Organizational Behavior
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior explores the dynamics of individual and group interactions within the workplace, focusing on how behavior, structure, culture, and processes influence organizational effectiveness. The course examines key concepts such as motivation, leadership, communication, decision-making, conflict management, and organizational change. Students analyze real-world scenarios to understand how organizational policies and practices impact employee attitudes, productivity, and overall organizational performance. By integrating theories from psychology, sociology, and management, this course equips students with the skills to foster positive work environments and enhance organizational outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Employment and Labor Law 7th Edition by
Patrick J. Cihon
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Page 2
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Q1) David hired John as an assistant in his art studio. After two months David discharged John from his position due to John's bad quality of work. Under which doctrine can we say David discharged John?
A) Title VII
B) Employment-at-will
C) The Social Security Act
D) Willful misconduct
Answer: B
Q2) The first of several statutes to set the terms and conditions of employment to be provided by government contractors is known as the:
A) Merchant Marine (Jones) Act (1936).
B) Fair Labor Standards Act (1938).
C) Walsh-Healy Act (1936).
D) Social Security Act (1935).
Answer: C
Q3) Which statute provides pensions to retired workers?
Answer: The Social Security Act of 1935 deals with provisions on pensions that are to be provided to retired workers.
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Chapter 2: Employment Contracts and Wrongful Discharge
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Q1) Adam was an employee of ABC Corporation and he discovered the management was hiring illegal immigrants in most of its factories. He raised objection against the employer's practices and provided information to the law enforcing agencies regarding the illegal activities. The employer retaliated against Adam by terminating his employment. In this scenario, Adam is protected under:
A) Pennsylvania Human Relation Act which prohibits employee retaliation.
B) Section 203 and Section 806 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act for illegal strikes.
C) OSHA and Title VII which protect employees who blow the whistle on illegal practice.
D) Section 203 of Title VII for breach of contract.
Answer: C
Q2) The freedom of employees to quit the employment relationship is an important issue underlying which doctrine?
A) the express contract doctrine.
B) the employment-at-will doctrine.
C) in independent employee doctrine.
D) the legal doctrine of an implied employment.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Commonly Committed Workplace Torts
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Q1) Which of the following is a requirement to submit a claim to binding arbitration?
A) Fair Labor Standards Act Amendment 12
B) Equal Employment Opportunities Commission's Form 22-A
C) National Labor Relations Act preemption
D) North American Free Trade Agreement's Form 17-C
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following can be considered to be a civil wrong?
A) injunction
B) tort
C) ordeal
D) ordinance
Answer: B
Q3) Define the tort of defamation.
Answer: A communication is defamatory if it tends to harm the reputation of another as to lower him in the estimation of the community or to deter third persons from associating or dealing with him.
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Chapter 4: Employee Privacy Rights in the 21st Century
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Q1) Requests for medical information and conducting internal investigations are examples of:
A) placing the plaintiff in a false light in the public eye.
B) violating the Fifth Amendment.
C) intellectual property theft.
D) intrusion upon employees' privacy.
Q2) Discuss why genetic testing is one of the most pressing ethical dilemma employers are facing today.
Q3) Pre-employment drug testing is typically considered:
A) contractual.
B) mandatory.
C) illegal.
D) a company policy.
Q4) If a former employer withholds relevant information about an employee from his or her new employer, this may actually expose the former employer to:
A) criminal liability.
B) tort liability.
C) civil liability.
D) absolute liability.
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Chapter 5: The Global Perspective: International
Employment Law and American Immigration Policy
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Q1) Identify the statement which accurately represents the functions of the International Labor Organization (ILO).
A) The International Labor Organization (ILO) is a branch of the World Bank.
B) ILO "laws" always supersede an individual nation's sovereignty.
C) The United States is a signatory to all ILO enactments or pronouncements.
D) U.S. labor and employment laws in many instances are equal or superior to the ILO scheme.
Q2) Yen Singh had migrated from Bangladesh to U.S., and was working as a labor in the manufacturing industry. He was physically assaulted and victimized by the labor union for an extended period of time. Under which statute can he file a complaint in the district court?
A) Alien Tort statute
B) Torture Victim Protection Act of 1991
C) National Labor Relations Act
D) Tort Claim Act
Q3) What is the Union Network International (UNI)?
Q4) What are the necessary documents an employer must show to prove that the employee is a U.S. Citizen or is lawfully authorized to work in the United States?
Q5) What steps did Brazil take in the eradication of child labor and slavery?
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Chapter 6: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and Race Discrimination
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Q1) Write a short note on retaliation under Title VII.
Q2) A method of demonstrating that an employment selection device correlates with the skills and knowledge required for successful job performance is called:
A) construct validity.
B) content validity.
C) disparate impact.
