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Organizational Behavior explores the study of how individuals and groups act within organizations, emphasizing the impact of structure, culture, leadership, motivation, communication, and team dynamics on workplace effectiveness. The course examines theories and concepts drawn from psychology, sociology, and management, providing students with analytical tools to understand and influence employee attitudes, behaviors, and organizational outcomes. Through case studies and real-world applications, students learn strategies for fostering productive work environments, managing change, and enhancing organizational performance.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 18th Edition by Stephen P. Robbins
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a position in a service job?
A) human resource executive
B) administrative executive
C) flight attendant
D) environmental campaigner
E) production line worker
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an input at an individual level?
A) motivation
B) moods
C) values
D) perception
E) emotions
Answer: C
Q3) The job of a guest relations executive at a hotel is a kind of service job.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Gina Sanchez, an architect in California, is renovating an old school building and turning it into a retail and entertainment space. She must decide how the existing layout can be redesigned and modified to best suit the new uses. Which of the following dimensions of intelligence will most help Gina reimagine the existing building?
A) haptic perception
B) spatial visualization
C) memory
D) inductive reasoning
E) deductive reasoning
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a kind of physical ability which refers to the ability to make rapid, repeated flexing movements?
A) equilibrium
B) balance
C) dynamic flexibility
D) static strength
E) body coordination
Answer: C
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Q1) The performance variables productivity, absenteeism, and turnover are generally considered a part of the ________ behaviors in the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework.
A) voice and neglect
B) neglect and loyalty
C) voice and exit
D) loyalty and voice
E) exit and neglect
Answer: E
Q2) The most important thing a manager can do to raise employee satisfaction is to focus on ________.
A) employee pay
B) benefits
C) work hours
D) intrinsic parts of the job
E) employee productivity
Answer: D
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Q1) Rachel Hartley is a former top management graduate student who now works as a project manager at a retail firm. However, despite her strong educational background, she often finds it difficult to manage her team efficiently. She is not able to understand her team's emotions when they feel frustrated with a work challenge or when they need appreciation for a job well done. Which of the following does Hartley suffer from?
A) downing effect
B) low emotional dissonance
C) depressive realism
D) low cognitive dissonance
E) low emotional intelligence
Q2) Moods are more intense than emotions and invariably arise because of a specific event acting as a stimulus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions.
Q4) Discuss the affective events theory.
Q5) Displayed emotions are innate and cannot be learned.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The degree to which norms, cues, or standards dictate appropriate behavior is known as consistency.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the ________ type prefer verbal activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain powers.
A) realistic
B) conventional
C) artistic
D) enterprising
E) investigative
Q3) John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Which of the following is one of these six types?
A) analytic
B) imaginative
C) practical
D) investigative
E) intuitive
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Q1) If a person responds to a particular situation in the same way over a long time period, then the attribution theory states that the behavior demonstrates ________.
A) distinctiveness
B) consensus
C) consistency
D) discontinuity
E) traceability
Q2) Alicia Akers works as a marketing executive. She always talks in a high pitch and often draws a lot of attention wherever she is. Which of the following statements best explains the reason behind people noticing Akers?
A) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's past experiences.
B) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's personality.
C) Characteristics of the target affect people's perception.
D) The time at which we observe behavior affects perception.
E) Motives and interests of the perceiver affects perception of behavior.
Q3) Explain with an example the contrast effect.
Q4) Explain how stereotyping can cause problems for some managers when making ethical decisions. Provide an example.
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Q1) With reference to the four sources of self-efficacy as proposed by Albert Bandura, verbal persuasion involves becoming more confident ________.
A) because you have gained relevant experience with the particular task or job
B) because you see someone else doing the particular task or job
C) because someone convinces you that you have the skills necessary to be successful
D) because you are rewarded for performing a similar task well
E) because you get energized or "psyched up" to perform the particular task or job
Q2) The two-factor theory has been well supported in research and is very much in use in research in Asia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following needs would most motivate Jonathan?
A) social-belongingness
B) esteem
C) physiological
D) self-actualization
E) safety-security
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Q1) For employee stock ownership plans to be effective in improving performance, they must ________.
A) be based solely on productivity like gainsharing plans
B) be implemented such that employees psychologically experience ownership
C) be determined on the basis of performance appraisals and recent performance
D) be planned such that they are unaffected by company profitability
E) be based on the market compensation philosophy
Q2) Employee involvement and participation (EIP) is a process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to organizational success.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is not a benefit of flextime.
A) Reduced absenteeism
B) Decreased work/life balance
C) Increased productivity
D) Reduced tardiness
E) Increased autonomy
Q4) What are the various dimensions of the job characteristics model?
Q5) List and describe different variable-pay programs.
Q6) Describe the aspects of a company bonus plan.
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Q1) As compared to individual decision making, group decision making is preferable because of ________.
A) conformity pressures associated with groups
B) the domination of one or a few members of a group
C) the ambiguous responsibility associated with group decisions
D) the increased diversity of views in groups
E) the time involved in arriving at group decisions
Q2) Norms can cover any aspect of group behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following represents the second action in the group development process of a temporary group?
