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Organizational Communication Textbook Exam Questions - 1914 Verified Questions

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Organizational Communication

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Organizational Communication explores the theories, principles, and practices of communication within various types of organizations, such as businesses, nonprofits, and governmental institutions. The course examines how information is transmitted, received, and interpreted among employees, management, and external stakeholders. Topics include communication networks, organizational culture, leadership communication, conflict management, group decision-making, and the impact of technology on organizational processes. Through case studies, practical activities, and analysis, students gain skills to enhance effectiveness in internal and external communication, contributing to successful organizational outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Organizational Behavior 10th Edition by Robert Kreitner

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18 Chapters

1914 Verified Questions

1914 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Organizational Behavior: The Quest for

People-Centered Organizations and Ethical Conduct

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103 Verified Questions

103 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Intel spends millions of dollars each year to encourage education in math and science by holding tough contests with scholarships. This policy:

A)builds human capital.

B)improves the productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships.

C)increases employee turnover.

D)reflects a Theory X view of human nature.

E)aims to promote philanthropy.

Answer: A

Q2) Trust can be built in organizations through the sharing of critical information. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Employers are generally lax when it comes to checking references, credentials, transcripts, and other information on applicant résumés.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Managing Diversity: Releasing Every Employees

Potential

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104 Verified Questions

104 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) External dimensions of diversity contain an element of control or choice. A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q2) R Roosevelt Thomas Jr's isolation approach maintains the current way of doing things by setting the diverse person off to the side. A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q3) List out the eight generic action options identified by R Roosevelt Thomas Jr. Answer: (1) Include/Exclude

(2) Deny

(3) Assimilate

(4) Suppress

(5) Isolate

(6) Tolerate

(7) Build Relationships

(8) Foster Mutual Adaptation

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Chapter 3: Organizational Culture, Socialization, and Mentoring

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100 Verified Questions

100 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Observable artifacts such as special parking places, decorations, or ceremonies are physical manifestations of an organization's culture.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Realistic job previews _____.

A)build self-esteem

B)alter unrealistic expectations

C)present a negative view of the organization

D)improve job performance

E)raise recruiting costs

Answer: B

Q3) An increase in the gap between espoused and enacted values positively influences employee attitudes and organizational performance.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 5

Chapter 4: International OB: Managing Across Cultures

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102 Verified Questions

102 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Helen plans for several activities simultaneously on a daily basis. Most often, it is impossible to execute them on time as she has so many activities. However, the impossibility factor does not affect her as she believes that time is flexible. This implies that Helen belongs to a _____ culture.

A)low-context

B)polychronic

C)monochronic

D)universalistic

E)relativistic

Q2) According to the findings of the GLOBE project, self-centeredness was a universally liked leader attribute.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Experiential training is the easiest cross-cultural training program.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Proxemics is the study of cultural expectations about interpersonal space.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Key Individual Differences and the Road to Success

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102 Verified Questions

102 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jennifer and Michelle are good friends who have been working at the same department store for the past two years. One day, Jennifer came to work in a foul mood. She was rude with the other employees, and even snapped at a few customers. Seeing Jennifer, Michelle's mood started to turn sour as well. Which of the following explains Michelle's change in mood?

A)Emotional labor

B)Emotional intelligence

C)Emotional self-management

D)Emotional self-awareness

E)Emotional contagion

Q2) Self-esteem is usually unrelated to a person's level of education.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Whistle-blowing is likely to occur when organizational identification is excessive.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is a proactive personality? How does having a proactive personality relate to resiliency?

Q5) Distinguish between self-esteem and self-efficacy.

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Chapter 6: Values, Attitudes, Job Satisfaction, and

Counter-Productive Work Behaviors

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Ajzen's theory of planned behavior, an individual's _____ is the best predictor of behavior.

A)value

B)subjective norm

C)attitude

D)intention

E)ability

Q2) Affective commitment reflects a feeling of obligation to continue employment.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In which of the following stages of life is a person least likely to change his or her general attitudes?

