

Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior examines the dynamics of how individuals, groups, and structures affect behavior within organizations. This course explores foundational concepts such as motivation, leadership, group dynamics, power, communication, organizational culture, and change management. By analyzing behavioral principles and applying them to real-world scenarios, students gain insight into improving workplace effectiveness, fostering positive organizational environments, and developing strategies to address common challenges in management and team interactions.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 15th Edition by Gary Dessler
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Q1) What is evidence-based human resource management? How does evidence-based human resource management benefit firms?
Answer: Evidence-based human resource management involves using data, facts, analytics, scientific rigor, critical evaluation, and critically evaluated research/case studies to support human resource management proposals, decisions, practices, and conclusions. Put simply, evidence-based human resource management is the deliberate use of the best-available evidence in making decisions about the human resource management practices you are focusing on. Managers should use evidence-based human resource management because unless managers take a healthy, skeptical, evidence-based approach to human resources, they may jump to the wrong managerial conclusions. Life is filled with intuitive-sounding insights, so managers should always be asking questions like, "What is the evidence for this claim?" and "Did this action really cause this result?"
Q2) Centralized HR units whose employees are shared by all the companies' departments to obtain advice are called shared service.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) In Griggs v. Duke Power Company, Griggs sued the power company because it required coal handlers to be high school graduates. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Griggs because ________.
A)high school diplomas were not related to success as a coal handler
B)Duke Power Company intentionally discriminated based on race
C)no business necessity existed for Duke Power Company
D)Title VII forbids job testing
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following refers to the overall effect of employer practices that result in significantly higher percentages of members of protected groups being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion?
A)disparate treatment
B)disparate impact
C)adverse impact
D)prima facie
Answer: C
Q3) Being disabled qualifies an individual for a job.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) MAX Computers manufactures affordable laptops, desktops, and tablets at its factory in Arizona. MAX has experienced a moderate amount of financial success, but upper management wants the firm to grow at a faster rate and become a bigger player in the highly competitive computer market. The firm's greatest problems relate to its employees. Employee turnover is high-most employees at MAX leave within two years or less of being hired. In addition, the rate of productivity among employees is not as high as executives would like. The vice president of human resources is considering moving MAX towards a high-performance work system. Which of the following best supports the argument that MAX should move towards a high-performance work system?
A)MAX competitors regularly use benchmarking to compare their employees to those in other firms.
B)MAX customers purchase new computers every two years according to online customer surveys.
C)Outsourcing clerical tasks would enable MAX to raise employee salaries and increase productivity.
D)Using advanced recruitment and hiring practices will allow MAX to improve employee productivity.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following data collection techniques would be most useful when writing a job description for a software engineer?
A)distributing position analysis questionnaires
B)interviewing employees
C)analyzing organization charts
D)developing a job process chart
Q2) An employer is required to make a "reasonable accommodation" for a disabled individual in which of the following situations?
A)if a disabled person has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job but is prevented by the job's current structure
B)when an employer fails to provide a job description for a position that a disabled person would most likely be able to perform
C)if making changes would present the employer with an undue hardship
D)each time that a disabled individual applies for a position
Q3) Writing a competencies-based job description typically involves compiling a list of job duties.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Recruiting is necessary to ________.
A)determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
B)forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates
C)create positive word-of-mouth about a firm
D)develop an applicant pool
Q2) When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession planning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Kate works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Kate is most likely ________.
A)working as a contingent worker
B)participating in a job rotation
C)using job enlargement
D)benchmarking jobs
Q4) Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?
A)employment malpractice
B)negligent hiring
C)improper hiring
D)invalid screening
Q2) Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A)aptitude tests
B)interest inventories
C)achievement tests
D)projective tests
Q3) Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities?
A)aptitude tests
B)cognitive ability tests
C)work sampling technique
D)job knowledge tests
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Q1) In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address
A)essential job duties
B)occupational benefits
C)salary requirements
D)personality issues
Q2) Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
A)"Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."
B)"Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
C)"Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell me about that."
D)"In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."
Q3) In a brief essay, discuss the effect of modern communications technology on interviews.
Q4) How do nonverbal behaviors and impression management affect an interview?
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Q1) ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires.
A)Needs analysis
B)Task analysis
C)Training strategy
D)Development planning
Q2) What is the final step in the ADDIE training process?
A)evaluating the program's successes or failures
B)rewarding employees for program participation
C)conducting a budget and needs analysis
D)training the targeted group of employees
Q3) What is programmed learning and why is it used in organizations?
Q4) When designing a training evaluation study, most firms prefer to use a time series design instead of a controlled experiment because the time series design correlates change to training while the controlled experiment cannot.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is meant by the idea of organizational change? How does organizational development facilitate organizational change?
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Q1) In order to ensure that performance goals are challenging and relevant, Matthew, a marketing manager, should independently set goals for his subordinates because participatively set goals usually produce lower job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is it important for a manager to appraise a subordinate's performance? How can a manager handle a subordinate who is defensive when told that his or her performance is poor?
Q3) Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process?
A)conducting appraisals of employees
B)monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness
C)providing performance appraisal training to supervisors
D)ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws
Q4) What are the essential steps of the performance appraisal process?
Q5) Top employees often outperform the average or poor employees by as much as 100%.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the four basic types of appraisal interviews.
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Q1) What are the 4 major grounds for dismissal?
