
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior explores how individuals, groups, and structures influence behavior within organizations, aiming to improve an organizations effectiveness. The course covers key topics such as motivation, leadership, team dynamics, communication, organizational culture, and decision-making. Through the analysis of theories, real-world cases, and practical applications, students develop the skills to understand and manage human behavior in professional settings, fostering productive work environments and addressing complex organizational challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Improving Performance 4th Edition by Jason Colquitt
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Q1) Analyses are written predictions that specify relationships between variables.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The integrative model of OB was designed with the Rule of One-Eighth in mind.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following correlations indicate a perfect statistical relationship between two variables?
A)1
B)-1
C)0
D)100
E)-100
Answer: A
Q4) A correlation describes the statistical relationship between two variables.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) The _____ approach uses critical incidents to create a measure that can be used to evaluate employee performance.
A)management by objectives
B)360-degree feedback
C)behaviorally anchored rating scales
D)benchmarking
E)behavioral observation scales
Answer: C
Q2) _____ involves employee responses to job demands that are novel, unusual, or unpredictable.
A)Job dissonance
B)Adaptive task performance
C)Counterproductive behavior
D)Routine task performance
E)Citizenship behavior
Answer: B
Q3) Wasting resources is the most common form of production deviance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Describe the four types of employees using the combination of two variables: organizational commitment and task performance.
Answer: The four types of employees using the combination of two variables organizational commitment and task performance are:
Stars: possess high commitment and high performance and are held up as role models for other employees. Citizens: possess high commitment and low task performance but perform many of the voluntary "extra-role" activities that are needed to make the organization function smoothly. Lone wolves: possess low levels of organizational commitment but high levels of task performance and are motivated to achieve work goals for themselves, not necessarily for their company. Apathetics: possess low levels of both organizational commitment and task performance and merely exert the minimum level of effort needed to keep their jobs.
Q2) Tardiness reflects the tendency to arrive at work late or leave work early.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Service jobs are high in emotional labor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the effects of job satisfaction on performance and commitment.
Q3) A person with high job satisfaction will have _____ life satisfaction.
A)weak
B)high
C)moderate
D)high negative
E)low positive
Q4) Emotions can be categorized into:
A)structured and unstructured.
B)cognition and affect.
C)schemas and rules.
D)positive and negative.
E)semi-structured and unstructured.
Q5) Define moods.Briefly summarize the different moods in which people sometimes find themselves.
Q6) What is JDI? Discuss the developers' suggestions regarding the administration of JDI.
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Q1) Two people sharing the responsibilities of a single job, as if the two people were a single performing unit is known as:
A)job sharing.
B)telecommuting.
C)compressed working hours.
D)contracting.
E)term-time working.
Q2) Hindrance stressors such as role ambiguity, conflict, and overload not only cause strain but also decrease commitment and job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Self-motivation and changing priorities are examples of:
A)fear-avoidance behavior coping strategies.
B)emotion-focused behavior coping strategies.
C)emotion-focused cognitive coping strategies.
D)problem-focused cognitive coping strategies.
E)primary coping strategies.
Q4) Do people cope with stressors differently? Explain the four broad categories of coping.
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Q1) Identify and explain some factors that alter the effects of goal setting on task performance.
Q2) The person who seems to provide an intuitive frame of reference for judging equity is known as:
A)equity resolver.
B)comparison other.
C)cognitive distortion creator.
D)goals monitor.
E)outcome evaluator.
Q3) GroundWork is a venture capital firm that helps in financing small businesses.New hires at the firm are given a project worth $50,000 to work on with minimum interference from the senior associates.The project has large scope for innovation and creation.What was the management attempting to use as a motivator for the new hires?
A)Meaningfulness
B)Self-determination
C)Surface-level diversity
D)Expectancy
E)Outcome interdependence
Q4) Identify and explain the acronym S.M.A.R.T.in goal setting theory.
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Q1) It is argued that _____ represents a sort of "faith in human nature."
A)cognition-based trust
B)trust propensity
C)competence
D)ability
E)rational assessment
Q2) _____ is third step in the four-component model of ethical decision making which reflects an authority's degree of commitment to the moral course of action.
A)Moral attentiveness
B)Moral awareness
C)Moral intensity
D)Moral judgment
E)Moral intent
Q3) What is trustworthiness? Explain how employees can gauge the "track record" of their supervisors.
Q4) Affect-based trust is more rational than emotional.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is moral intensity? Briefly explain the factors that drive moral intensity.
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Q1) With _____ schedule, workers are rewarded after a certain amount of time, and the length of time between reinforcement periods stays the same.
A)fixed interval
B)variable ratio
C)continuous reinforcement
D)fixed ratio
E)variable interval
Q2) Lucy just moved to New York on a job assignment.Lucy got herself a map of the city and various other guides on restaurants, fitness centers, libraries, and theaters.Lucy learns about New York by studying these materials.Lucy acquires _____ knowledge by learning this way.
A)consensus-based
B)tacit
C)explicit
D)intuition-based
E)inherent
Q3) Learning is important because it has a significant impact on decision making.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Melissa was reading her slam book from junior high, in which most of her friends described her as a dependable and reliable individual.In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, the personality dimension _____ best describes Melissa.