A) group direction set
B) transition after half of time taken up
C) inertia and slow progress
D) second phase of inertia
E) accelerated activity
Q4) Groupthink is a phenomenon that relates to the consensus norms.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Describe and discuss self-managed work teams.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams?
A) climate of trust
B) company reputation
C) adequate resources
D) member flexibility
E) leadership and structure
Q3) While discussing their marketing campaign for a new product, the members of the cross-functional team responsible for Carver Inc. realized that a couple of changes relating to their prior plan would be beneficial. The offer of a franchising that had earlier been brushed off by the company head was discussed thoroughly, and it was decided that it would be implemented on a trial basis initially and on full scale if found to work well. From the information provided, it can be concluded that this cross-functional team has a high degree of ________.
A) demography
B) reflexivity
C) conformity
D) diversity
E) uncertainty
Q4) Explain how organizations can create team players.
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Q1) The all-channel network is practiced most commonly in ________.
A) traditional teams
B) self-managed teams
C) cross-functional teams
D) problem-solving groups
E) work groups
Q2) Which of the following communication channels provides the highest information richness?
A) e-mail
B) face-to-face conversations
C) online group discussions
D) voice mail
E) memos and letters
Q3) Which of the following is desirable with regard to persuasive communication?
A) increasing the degree of noise in the communication process
B) manipulating information so the receiver will see it more favorably
C) engaging in selective perception
D) processing a lot of information even if it exceeds our capacity
E) matching the type of message with the type of audience
Q4) Distinguish between high-context and low-context cultures.
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Q1) What are the key characteristics of charismatic leaders?
Q2) Leaders who want to foster a climate that reinforces ethical behavior do all of the following except ________.
A) set high ethical standards
B) demonstrate good ethical behavior
C) encourage integrity among employees
D) reward employees demonstrating integrity
E) use their charisma to enhance power over followers, directed towards self-serving ends
Q3) The Ohio State Studies narrowed a list of more than a thousand dimensions to just one that accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees: participation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The only key characteristic we use to determine the trustworthiness of a leader is his or her ability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is abusive supervision?
Q6) Describe the full range of leadership model.
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Q1) Which of the following impression management techniques involves an individual admitting responsibility for an undesirable event and simultaneously seeking to get a pardon for the action?
A) flattery
B) favors
C) apologies
D) misrepresentation
E) exemplification
Q2) When employees see politics as a threat, they often ________.
A) create role ambiguity
B) use democratic decision making
C) use a single outcome measure
D) respond with defensive behaviors
E) allow a significant lapse
Q3) Legitimate power is directly based on ________.
A) charisma of the leader
B) interpersonal trust and commitment of the manager
C) structural position of the manager in the organization
D) personality traits of the manager
E) ability of the manager to serve his or her subordinates
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Q1) Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique?
A) expansion of resources
B) compromise
C) bringing in outsiders
D) exercising authoritative command
E) problem solving
Q2) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is unassertive and uncooperative?
A) competing
B) collaborating
C) avoiding
D) compromising
E) accommodating
Q3) Making sure negotiations are designed to focus on well-defined and work-related terms also has promise for reducing gender differences by minimizing the ambiguous space for stereotypes to operate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Studies demonstrate that in work settings, relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. Why?
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Q1) ________ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.
A) Formalization
B) Departmentalization
C) Centralization
D) Work specialization
E) Line of command
Q2) The divisional structure has the opposite benefits and disadvantages of the functional structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The matrix structure reduces the possibility of power struggles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bureaucracy is characterized by decentralized authority and wider spans of control.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the various ways in which the negative impact of downsizing can be minimized.
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Q1) Top management has a major impact on the organization's culture by ________.
A) establishing norms that filter down through the organization
B) ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values
C) socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase
D) providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires
E) properly rewarding employees' initiatives
Q2) Explain the difference between a typical U.S. manager's point of view of ethical behavior and that of a manager in a developing economy and the implications of the difference.
Q3) Detail orientation is one of the six primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization's culture. It indicates the degree to which ________.
A) employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks
B) management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve them
C) management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization
D) work activities are organized around teams rather than individuals
E) employees are expected to exhibit precision, analysis, and attention to detail
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Q1) Your organization has reduced layers, flattening the organization. Your employees now need to perform a wider variety of tasks. As a result, you need to provide employees with training to help develop their ________ skills.
A) basic literacy
B) technical
C) interpersonal
D) problem solving
E) communication
Q2) The critical incidents method of performance evaluation focuses the evaluator's attention on the difference between executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common contingent check just prior to employment is a drug test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most formal training involves employees simply helping each other out.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work?
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Q1) What are the various individual sources of resistance to change?
Q2) Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called ________.
A) negotiation
B) conciliation
C) education
D) coercion
E) manipulation
Q3) What are the various forces that make it necessary for organizations to change?
Q4) ________ are persons who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing refinement activities.
A) Early adopters
B) Free riders
C) Laggards
D) Change agents
E) Whistle-blowers
Q5) Change is not as inevitable for companies as it is for individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Who are change agents?
Q7) Describe Lewin's three-step model used for managing change. Page 20
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