demographic characteristics.

Q2) There is a strong correlation between intelligence and job satisfaction.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Attitudes and Job Satisfaction

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Q1) Discuss whether employee satisfaction is related to positive customer outcomes. Answer: The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. Satisfied employees are more likely to be friendly, upbeat, and responsive, which customers appreciate. Since satisfied employees are less prone to turnover, customers are also more likely to encounter familiar faces and receive experienced service. These qualities build customer satisfaction and loyalty.

Q2) ________ is moderately correlated with organizational citizenship behavior.

A) Emotional contagion

B) Job satisfaction

C) Absenteeism

D) Turnover rate

E) Cognitive dissonance

Answer: B

Q3) Economic conditions influence job satisfaction levels.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Emotions and Moods

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Q1) Interestingly, research indicates that our responses to moral emotions differ from our responses to other emotions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Zach is a pharmaceutical sales representative and must put on a smile every day at work with his clients. Discuss the emotional labor exerted by Zach. Explain the significance of the emotional intelligence demanded of Zach to be successful, and describe how he applies his emotions and moods in his job.

Q3) ________ are cognitive in nature, have an unclear, general cause, and last for several hours or days.

A) Emotions

B) Feelings

C) Perceptions

D) Moods

E) Reactions

Q4) Moods are more intense than emotions and invariably arise because of a specific event acting as a stimulus.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Personality and Values

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Q1) Percy Collins works as a life advisor at an insurance firm and often looks for constant admiration from his manager every time he sells a policy. He also feels that he is the best at his work and no other advisor in his company has the ability or the skills to sell the amount of policies that he can. During meetings and team-building exercises, colleagues often find him rude, distant, and antagonistic. What categories according to the Big Five model and other personality traits are Collins most likely to be characterized by?

Q2) John Hardley recently joined as marketing director of H2O, a water sports gear company. Though in the last five years the company has had a drastic dip in sales, ever since Hardley has joined he has turned the figures around. In addition to revamping the look of the brand, he has initiated several marketing campaigns through broadcast media to increase customer base for the company. Over the past six months, Hardley has managed to get the company to an all-time high peak of sales. Which of the following statements best describes Hardley?

A) Hardley is a low self-monitor.

B) Hardley is a narcissist.

C) Hardley scores high in Machiavellianism.

D) Hardley has a proactive personality.

E) Hardley is a low risk-taking person.

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Chapter 6: Perception and Individual Decision Making

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Q1) An individual's cultural background can influence the selection of problems, the depth of analysis, the importance placed on logic and rationality, and whether organizational decisions should be made autocratically by an individual manner or collectively in groups.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Discuss attribution theory.

Q3) The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others is known as the randomness error.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ________ refers to the tendency of people to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.

A) Confirmation bias

B) Self-serving bias

C) Randomness error

D) Halo effect

E) Hindsight bias

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Chapter 7: Motivation Concepts

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Q1) A prevention (but not a promotion) focus is related to higher levels of ________.

A) citizenship behavior

B) innovation

C) safety performance

D) task performance

E) technology

Q2) With reference to the expectancy theory, which of the following examples indicates a weak rewards-personal goals relationship?

A) An employee lacks the skills required to reach the desired performance level.

B) An organization's appraisal system assesses nonperformance factors such as creativity and initiative.

C) An organization rewards its employees based on factors such as seniority and skill level.

D) An employee believes that his manager does not like him and hence expects a poor appraisal.

E) An employee works hard in order to be relocated to the Paris office but instead is transferred to Beijing.

Q3) What are the three relationships in Vroom's expectancy theory?

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9

Chapter 8: Motivation: From Concepts to Applications

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Q1) Andrew is a software tester. He runs through the same types of programs day after day looking for bugs and reporting them. He is taking night classes on programming. Often, he knows the best solution to many of the bugs, but he is still learning to code.

Describe two job characteristics that Andrew is striving to improve, and explain two ways that Andrew's manager can redesign his current job to help him reach his goals.

Q2) ________ bases a portion of an employee's pay on some individual and/or organizational measure of performance.

A) Guaranteed pay program

B) Variable-pay program

C) Flexible benefits program

D) Modular plans program

E) Base pay program

Q3) Almost all major corporations in the United States offer flexible benefit plans. A)True

B)False

Q4) The major advantage of flextime is that it can be used for all categories of jobs.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Foundations of Group Behavior

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Q1) Groupthink is a phenomenon that relates to the consensus norms.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

A) reference groups

B) nominal groups

C) brainstorming

D) interacting groups

E) ingroup

Q3) Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Positive norms always portend positive outcomes in a company.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the relationship between groupthink and groupshift.

Q6) Explain group polarization.

Q7) Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.

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Chapter 10: Understanding Work Teams

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Q1) There is some evidence that suggests that teams high in ________ tend to be better able to adapt to conflicting plans and goals among team members.

A) efficacy

B) conformity

C) identity

D) reflexivity

E) social loafing

Q2) Which of the following statements is true with regard to team processes?

A) This category comprises variables that relate to how teams should be staffed.

B) Effective teams invest time and effort to discuss and agree on a purpose that belongs to them both collectively and individually.

C) Once a specific goal is chosen, effective teams resist making any changes in them so as to maintain the momentum of the team.

D) Effective teams do not engage in task and relationship conflicts.