D) criterion-related validity.
Q3) When an employee is treated differently from others due to race, color, religion, gender, or national origin it amounts to:
A) four-fifths treatment rule.
B) seniority.
C) disparate impact.
D) disparate treatment.
Q4) The Thompson v. North American Stainless, LP. case focuses on:
A) content validity.
B) retaliation in violation of Title VII.
C) seniority.
D) gambling.
Q5) Define construct validity.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Gender and Family Issues: Title VII and Other Legislation
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Q1) Explain the provision of the Equal Pay Act.
Q2) Wendell was fired without sufficient reason by her company once they became aware of her pregnancy. The company assumed that the Wendell was likely to be absent from work for lengthy periods due to her pregnancy and the ensuing responsibilities of parenthood. In this circumstance, Wendell has a remedy under the:
A) Equal Pay Act.
B) National Labor Relation Act.
C) Pregnancy discrimination Act.
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act.
Q3) Which of the following prohibits advertising for male or female employees in help-wanted notices (apart from a few exceptions) or maintaining separate seniority lists for male and female employees?
A) Bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)
B) Section 703
C) Equal Pay Act
D) The Bennett Amendment
Q4) What are the conditions to receive family temporary disability insurance benefits?
Q5) What are the important aspects of the Family and Medical Leave Act?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Discrimination Based on Religion and National
Origin Procedures Under Title VII
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Q1) How does Equal Employment opportunity commission (EEOC) differ from the workings of the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB)?
Q2) Explain Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, and Discrimination Based on National Origin or Citizenship.
Q3) Discuss the Equal Employment opportunity commission (EEOC) guidelines that are considered in determining what amounts to reasonable accommodation and whether it results in undue hardship.
Q4) In Garcia v. Spun Steak Company, where the employees and the union filed suit against Spun Steak, alleging that the English-only policy violated Title VII, the court of Appeals:
A) dismissed the trial court judgment.
B) remanded the trial court judgment.
C) reversed the trial court judgment.
D) enforced the trial court judgment.
Q5) What are disparate treatment claims?
Q6) Why should employers avoid arbitrary employment criteria, such as height or weight for applicants?
Q8) What is the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009? Page 10
Q7) Explain ministerial exemption within the context of Title VII.
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Chapter 9: Discrimination Based on Age
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Q1) Carl is working as a ground staff for Ramset airlines since five years and his employer refused to complete his annual appraisal since he was over fifty years of age. He filed suit alleging violation under Age Discrimination in Employment Act. The court decided in favor of Carl and also ordered for remedies such as:
A) back pay.
B) liquidated damages and legal fees.
C) increment of salary.
D) reinstatement.
Q2) In Oubre v. Entergy Operations, Inc, both sides conceded the release the employee signed did not comply with the requirements of the:
A) The Older Workers Benefit Protection Act.
B) Americans with Disability Act.
C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
D) National Labor Relation Act.
Q3) When is arbitration for ADEA claims enforced?
Q4) What is meant by "age discrimination in employment" and under which act is it prohibited?
Q5) How is the Age Discrimination in Employment Act enforced and administered?
Q6) What is bona fide seniority or benefit plan? What is its significance?
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Discrimination Based on Disability
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Q1) In Smith v. Blue Cross/Blue Shield of Kansas, Inc., an accommodation that would eliminate an essential function of the employee's job is not reasonable, and an employer is not required to wait indefinitely for:
A) an employee to return to work.
B) the government to take action.
C) insurance to be paid.
D) an employee to take medical test.
Q2) In Humphrey v. Memorial Hospitals Association, Carolyn Humphrey worked for Memorial Hospitals Association (MHA) as a medical transcriptionist. Humphrey was fired on October 10, 1995 because of her history of:
A) stress and anxiety.
B) tardiness and absenteeism.
C) reduced sales and profitability.
D) surgery and heart disease.
Q3) What is the American with Disabilities Act?
Q4) Is AIDS a disability under ADA and Rehabilitation Act? Why or why not?
Q5) Define "undue hardship".
Q6) How do state laws handle discrimination with respect to disabilities?
Q7) What is the constitutional validity of drug testing by public sector employment?
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Chapter 11: Other Eeo and Employment Legislation: Federal and State Laws
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) The Michigan Civil Rights Act specifically prohibits discrimination based on height or weight.
B) The District of Columbia Human Rights Law prohibits discrimination based on personal appearance or political affiliation.
C) Maine law requires employers to post a notice in the workplace informing employees that sexual harassment is illegal.
D) New York law prohibits a mother from breast-feeding her child in any public place where she is authorized to be.
Q2) Except in those instances where sex may be a BFOQ, all state EEO laws, in terms or conditions of employment, prohibit the discrimination on the basis of:
A) age.
B) gender.
