Organizational Behavior Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior explores the dynamics of individual and group behavior within organizations, examining how people interact, communicate, and influence one another in a professional setting. The course covers key topics such as motivation, leadership, team dynamics, organizational culture, decision-making, conflict resolution, and change management. By integrating theories from psychology, sociology, and management, students gain a deeper understanding of how organizational structure and culture shape behavior, as well as strategies managers can use to foster a productive and positive work environment. The course emphasizes both theoretical foundations and practical applications to prepare students for effective leadership and collaboration in diverse organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 14th Edition by Robert L.
Mathis
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Chapter 1: Human Resource Management in Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about a Human Resource Information System?
A) It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own reports and make changes without help from IT.
B) It is a software that runs in a vendor's data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
C) It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
D) It is a software that did payroll, kept track of employees, and ran reports for human resource managers with support from IT.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true of PeopleSoft?
A) It is a software that runs in a vendor's data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
B) It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own support and make changes without help from IT.
C) It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
D) It is a software that kept track of employees for human resource managers with support from IT.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Human Resources Strategy and Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is typically the first step in the HR planning process?
A) Review organization's environmental analysis/strategic plans
B) Develop HR staffing plans and actions
C) Compile HR planning forecasts
D) Assess external and internal workforce
Answer: A
Q2) Benchmarking is the process of comparing business processes and outcomes to an industry standard or best practice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is the function of I-9 audit?
A) Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
B) Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
C) Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
D) Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations
Answer: D
Q4) Define organizational mission.
Answer: Organizational mission is the core reason for the existence of the organization and what makes it unique.
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Chapter 3: Equal Employment Opportunity
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Q1) Define bona fide occupational qualification.
Answer: A bona fide occupational qualification provides a legitimate reason why an employer can exclude persons on otherwise illegal bases of consideration.
Q2) Restricting employees from wearing garments that might get caught in machinery is a form of discrimination and not a business necessity.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) A _____ is a practice required for safe and efficient organizational operations.
A) disparate treatment
B) burden of proof
C) business necessity
D) business emergency
Answer: C
Q4) The use of employee referral programs can contribute toward discrimination at a workplace.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Workforce, Jobs, and Job Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marginal job functions are duties that are part of a job but are incidental or ancillary to the purpose and nature of the job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is comprised of more than 200 statements and examines a variety of dimensions, including decision making and supervising?
A) Work sampling
B) Employee diary/log
C) Position Analysis Questionnaire
D) Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
Q3) What is work life balance?
Q4) Job rotation is the process of shifting a person from job to job.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contingent workers are full time employees.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define job analysis.
Q7) Discuss how teams are used in job design.
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Chapter 5: Individualorganization Relations and Retention
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Q1) Churn refers to the practice of hiring:
A) new employees while laying off others.
B) only those employees who have more than five years of prior experience in a similar industry.
C) through realistic job previews.
D) employees on a short-term contract basis.
Q2) In the context of Frederick Herzberg's motivation/hygiene theory, explain how motivators enhance employee performance?
Q3) Carlos, the HR director of a large paper manufacturing company, is studying the financial costs of turnover of plant personnel at all levels. The easily calculable costs are sobering, but Carlos is also concerned about the hidden costs of turnover that generally include:
A) missed project deadlines.
B) co-worker coaching and salaries.
C) the cost of pre-employment medical tests.
D) the overtime paid to employees covering the separated employees' jobs.
Q4) What are the three major factors that affect individual performance in organizations?
Q5) Describe the various types of absenteeism.
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Chapter 6: Recruiting and Labor Markets
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about good recruiting efforts?
A) If a disparate impact exists between an employer's workforce and the relevant labor markets, then the employer is required by law to expand its external recruiting efforts.
B) Advertising job openings for "exercise boys" for a race track would be considered legal terminology.
C) A salon that advertises job openings for "young and enthusiastic" employees would be considered impartial.
D) Wording about specific designations such as EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in employment advertisements would be considered illegal.
Q2) When compared to internal recruitment, an advantage of external recruiting is that:
A) its selection process is more rigorous.
B) it takes lesser time and resources.
C) recruited employees often require more orientation efforts.
D) it has the potential to generate larger applicant pools.
Q3) Write a short note on Internet job boards.
Q4) What are the advantages and limitations of focusing on internal recruiting sources to fill open positions?
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Chapter 7: Selecting Human Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a feature about validity?
A) The EEOC prefers concurrent validity over predictive validity studies of predictors.
B) Concurrent validity studies take much longer than do predictive studies of predictors.
C) Concurrent validity studies use the employer's existing employees to test whether certain predictors are tied to performance levels.
D) Both concurrent and predictive validity tests can be accurately run with as few as 15 employees.
Q2) A school district hired a school bus driver without conducting a multi-state criminal background check; a background check was conducted only in the state in which the school was located. Subsequently, the school bus driver was convicted of kidnapping one of the children who traveled in his bus. The prosecution in the case revealed that the driver had been convicted ten years ago for a similar case in another state. The school district is guilty of:
A) information falsification.
B) stereotyping.
C) compensatory hiring.
D) negligent hiring.
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Chapter 8: Training Human Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) E-learning can cause trainee anxiety.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cole, the director of training for a manufacturer of heavy equipments, is designing a training program for new sales representatives. The sales representatives need to be able to memorize and recall the exact details from the company catalog regarding types of equipment, their functions, their appropriate and inappropriate uses, pricing, and financing packages. Cole's training program would be most effective if he designed it based on _____ practice.
A) computer-based
B) spaced
C) massed
D) passive
Q3) Cross training occurs when:
A) people are trained to do more than one job.