E) Effective teams begin by selecting the right kind of people to be members of the team.

Q3) What is a cross-functional team?

Q4) What is meant by member preferences? How can it be altered?

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Chapter 11: Communication

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Q1) Communication apprehension applies to oral and written communication.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is a desirable strategy for managers aiming to reduce the negative consequences of rumors?

A) initiating disciplinary action against the employee who started the rumor

B) refusing to comment on issues that appear to be controversial and unfair

C) creating a more informal communication environment at the workplace

D) encouraging employees to communicate their concerns and suggestions

E) ignoring the rumor as rumors grow because of the attention given to them

Q3) A routine message can be delivered by a low richness channel as efficiently as a high richness channel.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is desirable with regard to persuasive communication?

A) increasing the degree of noise in the communication process

B) manipulating information so the receiver will see it more favorably

C) engaging in selective perception

D) processing a lot of information even if it exceeds our capacity

E) matching the type of message with the type of audience

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Leadership

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Q1) The best leaders are transformational, not transactional.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following leadership theories argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their subordinates-the ingroup, who are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges?

A) situational leadership theory

B) leader-member exchange

C) path-goal

D) expectancy

E) Fiedler's theory

Q3) Describe the path-goal theory of leadership.

Q4) Transformational leadership has a greater impact on the bottom line in smaller, privately held firms than in more complex organizations.

A)True

B)False

Q5) According to the Fiedler model of leadership, how can leader effectiveness be improved?

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Chapter 13: Power and Politics

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Q1) Research on power is likely to provide information on the most effective ________.

A) leadership styles for motivating followers

B) methods to reduce dependence on leaders

C) tactics for gaining compliance of employees

D) methods of rewarding successful employees

E) modes of assessing employee performance

Q2) Which of the following can be used to understand how power and politics in an organization can help you achieve your career goals?

A) counseling

B) constructing your power base relationships

C) mapping your own political career

D) alleviating your own power struggles

E) positioning your own power system

Q3) When employees see politics as a threat, they often ________.

A) create role ambiguity

B) use democratic decision making

C) use a single outcome measure

D) respond with defensive behaviors

E) allow a significant lapse

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation

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Q1) Describe a functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict that could exist because of structure.

Q2) Explain the conflict resolution strategies used by collectivist cultures.

Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation that takes place in a collectivist culture?

A) Collectivists are less likely to seek to preserve relationships and promote the good of the group as a whole than individualists.

B) Collectivists are more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly than individualists.

C) Collectivist cultures see people as autonomous, not as people deeply embedded in social situations.

D) Compared to individualists, collectivists are less likely to see offers from their counterparts as unfair and to reject them.

E) The method of conflict management preferred by collectivist managers is competing.

Q4) Discuss the effects of moods and emotions on effectiveness of negotiations.

Q5) What is BATNA? Discuss the significance of BATNA.

Q6) Explain how self-efficacy impacts negotiation outcomes.

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Chapter 15: Foundations of Organization Structure

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Q1) In general, less ________ organizations have a greater amount of ________.

A) centralized; authority

B) organized; autonomy

C) authoritarian; control

D) centralized; formality

E) centralized; autonomy

Q2) The matrix structure reduces the possibility of power struggles.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Why is span of control important within an organization, and which common organizational design would most likely have the widest span of control? Explain your answer.

Q4) The divisional structure has the opposite benefits and disadvantages of the functional structure.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Organizations do not always stay with the basis of departmentalization they first adopt, as is the case with Microsoft, explain.

Q6) Compare and contrast centralized and decentralized organizations.

Q7) Describe the various characteristics of bureaucracy.

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Chapter 16: Organizational Culture

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Q1) Explain the concept of organizational climate.

Q2) Detail orientation is a primary characteristic of an organization's culture that indicates the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve them.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Organizations that promote a spiritual culture ________.

A) use stories for transmitting the organizational culture to the employees

B) use wide spans of control

C) recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work

D) de-emphasize community differences within the organization

E) tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction

Q4) In the ________ employees value growth, variety, attention to detail, stimulation, and autonomy.

A) market

B) adhocracy

C) clan

D) bureaucracy

E) hierarchy

Q5) Explain the characteristics of a positive organizational culture.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Human Resource Policies and Practices

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Q1) Compare and contrast between on-the-job training and off-the-job training.

Q2) Which of the following is an off-the-job training method?

A) job rotation

B) formal mentoring programs

C) Internet courses

D) job enlargement

E) apprenticeship

Q3) The performance review should be designed more as a mechanism for providing feedback and determining reward allocation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ________ training involves employees helping each other out at the workplace in an unplanned and unstructured environment.

A) Formal

B) Ethics

C) Interpersonal

D) Informal

E) Classroom

Q5) Provide some suggestions for improving performance evaluations.

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Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Stress Management

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Q1) Passion for change among entrepreneurs is greatest when work roles and the social environment encourage them to put their creative identities forward.

A)True

B)False

Q2) "Buying off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role and seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement is an example of

A) coercion

B) cooptation

C) procedural fairness

D) distributive bargaining

E) operant conditioning

Q3) In a paradox situation, we are required to balance tensions within only one specific situation or setting.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss the various individual approaches toward managing stress.

Q5) Who are change agents?

Page 20

Q6) Describe the process of appreciative inquiry (AI).

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