C) sexual orientation.
D) race.
Q3) What are remedial affirmative action plans?
Q4) Define affirmative action plans.
Q5) What are the exceptions under EPPA to allow polygraph testing?
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Chapter 12: The Rise of Organized Labor and Its Regulatory Framework
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Q1) The purpose and effect of the Taft-Hartley Act were to balance the rights and duties of:
A) different unions coming together.
B) employee and employers.
C) both unions and employers.
D) non-unionized employees.
Q2) Who proposed the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) in the Senate and in which year?
Q3) For labor issues, the National Labor Relations Board itself is the:
A) judicial branch.
B) administrative branch.
C) legislative branch.
D) arbitral tribunal.
Q4) What are the types of legal issues the NLRB handles?
Q5) Judicially exempted employees under the NLRA include:
A) expatriates.
B) government employees.
C) migrant employees.
D) confidential employees.
Q6) Define managerial employees.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Unionization Process
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Q1) In American Hospital Association v. NLRB, the U.S. Supreme Court upheld the NLRB's health care industry bargaining unit rules and the power of the NLRB in order to establish:
A) prima facie case through disparate impact treatment.
B) bargaining units through its rule-making authority.
C) trade union through its discretionary power.
D) hiring hall through its mandatory power.
Q2) Mr. Todd was elected as a bargaining representative of the labor union at Hudson Manufacturing Company. Later, it was found that Mr. Todd did not have majority support to remain as a bargaining representative. So, a group of employees decided to file a(n) _____ under the provisions of Section 9 (c) (1) of National Labor Relations Act.
A) decertification petition
B) suo moto action
C) appeal
D) quo warranto
Q3) What is bargaining unit?
Q4) Explain the second exception under contract bar rule.
Q5) What happens if the union loses the election due to employer's illegal actions?
Q6) Explain the two exceptions of contract bar rule.
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Chapter 14: Unfair Labor Practices by Employers and Unions
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Q1) Samantha was an active union member at Texas Tools Inc., which employed around three thousand employees. Owing to the huge workforce, Samantha was assigned tasks that went beyond the scope of her work, though she was paid for these tasks. It was later found that Samantha had claimed false expenses. Samantha's actions amount to a violation of _____ of the NLRA.
A) Section 9.
B) Section 7.
C) Sections 8(a) (3) and 8(b) (2).
D) Section 8(b) (6).
Q2) In Lechmere, Inc. v. NLRB, Lechmere's refusal to allow non employee union organizers onto its property to attempt to organize the store's employees, was held as an unfair labor practice under _____ of the NLRA.
A) Section 8(a)(1)
B) Section 7
C) Section 2(5)
D) Section 8(b)(1)(A)
Q3) Apart from whipsaw strikes, what are the other reasons for engaging in multiemployer bargaining with union?
Q4) What are the remedies for violation of Section 8(a) (2) of NLRA?
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Chapter 15: Collective Bargaining
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true of the NLRA's approach to the duty to bargain?
A) The act imposes an obligation to bargain collectively upon the union.
B) The act allows the employer to refuse to bargain with the bargaining unit.
C) The act does not control the results of the bargaining process.
D) The act does not compel either party to agree to a proposal or require the making of a concession.
Q2) The subjects that vitally affect the terms and conditions of the employment of the employees in the ? bargaining unit are called _____ bargaining subjects.
A) restricted
B) mandatory
C) permissive
D) prohibited
Q3) What are permissive bargaining subjects?
Q4) What are prohibited bargaining subjects?
Q5) Define mass layoffs.
Q6) Explain plant closing legislation.
Q7) Briefly describe the duty to bargain.
Q8) What was the purpose of the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Act (WARN)?
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Chapter 16: Picketing and Strikes
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Q1) When was the Norris-La Guardia Act passed and what are its provisions relating to strike?
Q2) In Smitley v. NLRB, after the NLRB dismissed a complaint that the union had violated Section 8(b) (7) (C) of the National Labor Relation Act, the company sought judicial review of the Board's decision. The court of appeals held that Section 8(b) (7) did not intend to prohibit all picketing having the named "object" of:
A) consumer picketing.
B) recognitional or organizational picketing.
C) labor picketing.
D) product picketing.
Q3) Secondary boycott prohibitions were intended to protect _____ from union pressure.
A) private employers
B) neutral employers
C) the federal government
D) health-care providers
Q4) What are the national emergency provisions under the Taft-Hartley Act of 1947?
Q5) Briefly explain the concept of consumer picketing.
Q6) What are hot cargo clauses?
Page 20
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Chapter 17: The Enforcement and Administration of the Collective Agreement
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Q1) Presidential Cargo Movers Inc. entered into an agreement with its employee union to refrain from layoffs during the recession. Despite the agreement, the company decided to lay off a few of its employees. The union decided to file a complaint against the company for not living up to its obligations under the agreement. The union's action amounts to a(n):
A) in-house trial.