Q2) A career is the occupational positions one holds at a single organization. A)True
B)False
Q3) In a brief essay, discuss the roles and responsibilities of managers, mentors, and coaches in an employee's career development.
Q4) Studies suggest that firms that support their employees' career development are rewarded with employee commitment and longer retention rates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The prevailing rule in the United States has been that without an employment contract, either the employer or the employee can terminate at will the employment relationship.
A)True B)False
Q6) Describe at least 4 ways organization can work to boost the retention of employees.
Q7) What are the characteristics of an effective mentor?
Q8) How can firms benefit from retirement planning programs?
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Q1) Which of the following questions is most relevant to developing a market-competitive pay system?
A)What is the ranking of each job?
B)What is the relevant labor market?
C)What percentage of workers are contingent?
D)What are the local and federal pay regulations?
Q2) In the broadest sense, comparable worth may mean comparing jobs that are very dissimilar such as nursing to fire fighting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Salary surveys are used by firms to collect data on employee benefits as well as wage rates for the purpose of pricing jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Job evaluations are used to determine the pay scale of all employees in an organization from hourly workers to the CEO.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a brief essay, compare and contrast the use of pay ranges with broadbanding.
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Q1) With a ________, an executive receives units instead of shares of company stock. In the future, the executive receives cash equal to the appreciation of the units owned.
A)nonqualified stock option
B)premium priced option
C)phantom stock plan
D)restricted stock plan
Q2) Behavior modification principles can be useful to managers who seek to change employee behavior through rewards or punishments linked to performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Vroom's theory, when managers design incentive plans they should do all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)focus on behavior modification methods
B)make incentive plans easy to understand
C)provide training and support to employees
D)boost the confidence level of employees
Q4) Describe what a Scanlon Plan is and its 5 major elements.
Q5) Explain the advantages of employee stock ownership plans.
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Q1) Rita was terminated from her position as an accounts manager with Carson Financial, Inc. On her last day at work, Rita received a check for $3,500. Which of the following did Rita most likely receive from Carson Financial?
A)merit pay
B)annual bonus
C)severance pay
D)performance pay
Q2) Which of the following provides lower rates for the employer or employee and includes all employees regardless of health or physical condition?
A)workers' compensation insurance
B)group life insurance
C)disability insurance
D)pension plans
Q3) A primary benefit of 401(k)plans is that payments made by employees into the plan are pretax, so the employee pays no tax on those dollars until after he or she retires or withdraws the money.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three types of benefits provided by Social Security?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of privacy violations upheld by courts?
A)intrusion
B)drug testing
C)disclosure of medical records
D)publication of private matters
Q2) Employee relations involves managers establishing and maintaining positive employee-employer relationships to contribute to satisfactory productivity and a productive work environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discipline without punishment aims to avoid these drawbacks of normal discipline by reducing its punitive nature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research indicates that individuals are more likely to make unethical choices when faced with minor dilemmas than with major problems.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) You are a supervisor at a large manufacturing firm. What should and shouldn't you do during organizing and preelection campaigns?
Q2) How did labor laws affect employers and employees in the post-Depression United States? What specific laws significantly affected U.S. unions?
Q3) In the majority of NLRB elections, the employer loses because top management fails to focus enough attention on money and benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Supervisors can best handle grievances by providing grievants with long, written responses so that the issue is clear.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the five steps involved in planning a union drive and election.
Q6) Right to work legislation outlaws unions and union membership in specific states.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ________ relates to protecting employees from internal and external security risks.
A)Risk management
B)Security
C)Crisis
D)Safety
Q2) Centerline Communications wants to reduce the number of workplace accidents associated with employee substance abuse. Which of the following would be the most effective method to accomplish this goal?
A)preemployment drug testing
B)preemployment psychological screening
C)a combination of random ongoing drug testing with psychological evaluations
D)a combination of preemployment drug testing and random ongoing drug testing
Q3) One of the primary duties of a supervisor in regards to workplace safety is to conduct a daily walk-through of a work site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss what a job hazard analysis is and how it can be conducted.
Q5) What steps are involved in a basic industrial hygiene program?
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Q1) What are some reasons for firms bringing expatriates home early? How can firms ease the transition during repatriation?
Q2) All of the following are the primary benefits of providing ongoing training to employees on overseas assignments EXCEPT ________.
A)offering educational opportunities
B)developing relationships with co-workers
C)cultivating corporate values and standards
D)providing spousal networking opportunities
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding expatriates?
A)Most expatriates require at least one year of psychological help after returning home.
B)Most expatriates avoid traveling abroad after returning to their home country.
C)Most expatriates and their families prefer open-ended work assignments.
D)Most expatriates quit within three years of returning home.
Q4) A global HR system should integrate global tools, such as online recruitment systems, with local methods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the balance sheet approach to formulating expatriate pay.
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Q1) Unlike large organizations, small businesses benefit from familiarity with employees and flexibility and informality in HR management.
A)True
B)False
Q2) John owns a family business and wants to avoid any appearance that family members are benefiting unfairly from the sacrifice of others workers. This represents the fairness step of:
A)confront family issues
B)treat people fairly
C)set the ground rules
D)family first
Q3) Approximately what percentage of small firms offer retirement benefits to employees?
A)15%
B)35%
C)50%
D)75%
Q4) What are the basic elements and steps involved in a manual HR system? What are the benefits of using an automated HR system?
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