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Organizational Development explores the theories, strategies, and practical approaches used to improve organizational effectiveness and health through planned change. Students will learn about diagnostic models, interventions, and processes that facilitate growth, adaptation, and innovation within organizations. The course covers topics such as organizational culture, change management, team development, leadership, and the evaluation of development initiatives, preparing students to manage and lead change in diverse organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Science The Real World and You 8th Edition by Debra L. Nelson
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18 Chapters
2280 Verified Questions
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99 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early research with individuals, groups, and organizations in the midst of environmental change found that change is often experienced as a threat which leads to a reliance on well-learned and dominant forms of behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Toyota lost its way in the late 2000s because it:
A)underestimated USA competition
B)tried to increase prices higher than the market would tolerate
C)emphasized production in the US
D)cut costs aggressively in order to increase profitability
Answer: D
Q3) Total quality management is an employee-driven philosophy of management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Global competition is a leading force driving change at work.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) The Americans with Disabilities Act defines disabled as:
A)persons with permanent physical and mental problems
B)anyone with a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities
C)individuals with physical impairments only
D)those who cannot work
Answer: B
Q2) With respect to the multiple roles assumed by women, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Men have been favorably predisposed to adopt the sharing of domestic responsibilities.
B)Working women often find themselves in the position of caring for the elderly parents.
C)Arranging for child care is typically the woman's responsibility.
D)Women have been quick to adopt the provider role.
Answer: A
Q3) A transnational business firm operates only in the European Union.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primacy effect is also known as:
A)selective perception
B)self-fulfilling prophecy
C)first-impression error
D)a stereotype
Answer: C
Q2) Suppose, for example, that a sales manager is evaluating the performance of his employees.One employee does not get along well with colleagues and rarely completes sales reports on time.This employee, however, generates the most new sales contracts in the office.The sales manager chooses to ignore the negative information and evaluates the salesperson only on contracts generated.The manager is exercising:
A)projection
B)selective perception
C)self-fulfilling prophecy
D)fundamental attribution error
Answer: B
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Q1) Cognitive Dissonance
A)The emotional component of an attitude.
B)Reflects a person's perceptions and beliefs.
C)A conflict between attitudes and behavior.
D)Acquisition of attitudes through observing others.
E)Object or person is a powerful influence on attitudes.
Q2) What elements need to be present in order for one's influence attempt to be successful?
Q3) Groupon is considered to have a unique psychological impact because it preys on their customers' attitudes and emotions. All of the following are ways Groupon uses customer attitudes and emotions<b> Except</b>:
A)Groupon customers typically wait a week to see the size of a discount
B)Groupon makes deals that fit the needs of the customers in a particular city
C)Groupon deals typically involve a good deal of "choice" for consumers
D)the "tipping point" may be very low and gives the perspective that the deal is popular
Q4) Normative commitment is often based on a sense of loyalty or obligation to an organization.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The importance and value placed on a reward in expectancy theory is known as:
A)need satisfaction
B)instrumentality
C)likelihood
D)valence
Q2) ERG theory explains both progression need and gratification up the hierarchy and regression when people are faced with frustration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Expectancy Theory assumes the individual is rational and acts as a minicomputer, calculating probabilities and values.
A)True
B)False
Q4) TAT
A)A projective test used extensively by David McClelland.
B)Desire to accomplish goals and perform at high level.
C)Desire to dominate others.
D)Company policy and working conditions in the two-factor theory.
E)Interest in being around others and developing meaningful relationships.
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Q1) Intuitors, in terms of learning, prefer:
A)to search for practical applications
B)interpersonal involvement
C)specific, empirical data
D)theoretical frameworks
Q2) If a random number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs, it is a:
A)fixed interval schedule
B)fixed ratio schedule
C)variable interval schedule
D)variable ratio schedule
Q3) A strength of the 360-degree feedback appraisal is the extent to which there is low level of agreement with supervisory evaluations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Specific feedback is beneficial for initial performance but discourages exploration and undermines the learning needed for later, more independent performance.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Type A behavior is also labeled coronary-prone behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the four approaches to stress appears most useful in understanding job and work-related stress?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a mind-body change associated with stress?
