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Organizational Behaviour explores the dynamics of individuals and groups within organizational settings, examining how human behavior impacts workplace effectiveness and productivity. This course delves into key topics such as motivation, leadership, communication, team dynamics, organizational culture, decision-making, and change management. Through theoretical frameworks and real-world case studies, students gain insights into managing diverse workforces, resolving conflicts, and fostering a positive organizational environment that supports both personal and organizational goals.
Recommended Textbook
Canadian Organizational Behaviour 7th Edition by Steven McShane
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156 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organizations should 'unlearn':
A) in many situations involving organizational change.
B) whenever new knowledge is brought into the organization.
C) whenever the organization shifts from communities of practice to experimentation in the knowledge acquisition process.
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers apply.
Answer: A
Q2) Recent studies have found that counterproductive work behaviours have a very small negative effect on organizational performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Workforce diversity does not consider the differences in psychological characteristics of employees.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-enhancement can result in bad decisions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following statements about values is FALSE?
A) Values help define what is right or wrong and good or bad in the world.
B) Values are arranged into a hierarchy of preferences.
C) The values that dominate a person's preferences differ across cultures.
D) Values guide our decisions and actions.
E) A person's hierarchy of values typically changes a few times each year.
Answer: E
Q3) Companies can improve employee role perceptions by describing the employee's assigned tasks clearly and providing meaningful performance feedback.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Generally,people develop a clearer self-concept as they get older.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Q1) One problem with stereotyping is that few traits assigned to a particular social category accurately describe every person identified with that group.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) How might self-serving bias be observed in a corporate annual report?
A) The report would say more about the company's problems and less about its successes.
B) The report would emphasise the role of competition, inflationary pressures and other external causes of problems in the organization's performance.
C) The report would exclude any bad news about the organization's performance.
D) The report would acknowledge that competition, the economy and other external factors should be credited for some of the company's recent success.
E) The report would acknowledge some of management's mistakes, but suggest that management in other companies have been making the same mistakes.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual harassment includes both unwanted sexual relations as well as a hostile work environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person's evaluation of his or her job and work context is called:
A) job satisfaction.
B) emotional intelligence.
C) affective commitment.
D) cognitive dissonance.
E) emotions.
Q3) To ward off stress,a film director likes to have a good laugh.When under pressure,the director will crack jokes and ensure everyone has a good laugh during the hard work.These actions mainly reduce stress:
A) by removing the stressor.
B) by providing social support.
C) by changing stress perceptions.
D) by controlling the consequences of stress.
E) in none of the ways stated here.
Q4) Explain how an employee's attitudes might be affected by cognitive dissonance.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maslow's needs hierarchy theory discusses all of the following concepts EXCEPT:
A) deficiency needs.
B) need fulfillment.
C) drive to acquire.
D) self-actualization.
E) safety needs.
Q2) Which of these motivation theories arranges employee needs in a hierarchy of importance?
A) ERG theory
B) Four-drive theory
C) Expectancy theory
D) McClelland's learned needs theory
E) ERG theory and McClelland's learned needs theory
Q3) The two types of need for power in learned needs theory are:
A) personalized and socialized.
B) individual and team.
C) corporate and political.
D) high and low.
E) monetary and non-monetary.
Q4) Compare and contrast ERG theory with McClelland's theory of learned needs.
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Q1) How do growth needs relate to the job characteristics model?
A) Growth needs are the critical psychological state resulting from skill variety and task identity.
B) High growth needs are one of the psychological states in the job characteristics model.
C) Job enrichment might motivate those with high growth needs more than those with low growth needs, but recent studies suggest this relationship is weak, at best.
D) Growth needs increase with the level of autonomy offered in the job.
E) Growth needs are not mentioned in the job characteristics model.
Q2) Motivator-hygiene theory highlights the idea that job content is an important source of employee motivation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Executive dining rooms represent a form of job status reward.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast gainsharing with employee share ownership plans.
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Q1) Which of the following is a creative practice?
A) Asking people unfamiliar with the issue to explore the problem with you.
B) Looking through the notes and files of past projects.
C) Performing morphological analysis.
D) All of these statements improve creativity.
E) None of these statements improves creativity
Q2) You have just received seed money for a new e-commerce business and you want to hire a dozen people with a lot of creative potential.To hire the most creative people,you would select applicants who:
A) have no experience in this industry, have high analytic intelligence, and have a relatively low need for achievement.
B) value self-direction, have a high degree of nonconformity, and have a relatively low need for affiliation.
C) have strong mental models regarding their field of knowledge, have high synthetic intelligence, and have a relatively low need for social approval.
D) try to avoid taking risks, have a high need for achievement, and have a high need for social approval.
E) have none of these sets of characteristics.
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Q1) Which of the following refers to the tendency of highly cohesive groups to value consensus at the price of decision quality?
A) Group polarization
B) Groupthink
C) Escalation of commitment
D) Evaluation apprehension
E) Brainstorming
Q2) Forming smaller teams and measuring individual rather than team performance tends to increase the likelihood of social loafing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Production employees working on an assembly line usually have which of the following types of task interdependence?