A)Childhood

B)Adolescence

C)Early adulthood

D)Middle adulthood

E)Early adolescence

Q4) Job satisfaction is not a unitary concept.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Social Perception and Attributions

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Sample Questions

Q1) John is Harry's boss, and really likes the way Harry handles a number of people-related issues. John feels that Harry is an up-standing guy who really cares about other people, even though he is not very good at the technical aspects of his job. John uses this overall impression and gives Harry a really good rating in the performance evaluation. Which of the following perceptual errors explains John's behavior?

A)Recency effect

B)Leniency

C)Halo

D)Contrast effect

E)Central tendency

Q2) A stereotype is a set of beliefs about the characteristics or attributes of a group.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Galatea effect occurs when an individual's high self-expectations lead to high performance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain the practical applications of the attribution models in the workplace.

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Chapter 8: Foundations of Motivation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Job design refers to any set of activities that involve the alteration of specific jobs or interdependent systems of jobs with the intent of improving the quality of employee job experience and their on-the-job productivity.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to Alderfer's ERG theory, frustration of higher-order needs can influence the desire for lower-order needs.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The _____ is defined as the desire to spend time in social relationships and activities.

A)need for achievement

B)safety need

C)need for power

D)need for affiliation

E)self-actualization need

Q4) Job crafting represents a middle ground between top-down and bottom-up methods.

A)True

B)False

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Improving Job Performance With Goals,

Feedback, Rewards, and Positive Reinforcement

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108 Verified Questions

108 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mention some of the tips that managers should keep in mind when giving feedback as part of a comprehensive performance management program.

Q2) Barbara is training her new puppy to sit on command. Every time the puppy responds correctly, it receives a treat. Barbara is using a _____ reinforcement schedule.

A)fixed reward

B)variable ratio

C)fixed interval

D)variable interval

E)continuous

Q3) Superior performance does not deteriorate if left unrewarded.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Managers can accomplish leading for meaningfulness by helping employees identify their passions at work and creating an exciting organizational vision employees feel connected to.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Why do extrinsic rewards too often fail to motivate employees?

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Chapter 10: Group Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A group member who says _____ is performing a maintenance role.

A)"What is the real issue here? We don't seem to be going anywhere."

B)"Let's accept and praise the various points of view."

C)"We can do this. We've met difficult goals before."

D)"Last week we decided to table this agenda item. Are we ready to address it again?"

E)"A goal of 150 per week sounds reasonable."

Q2) A planning committee which consists of 10 members has been in existence for the past five years. The members are now dissatisfied with their place in the committee and with the leadership. A few members have their own projects that they want to promote which has led to the formation of sub-groups. As the level of performance declines, the committee is in danger of falling apart. Which of the following stages of group decay is the planning committee currently in?

A)Adjourning

B)De-norming

C)De-forming

D)Declining

E)De-storming

Q3) Distinguish between roles and norms. Why do norms exist in organizations?

Q4) How does a manager decide the optimum size of a work group?

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Chapter 11: Developing and Leading Effective Teams

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101 Verified Questions

101 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A work group becomes a team when:

A)leadership becomes an individual activity.

B)accountability is strictly individual.

C)problem solving is not a way of life.

D)the group develops its own purpose and mission.

E)effectiveness is measured by each individual's outcomes.

Q2) Which of the following statements is true about a team?

A)A team consists of people committed to a common purpose.

B)A team is composed of people who have identical skills.

C)A team is made up of individuals who hold each other responsible for any failures.

D)A team that matures to the performing stage is called a task group.

E)A team becomes a group when leadership becomes a shared activity.

Q3) The primary threat to team effectiveness is unrealistic expectations leading to frustration, which in turn encourages members to abandon the team.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Mention three steps managers can use to enhance the two types of cohesiveness.

Q5) Explain and compare the four general types of work teams.

Q6) Describe the attributes of high-performance teams.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Individual and Group Decision Making

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Sample Questions

Q1) People with analytical style like to consider more information and alternatives than do directives.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is true about the expertise component of intuition?

A)It reflects the automatic, underlying effect one experiences in response to an object, person, situation, or decision opportunity.

B)This source of intuition increases with age and experience.

C)It refers to the component of intuition that includes explicit knowledge and excludes tacit knowledge.

D)People using this form of information may not be able to explain why they want to make a certain decision, except that the choice "feels right."

E)It represents a judgment that is based on a subconscious integration of information stored in memory.