B) jury trial.
C) grievance.
D) arbitration proceedings.
Q2) The dispute regarding payment of wages between the West Coastal Company and its union was referred to a neutral arbitrator. The arbitration created a new agreement stating the terms and conditions of payment of wages. This is an example of a(n) _____ arbitration.
A) persuasive
B) interest
C) mandatory
D) rights
Q3) What conditions should be met by an employer petitioning for bankruptcy protection to reject the collective agreement?
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Chapter 18: The Rights of Union Members
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Q1) The duty of fair representation is a judicially created obligation on the part of the union to represent fairly all employees in the:
A) arbitral tribunal.
B) illegal strike.
C) legal proceeding.
D) bargaining unit.
Q2) Who established the content of notice under a new executive order issued by President Barak Obama?
Q3) In a wage dispute at Schindler Steels, the union participated in the negotiation without exhibiting favoritism to the employees. The union leadership was appreciative of the management constraints and was willing to renegotiate their demands accordingly. This action of the union is representative of its:
A) adherence to the labor contract.
B) duty of fair representative.
C) adherence to the bargaining agreement.
D) duty of fair labor practice.
Q4) What are the rights guaranteed under Section (10)(a)(1) of the Labor Management Reporting and Disclosure Act?
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22
Chapter 19: Public Sector Labor Relations
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Q1) Nearly 30 percent of the bargaining unit members at Specialty Mills Company no longer wish to be represented by their exclusive representative union. When such a petition is filed, the representation question will be investigated by the:
A) International Labor Union.
B) National Labor Relations Board.
C) Federal Labor Relations Authority.
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Q2) All collective agreements under the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Act must contain a grievance procedure. Within how many days may either of the parties appeal to the Fair Labor Relations Authority if arbitration is invoked?
A) 90
B) 15
C) 30
D) 60
Q3) Mediation is generally the first step in the:
A) grievance process.
B) impasse resolution process.
C) arbitration proceedings.
D) negotiation process.
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Page 23
Chapter 20: Occupational Safety and Health
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Q1) Does federal labor law cover illegal immigrants?
Q2) The Secretary of Labor recently issued new guidelines standards dealing with toxic materials or harmful physical agents. Associated Cements Inc. finds itself unable to comply with a standard by its effective date because of the unavailability of professional or technological personnel. Accordingly, Associated Cements Inc. may seek exemption under:
A) temporary variance.
B) unilateral contract.
C) nonfeasance.
D) mitigation of standards.
Q3) Under which law can illegal immigrant workers challenge the employer if the wage paid to them is lower than the minimum wage?
Q4) The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission is a(n) _____ created to adjudicate contested enforcement actions of OSHA.
A) quasi-judicial agency
B) administrative body
C) judicial body
D) temporary agency
Q5) Briefly explain the scope of the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
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Chapter 21: The Employee's Safety Nets: Unemployment
and Workers' Compensation, Social Security, and Retirement Plans
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Q1) In the case of a railroad worker accident brought to court in the 1900s, one of the defenses the railroad company used against the plaintiff was the "fellow-servant" doctrine. What does this refer to?
A) The claims for such incidents are usually settled out-of-court, as between fellows.
B) The company is not a separate entity above the employee, but a colleague and a caretaker.
C) The injured employee had assumed responsibility of the risks involved.
D) The accident is attributed to the negligence of the co-worker.
Q2) What are the three major benefits that fall under the Social Security system?
Q3) The minimum standards for pension plans must be met for the plan to qualify for:
A) liquidity benefits.
B) preferential tax treatment.
C) federal accreditation.
D) FELA status.
Q4) Which of the following is not a category under the Social Security system?
A) Retirement insurance benefits
B) Medicare
C) Unemployment benefits
D) Disability
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Chapter 22: The Fair Labor Standards Act
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Q1) Minors under age fourteen can be employed only in _____ under specific limitations and with parental consent.
A) agriculture
B) packaging
C) domestic-care jobs
D) sports companies
Q2) Which of the following Acts is not aimed at restricting or regulating child labor?
A) The National Industrial Recovery Act
B) The Walsh-Healy Act
C) The Fair Labor Standards Act
D) Age Discrimination and Employment Act
Q3) Explain the concept of overtime pay under the FLSA.
Q4) Can employees file a suit to recover back wages and overtime pay? If so, what are the limitations for FLSA violations?
Q5) Name three kinds of labor that have been found hazardous for minors by the Secretary of Labor.
Q6) What was impact of the first federal law against child labor?
Q7) Discuss the provisions regarding child labor under the Fair Labor Standards Act.
Page 26
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