A) Sequential interdependence
B) Total independence
C) Reciprocal interdependence
D) Pooled interdependence
E) None of these represents the interdependence of an assembly line.
Q4) Describe the distinctive features of a typical self-directed team.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT explicitly identified in the communication process model?
A) Empathy
B) Noise
C) Transmission
D) Encoding
E) Decoding
Q2) Which of the following reduces information overload by increasing the person's information-processing capacity?
A) Using a filtering algorithm to screen out incoming email.
B) Learning speed-reading to read more pages per hour.
C) Reading summaries of long documents.
D) Using an assistant to screen out unwanted mail.
E) All of these increase the person's information-processing capacity.
Q3) One advantage of email is that it is very easy to interpret the emotional tone of the sender's message.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Should companies try to eliminate grapevine communication? Explain your answer.
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Q1) A manager's legitimate power over subordinates exists when:
A) the organization grants formal authority over the employees.
B) the manager is able to reward or punish the employees.
C) employees agree to let the manager have power over them.
D) employees are blinded by the manager's charisma.
E) the organization grants formal authority AND employees agree to let the manager use this authority.
Q2) People who have more power over others tend to engage in more automatic rather than mindful thinking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Employees are more likely to comply with a supervisor's legitimate power when:
A) the employees have a high power distance value.
B) the power holder gives orders outside the employees' normal role requirements.
C) the company encourages people to disobey orders that interfere with their work.
D) the employees have a low power distance value.
E) the employees have low collectivism.
Q4) Which types of people are more likely to engage in organizational politics?
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Q1) What effect does making concessions have on negotiations?
A) Concessions enable the parties to move towards the area of potential agreement.
B) Concessions symbolize each party's motivation to negotiate in good faith.
C) Concessions communicate to the other party the relative importance of negotiating items.
D) Concessions have all of these effects on negotiations.
E) Concessions have none of these effects on negotiations.
Q2) Constructive conflict is more likely to escalate into relationship conflict among employees in highly cohesive teams
A)True
B)False
Q3) Negotiation occurs whenever two or more conflicting parties try to redefine the terms of their interdependence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Constructive conflict is one of the more serious forms of relationship conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why should leaders of diverse teams require better conflict management skills?
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Q1) The behavioural perspective of leadership identifies two leadership styles that have been adopted by other leadership theories.Describe the two leadership styles in the behavioural perspective and identify one other leadership theory that applies these styles.
Q2) Which of the following is a leadership style identified in path-goal theory?
A) Achievement-oriented leadership.
B) Selling style of leadership.
C) Transformational leadership style.
D) Emotionally intelligent leadership style.
E) All of these are leadership styles identified in path-goal theory .
Q3) Servant leadership is most closely associated with:
A) path-goal leadership.
B) the implicit leadership perspective.
C) the competency perspective of leadership.
D) the behavioural perspective of leadership.
E) transformational leadership.
Q4) The behavioural and contingency leadership theories adopt more of a transactional and less of a transformational perspective of leadership.
A)True
B)False

14
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Q1) A simple structure is one of the best structures in which to accommodate organizational growth and diversification.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the main advantages of network structures is that they ensure the core organization has a high degree of control over production,marketing and other functions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The increasing recognition that an organization has only a few core competencies is one of the forces pushing towards more:
A) functional structures.
B) simple structures.
C) client-based divisionalized structures.
D) network structures.
E) team-based structures.
Q4) Integrator roles increase informal communication as a coordinating mechanism.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Using attraction-selection-attrition (ASA)theory,explain how organizations tend to maintain and perpetuate their cultures.
Q2) The three stages of organizational socialization are psychological contract,confirmation,and role management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is potentially an artifact of organizational culture?
A) Artwork on office walls
B) The way visitors to the organization are greeted
C) The names employees give to conference rooms
D) All of these are potentially artifacts.
E) Artwork, greeting visitors, and conference room names are rarely, if ever, considered artifacts.
Q4) The assumptions and values shared most widely by employees represent:
A) the organization's dominant culture.
B) the organization's deculturation process.
C) the organization's counterculture.
D) artifacts held mainly by senior executives in the organization.
E) organizational rituals.
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Q1) What do action research and future search events have in common?
A) Both focus on opportunities, not problems.
B) Both are unethical practices.
C) Both encourage employee involvement in the change process.
D) Both rely on technology to facilitate change through an external consultant.
E) Action research and search conferences have nothing in common because they are opposite practices.
Q2) Increasing the restraining forces and reducing or removing the driving forces would:
A) make the change process more difficult to implement.
B) remove any resistance to change.
C) have no effect on the change process.
D) give the change agent more power in the change process.
E) make the change process easier to implement.
Q3) Resistance to change is a form of dysfunctional conflict that must be addressed. A)True B)False
Q4) According to the force field analysis model,what is the best strategy to move the status quo to a desired state?
Q5) Outline the organizational change process based on the action research approach.
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