Q3) Creativity is highest when there is time pressure.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Mention the rules that managers should follow for brainstorming.

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Chapter 13: Managing Conflict and Negotiating

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101 Verified Questions

101 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe four alternative dispute resolution techniques.

Q2) George has a habit of disrupting meetings by asking irrelevant questions and daydreaming. He does not listen to his colleagues' ideas and presentations during meetings. His colleagues are getting irritated with his behavior. This implies that George is stimulating:

A)programmed conflict.

B)devil's advocacy.

C)functional conflict.

D)workplace incivility.

E)the dialectic method.

Q3) Managers should _____ to build cross-cultural relationships.

A)be excessively competitive

B)avoid self-management

C)compromise rather than dominate

D)advocate transactional leadership

E)avoid participative leadership

Q4) Membership on the peer review panel often is rotated among employees.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Mention the changes associated with increased group cohesiveness.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Communicating in the Digital Age

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101 Verified Questions

101 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) E-mail causes a decrease in all other forms of communication among coworkers, including greetings and informal conversations.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Leaning forward is a nonverbal cue that communicates immediacy.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Describe the effects of social media on communication within an organization.

Q4) Which of the following is true regarding touch as a source of nonverbal communication?

A)Men do more touching during conversations than women.

B)Men and women have the same interpretations of touch during conversations.

C)People tend to touch those they like.

D)Norms about touching are remarkably similar across cultures.

E)Touching is a weak nonverbal cue.

Q5) Asynchronous communication occurs when employees in different locations and time zones work simultaneously.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Describe the application of the contingency approach to the selection of media.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Influence, Empowerment, and Politics

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114 Verified Questions

114 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _____ influence tactic involves making express or implied promises and trading favors.

A)exchange

B)pressure

C)personal appeals

D)consultation

E)ingratiation

Q2) Impression management is the process by which people attempt to control or manipulate the reactions of others to images of themselves or their ideas.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Favorable upward impression management tactics can be job-focused, supervisor-focused, and self-focused.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Ingratiation is deemed to be a moderately effective tactic relied on by managers.

A)True

B)False

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Leadership

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111 Verified Questions

111 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the trait approach to studying leadership, three traits-intelligence, dominance, and masculinity-are associated with leadership prototypes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A key managerial implication of path-goal theory is that:

A)managers should be trained to improve leader-member relations.

B)organizational effectiveness can be enhanced by appropriately matching leaders with situations.

C)managers should modify their leadership style to fit various employee and task characteristics.

D)managers need to give employees ample opportunity to prove themselves.

E)managers should consciously try to expand their in-groups.

Q3) According to Fiedler's contingency model the most important dimension of situational control is task structure.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Shared leadership focuses on increased service to others over self-interest.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Organizational Design, Effectiveness, and Innovation

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121 Verified Questions

121 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When measuring organizational effectiveness, the _____ approach is appropriate when objectives are clear, consensual, time-bounded, and measurable.

A)internal processes

B)goal accomplishment

C)stakeholder audit

D)strategic constituencies

E)resource acquisition

Q2) Employees in a matrix structure report to two managers: one in charge of the function they perform and the other in charge of the project they are working on. This is a violation of the principle of:

A)absorptive capacity.

B)cognitive complexity.

C)locus of control.

D)unity of command.

E)span of control.

Q3) A functional structure can save money by grouping together people who need similar materials and equipment.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Managing Change and Stress

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100 Verified Questions

100 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) All organizational changes need not be consistent with an organization's strategic mission statement and strategic plan.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The four components of organizational development are:

A)diagnosis, intervention, evaluation, feedback.

B)mild change, value-loaded, diagnosis/prescription cycle, process-oriented.

C)evaluation, feedback, diagnosis/prescription cycle, goal-oriented.

D)profound change, objective, intervention, process-oriented.

E)evaluation, value-loaded, life cycle, process-oriented.

Q3) Define the concept of hardiness, including the personality characteristics of hardiness. How would you rate your hardiness level?

Q4) Manipulation and co-optation are the recommended approach for overcoming resistance to change when:

A)there is a lack of information or inaccurate analysis.

B)other tactics will not work or are too expensive.

C)speed is essential.

D)one group will clearly lose out in the change.

E)people are resisting because of adjustment problems.

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