A)conscientiousness
B)openness to experience
C)agreeableness
D)introversion
E)neuroticism
Q2) "Approaching tasks by planning and setting goals" describes the _____ type of Myers-Briggs indicator.
A)perceiving
B)introversion
C)extraversion
D)feeling
E)judging
Q3) An extravert exhibits low positive affectivity when compared to an introvert.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Contrast clear purpose tests from veiled purpose tests.
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Q1) Explain the effects of general cognitive ability on performance and commitment.
Q2) When Ben was driving to work, a car speeded past him and its passengers began throwing empty beer cans out of the car window.Though Ben was taken aback by this behavior, he was able to forget the incident and had soon regained his focus on his plan for the day.From the scenario, it can be concluded that Ben has a high degree of _____.
A)other awareness
B)originality
C)personal distress
D)emotion regulation
E)emotional arousal
Q3) Which of these refers to the ability to develop clever and novel ways to solve problems?
A)Coordination
B)Flexibility
C)Originality
D)Number facility
E)Problem sensitivity
Q4) What is quantitative ability? Describe its component abilities.
Q5) Describe the Wonderlic Personnel Test.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about leader-staff teams is false?
A)The members are bound to follow their duties and do not have any scope for improving their performance.
B)The responsibilities of the leader and the rest of the team are distinct.
C)The leader makes decisions for the team and provides direction and control over members.
D)The members perform assigned tasks and cannot choose their own tasks.
E)The members have some latitude with respect to the behaviors they exhibit.
Q2) In teams with high outcome interdependence, team members depend on the performance of other team members for the rewards that they receive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Additive tasks are those which depend on the performance and the abilities of the "weakest link."
Additive tasks are those for which the contributions resulting from the abilities of every member "add up" to determine team performance.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A psychology class has been assigned an individual case study project as well as a group project.The members of the group will receive the same grade for the group project but will be graded separately for their individual projects.Drew, Ben, Donna, and Julia are members of one such group.Drew and Donna worked very hard on the group project.Ben and Julia, however, did not contribute much to the group project because they felt that Drew and Donna would manage to get good grades for the group project.They focused their efforts on their individual projects instead.Ben and Julia's behavior is an example of:
A)groupthink.
B)staff validity.
C)self-serving bias.
D)social loafing.
E)attribution error.
Q2) The highest level of information richness is achieved when messages are transmitted through _____.
A)personal notes
B)face-to-face channels
C)computer reports
D)the telephone
E)e-mails
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Q1) "Responding to infractions promptly and without favoritism" is a suggested guideline for using _____ power.
A)coercive
B)legitimate
C)reward
D)referent
E)expert
Q2) Companies such as Microsoft, Pfizer, and Google are increasingly using ________ to understand the power structures in their organizations and who holds and wields the most influence.They ask employees questions such as "Who do you go to with a new idea?" and "Who can best help you solve a problem?" They analyze the responses to find our which managers and/or employees are most central to and influential in their companies.
A)networking maps
B)performance reviews
C)organizational charts
D)social media tracking
E)FaceBook, Twitter, and Instagram
Q3) Differentiate between inspirational appeal and personal appeal.
Q4) Differentiate between mediation and arbitration.
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Q1) _____ suggest that leaders are born, not made.
A)Leader-member exchange theories
B)Ohio State studies of leadership
C)Transformational theories of leadership
D)Contingent theory of leadership
E)Great person theories of leadership
Q2) In the time-driven model of leadership, which style is reserved for decisions that are insignificant or where employee commitment is unimportant or when the leader's expertise is high and the leader is trusted?
A)Consultative
B)Autocratic
C)Delegative
D)Facilitative
E)Supportive
Q3) Leaders who are high on initiating structure play a passive role in directing group activities and often fail to plan activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the life cycle theory of leadership.
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Q1) _____ reflects where decisions are formally made in organizations.
A)The chain of command
B)Formalization
C)Centralization
D)Work specialization
E)The span of control
Q2) Which of the following is a necessary coordination mechanism that organizations rely on, to get a standardized product or deliver a standardized service?
A)Formalization
B)Centralization
C)Span of control
D)Chain of command
E)Work specialization
Q3) Which of the following is associated with decentralization in decision making?
A)Moderate spans of control
B)Tall spans of control
C)Wide spans of control
D)Narrow spans of control
E)Flat spans of control
Q4) What affect do stable and dynamic environments have on organizational structure?
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Q1) Subcultures unite a smaller subset of the organization's employees.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which stage of socialization do employees adopt the goals and values of the organization, recognize what the organization has been through, and converse with others in the organization using technical language and specific terms that only insiders would comprehend?
A)Encounter
B)Attrition
C)Anticipatory
D)Understanding and adaptation
E)Selection
Q3) _____ are the manifestations of an organizational culture that everyone can see or talk about.
A)Basic underlying assumptions
B)Observable artifacts
C)Espoused values
D)Safety cultures
E)Service cultures
Q4) What is meant by person-organization fit? What are its advantages?
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