A)redirection of blood to brain and large muscle groups
B)increased sensory alertness
C)release of glucose into bloodstream
D)normal physical fatigue
Q4) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a source of stress at work?
A)task demands
B)interpersonal demands
C)psychological demands
D)role demands
Q5) It is unfortunate that stress carries a negative connotation as though it were something to be avoided.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some of the differences between Type A and Type B personalities?
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Q1) Eye Contact
A)One's view of the world and its influence on interpersonal communication.
B)A receiver's response to the message received from the sender.
C)Feedback from receiver for purpose of checking accuracy of sender's message.
D)A form of nonverbal communication.
E)Repeating of a message using different words, or a form of oral shorthand.
Q2) In nonverbal communication, the study of body movements, including posture, is known as:
A)kinesics
B)proxemics
C)paralanguage
D)posturics
Q3) Many of the communication technologies significantly limit or eliminate _____ forms of communication.
A)written
B)nondefensive
C)dominant
D)nonverbal
Q4) How can you be a reflective (or better) listener in the classroom?
Q5) What are some of the barriers to effective classroom communication?
10
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Q1) Identify the stages of group development in Tuckman's 5-stage model, and briefly discuss the differences between the 5-stage model and Gersick's punctuated equilibrium model.
Q2) Status Structure
A)Emotional closeness to other group members.
B)A task function of a team.
C)Closeness to the group and its members achieved through tasks and activities.
D)Set of authority and task relations among a group's members.
E)A maintenance function of a team or group.
Q3) Decision Making
A)The final or mature stage of group development.
B)Non-designated leadership.
C)The facilitator and linking pin member of a cross-functional team.
D)The second stage of group development.
E)Alternate periods of inertia and bursts of energy.
Q4) Informal groups do not go through the same stages of group development that formal groups go through.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What factors of a group work situation affect cohesiveness?
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Q1) Heuristics are shortcuts in decision making that save mental activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Intuition
A)A person's preference for gathering information and evaluating alternatives.
B)A cognitive style where the individual evaluates options objectively and impersonally.
C)Usually a positive influence on decision making that operates below the level of consciousness.
D)An occupation where we find sensors/thinkers.
E)This cognitive style can handle interpersonal problems well and tends to take calculated risks.
Q3) In the consideration of whether the right or the left part of the brain should be utilized in decision making, the ideal situation is to be:
A)right brain dominant
B)left brain dominant
C)brain-neutralized
D)brain-lateralized
Q4) What individual and organization influences affect creativity?
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Q1) Distinguish between power, authority, and influence.
Q2) Self-management or the highest level of empowerment represents:
A)decision-making control over job content and job context
B)shared decision making over job context
C)shared decision making over job content
D)decision-making control over internal critical psychological processes as they relate to the job
Q3) All of the following are guidelines for implementing an empowerment program <b>except</b>:
A)create opportunities for employees to participate in significant problem solving
B)remove tight controls
C)allow failure and offer constructive criticism
D)set modest goals
Q4) The use of power and influence in organizations is referred to as:
A)manipulative
B)negative
C)organizational politics
D)an alternative to authority
Q5) What are some of the symbols of power found in many business organizations?
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Q1) Transformational leaders:
A)inspire and stimulate followers to high performance levels
B)use reward and punishment to shape employee behavior
C)rely on contractual arrangements to manage employees
D)use legitimate and reward power
Q2) The Michigan leadership studies saw the dimensions of leadership as coexisting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Kotter, effective leadership produces useful change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to John Kotter, leadership (in contrast to management) entails:
A)planning and budgeting
B)organizing and staffing
C)problem solving
D)setting a direction for the organization
Q5) Adolf Hitler is an example of a charismatic leader.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the Ohio State leadership model with the Leadership Grid.
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Q1) All of the following are negative conflict diagnostic questions <b>except</b>:
A)Is energy being diverted from goal achievement?