B) the training takes place outside the employing organization.
C) e-learning is used as the primary mode for delivering the content of a training.
D) the training occurs through interactions and feedback among employees.
Q4) What is an orientation program? Why is it important?
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Chapter 9: Talent, Careers, and Development
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Q1) Which of the following is true of lecture-style classroom instruction?
A) The technique is generally ineffective regardless of the instructor's capabilities.
B) Employees typically resist classroom instruction.
C) Employees have fewer opportunities to participate than in other types of instruction.
D) Its effectiveness is independent of the size of the group.
Q2) In order to reward talented technical people who do not want to move into management, many companies have established:
A) corporate universities for technical development.
B) portable career paths.
C) dual career ladders.
D) job rotation programs.
Q3) Succession planning focuses both on emergency replacements for critical positions and making sure that other successors will be ready with some additional development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does succession planning differ from replacement planning?
Q5) Name and define the different views of careers.
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Chapter 10: Performance Management and Appraisal
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ occurs when a rater gives greater weight to information received first when appraising an individual's performance.
A) leniency error
B) recency effect
C) primacy effect
D) central tendency
Q2) Which of the following is true of the administrative and developmental roles of performance appraisals?
A) The rater plays the role of a judge in an administrative role and plays the role of a coach in a developmental role.
B) The rater plays the role of a coach in an administrative role and plays the role of a judge in a developmental role.
C) The rater plays the role of a coach in both-the administrative role and the developmental role of performance appraisals.
D) The rater plays the role of a judge in both-the administrative role and the developmental role of performance appraisals.
Q3) What are the common employee performance measures?
Q4) Describe the features required in an effective performance management system.
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Chapter 11: Total Rewards and Compensation
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Q1) Which of the following is typical of the performance philosophy of compensation?
A) Pay and raises based on length of service
B) No raises for poor-performing employees
C) Across-the-board raises
D) Pay scales increased annually
Q2) Which of the following is true of an employer who uses the first-quartile strategy of compensation?
A) The employer pays the employees above market levels.
B) The employers determine the pay independent of the market scenario.
C) The employer pays the employees below market levels.
D) The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
Q3) Most federal and state entities rely on the criteria for independent contractor status identified by the _____.
A) National Labor Relations Board
B) Internal Revenue Service
C) Department of Labor
D) U.S. Treasury Department
Q4) A red-circled employee is an employee who is paid above the range for the job.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Variable Pay and Executive Compensation
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Q1) A differential piece-rate system pays employees one piece-rate wage for units produced up to a standard output and a higher piece-rate wage for units produced over the standard.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the primary objectives of profit sharing plans.
Q3) Nonfinancial rewards cannot be used as incentives in pay-for-performance plans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is typically classified as a supplemental benefit plan?
A) Health insurance
B) Estate planning
C) Retirement insurance
D) Basic salary
Q5) Profitsharing distributes some portion of organizational profits to employees.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the two primary ways of distributing group/team incentives.
Q7) What are employee stock ownership plans?
Q8) Describe the three categories of variable pay.
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Chapter 13: Managing Employee Benefits
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Q1) Copayments are costs that an insured pays for medical treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN) of 1988:
A) requires employers to give 20 days' notice of mass layoff or plant closings.
B) requires employers to give 30 days' notice of mass layoff or plant closings.
C) mandates the payment of severance pay to employees.
D) does not mandate the payment of severance pay to employees.
Q3) Divorced spouses and dependent children of former or current employees should be offered extended health care coverage under the COBRA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Defined contribution pension plans offer greater security to employees because these benefits are guaranteed by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most benefits, except for paid time off, are taxed as income to employees.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Risk Management and Worker Protection
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Q1) A criminal is an individual who instigates workplace violence but has no legitimate relationship with a business.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which organizations are covered under the OSHA? Describe the OSHA enforcement standards that were established to implement OSHA regulations in companies.
Q3) Which of the following is an immeasurable cost associated with accidents in an organization?
A) Damage to work equipment
B) Reduced work group efficiency
C) Time lost because of faulty or offline equipment
D) Negative influence on employees' group morale
Q4) According to the Civil Rights Act and Pregnancy Discrimination Act, employers should not prevent people from working in hazardous jobs because of reproductive concerns.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the standards developed by the OSHA regarding the use of personal protective equipment by employees?
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Chapter 15: Employee Rights and Responsibilities
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Q1) How does the concept of "just cause" affect employment-related action?
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of employee handbooks?
A) The courts use employee handbooks against employers in lawsuits by charging a broken "implied" contract.
B) Employee handbooks should preferably be generalized so that the content matches the general policies followed in a specific industry.
C) Employee handbooks should not include content that would require constant revision because revision can be very expensive.
D) Employee handbooks should always be written in a formal legalistic fashion to ensure its effectiveness.
Q3) Describe three alternative dispute resolution (ADR) processes that are commonly used.
Q4) _____ typically provide specific customary methods to employers for handling activities.
A) Procedures
B) Policies
C) Code of conduct
D) Yellow-dog contracts
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Chapter 16: Unionmanagement Relations
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Q1) Before a union election can be called, _____ of the employees in the targeted employee group must sign authorization cards of the union.
A) a majority
B) two-thirds
C) more than 40 percent
D) at least 30 percent
Q2) What is a "community of interest"? What are the different areas in which employees should have mutual interests in so as to constitute a bargaining unit?
Q3) The Landrum-Griffin Act appointed the U.S. Secretary of Labor to act as a watchdog of union conduct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) _____ shop is an arrangement that makes workers who don't join a union to make payments equal to union dues and fees to get union representation services.
A) restricted
B) union
C) open
D) agency
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