B)Is the outcome likely to be negative for the organization?
C)Are the parties hostile toward each other?
D)Do the potential losses exceed any potential benefits?
Q2) According to the discussion of conflict offered in the text, conflict cannot be:
A)managed
B)prevented
C)dysfunctional
D)functional
Q3) One way of classifying styles of conflict management is to examine the styles' cooperativeness and the styles':
A)assertiveness
B)accommodation
C)degree of competition
D)degree of compromise
Q4) How can conflict be functional and positive?
Q5) What are the structural factors that cause conflict in an organization?
Q6) What are ways of preventing and/or eliminating intergroup conflict within an organization?
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Q1) Scientific management involves enriching job tasks and demands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Job Characteristics Model is a/an:
A)job enrichment approach to job design
B)person-job fit approach to job design and employee job placement
C)task specification approach to job design
D)individual abilities approach to job design
Q3) A negative outcome of the mechanistic approach to job design is:
A)higher absenteeism
B)greater chance of errors
C)greater chance of mental overload and stress
D)significantly greater financial resources required
Q4) Autonomy
A)Completion of whole task.
B)Use of multiple skills and performance of different activities.
C)Discretion and freedom in performance of job tasks.
D)Information about job performance.
E)Importance of job to organization.
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Q1) Machine Bureaucracy
A)A full service gas station.
B)The presidential campaign organization for one of the two political parties.
C)Ford Motor Company.
D)The Dallas Cowboys.
E)The Securities and Exchange Commission.
Q2) Differentiation
A)The process of breaking organizational goals into tasks.
B)The linking of organizational parts, jobs, and roles for coordinated effort.
C)The number of employees, total assets, or units produced.
D)Tools, procedures, techniques, information, and machines used to create output.
E)Area, activities, or people outside the boundaries of an organization
Q3) Spatial Differentiation
A)The process of crafting and adjusting the structure of an organization.
B)Jobs, organizational units and their linkage.
C)Geographic dispersion of organizational units.
D)A graphic representation of jobs, functions, and organizational units.
E)Close supervision and a narrow span of control.
Q4) Identify four bases of departmentation or differentiation.
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Q1) The primary purpose of socialization is the transmission of:
A)core values to new members
B)task demands
C)information associated with the realistic preview
D)information that allow future employees to master the job
Q2) Triangulation
A)Multiple measures and assessments of culture.
B)A self-report instrument for assessing organizational culture.
C)Early stage of socialization.
D)Time is one of two dimensions of this culture instrument.
E)Document listing accepted organizational behaviors and values.
Q3) The fit perspective of culture argues that:
A)a culture is "good" only if it fits the industry's or the firm's strategy
B)a culture is appropriate when it fits BOTH market characteristics and the approach or strategy to the market
C)an organization adapts the strategy of an organization to its culture
D)the lean or flat organization is the most appropriate culture
Q4) Enacted values are what the members say they value.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common work-home conflict develops because of:
A)extensive out-of-town travel of one or both partners
B)family member illness
C)child's educational requirements
D)lack of job progression opportunities for one of the partners
Q2) Which of the following type of person will NOT be successful in the new career paradigm?
A)flexible
B)tolerant of ambiguity
C)energized by change
D)hierarchical
Q3) According to the expectancy theory view of how individuals choose organizations, individuals choose organizations that maximize positive outcomes and avoid negative outcomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Reality shock occurs for most persons in the encounter stage of organizational socialization.
A)True
B)False
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Questions
Q1) The phrase "that which we create, we support" reflects which key strategy for managing resistance to change?
A)support
B)communication
C)participation
D)creativity in problem solving
Q2) Disengagement involves:
A)breaking the psychological contract
B)mass terminations
C)increasing performance standards
D)employee discipline
Q3) Real World 18.1 discusses Coca-Cola's sustainability projects of making bottles out of sugar cane plants which reduces the carbon footprint of plastic bottles by 12-19%. This is an example of:
A)planned change
B)unplanned change
C)internal change
D)all the above
Q4) Identify at least three external and three internal forces for organizational change.
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