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Organizational Behavior explores the psychological and sociological foundations of behavior within organizations, examining how individuals, groups, and structures impact workplace dynamics and outcomes. The course covers key topics such as motivation, leadership, teamwork, communication, organizational culture, decision-making, power, and conflict resolution. Through a combination of theoretical frameworks and practical case studies, students learn to analyze and improve organizational effectiveness, enhance employee well-being, and foster positive work environments. The aim is to equip students with the insights and skills necessary to understand, predict, and influence behavior in a variety of organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook Management 12th Edition by Robert Kreitner
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2570 Verified Questions
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Q1) When Sunny Day, Inc. requires that its quality inspectors sample work in process and prescribe machine adjustments to avoid substandard outputs, it is following which approach to quality?
A) Build-it-in
B) Fit-it-in
C) Inspect-it-in
D) Design-it-in
E) Force-it
Answer: C
Q2) Product/service quality has become a driving force in all organizations, thanks to the work of quality guru Mary Parker Follett.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Years of headlines about discrimination, accounting fraud, and insider trading have placed managers under strong pressure to behave ethically.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Chain of command refers to who is ultimately responsible for getting things done.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Refer to Harriet and Ben. The production-oriented management session attended by Harriet and Ben at the conference falls under which of these approaches to management?
A) The contingency approach
B) The behavioral approach
C) The operational approach
D) The systems approach
E) The universal process approach
Answer: C
Q3) Chester Barnard's systems perspective has encouraged management and organization theorists to study organizations as complex and dynamic wholes instead of piece by piece.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) What do the various alternative dispute resolution methods such as mediation and arbitration have in common?
A) Binding decision by third party
B) High cost
C) Legally questionable
D) Not available to profit-seeking businesses
E) Out-of-court settlements
Answer: E
Q2) ____ refers to the tools and ideas available for extending the natural physical and mental reach of humankind.
A) Abstract knowledge
B) Technology
C) Abilities
D) Science
E) Skills
Answer: B
Q3) In 2010, 30 percent of all Fortune 500 companies were headed women.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 5
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Q1) ____ can be defined as feelings of anxiety, self-doubt, and isolation brought on by an expectations-reality mismatch.
A) Culture shock
B) Culture drain
C) Jet lag
D) Travel weariness
E) Travel trauma
Q2) The nine cultural dimensions form the GLOBE project include two types of collectivism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refer to Regina Exteriors. Mr. Rodriguez should be prepared to deal with a _________ culture in the U.S.
A) individualistic
B) polychronic
C) collectivist
D) marxist
E) easternized
Q4) A foreign visitor from a polychronic culture has a 10 a.m. appointment with you. Will the person probably be early or late?
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Q1) Which of these is one of the four corporate social responsibility strategies?
A) Legal action
B) Defense
C) Reciprocal
D) Capitulation
E) Retroactive
Q2) According to the author, which statement is true about today's businesses?
A) Companies are involved in social programs that have no direct connection with the bottom line.
B) Companies have no business spending money on social programs because their primary responsibility is to customers.
C) Companies are expected to make as much profit as possible.
D) Companies should get involved in social programs only when management can establish a direct contribution to the bottom line.
E) Companies engage in social programs primarily when they are caught in ethical turmoil.
Q3) Terminal values help achieve instrumental values.
A)True
B)False

Page 7
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Q1) A good example of a(n) ____ is motorcycle maker Harley-Davidson because it successfully produces and markets a few products in a narrowly defined market.
A) reactor
B) prospector
C) defender
D) opportunist
E) analyzer
Q2) By adding a specific time dimension, Gantt charts improve upon flow charts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) E Z-Living International Inc. is an outdoor furniture manufacturer that has been operating in a relatively stable product and market domain for several years. The company emphasizes formal structures and processes to achieve routine and efficient operations. E Z-Living can best be described as a(n)
A) stimulator.
B) prospector.
C) creator.
D) analyzer.
E) reactor.

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Q1) Refer to Home Designs, Inc. If Home Designs markets its products as highly reliable and backed by a unique service guarantee in a two-state region, it is adopting which of Porter's generic strategies?
A) Differentiation
B) Cost leadership
C) Cost focus
D) Focused differentiation
E) Rational
Q2) Porter's model helps managers think strategically by enabling them to see the big picture as it affects the organization and its changing environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synergy has been called the "2 + 1 = 3 effect."
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sources of competitive advantage for production-based Internet business models are search and problem-solving.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ____ is not a technique used to stimulate individual and group creativity.
A) Broadcasting
B) Edisonian method
C) Attribute listing
D) Scientific method
E) Brainstorming
Q2) A group should always make decisions with legal ramifications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When an original situation is changed so that a problem no longer exists, the problem has been dissolved.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because it can expose them to unreasonable risks, managers need to understand
A) logic.
B) psychology.
C) overconfidence.
D) groups.
E) certainty.
Q5) What is a condition of "risk" and how can today's managers deal with it?
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Q1) A company is effective in the ____ time dimension if it is effective, efficient, and a source of satisfaction to key stakeholders.
A) near future
B) near and intermediate futures
C) intermediate future
D) distant future
E) intermediate and distant futures
Q2) How would David A. Garvin describe a learning organization?
Q3) What are two methods an organization should use to help outsiders (new folks) transform from to accepted insiders?
Q4) The contingency approach to organizational design requires managers to evaluate two things, the appropriate combination of structural characteristics and the
A) level of readiness of employees
B) degree of environmental uncertainty
C) amount of resources available
D) level of employee satisfaction
E) ability to grow
Q5) Describe the two basic dimensions of an organization chart.
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Q1) More than 70 percent of people in the U.S. between 18 and 55 years old who have a disability are unemployed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What kind of interview is notorious for being culturally insensitive and is open to legal attack?
A) Traditional unstructured
B) Structured
C) Virtual
D) Lengthy
E) Traditional structured
Q3) Google's vice president of people operations, Laszlo Bock shared during a recent interview that employee retention is largely due to the company perks such as free lunch.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What steps do managers in the U.S. need to take to make their performance appraisals legally defensible in court?
Q5) What are Jeffrey Pfeffer's seven people-centered practices.
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Q1) The Internet and technology have allowed the grapevine to become more fruitful than ever before with a much faster, broader reach than the old water cooler conversations of the past.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Successful decoding is more likely if the receiver knows the language and terminology used in the message.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cliff is a manager at Cardinal's Outdoor Adventures. He wants to implement a new communication strategy within the organization that provides for the exchange of key information and issues in a two-way format. Which of Clampitt's communication strategies would you suggest?
A) Identify and reply
B) Tell and sell
C) Spray and pray
D) Withhold and uphold
E) Underscore and explore
Q4) Why is media selection so important in the communication process?
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Q1) According to Maslow, which of the following represents the proper order of needs from bottom to top?
A) Physiological, esteem, safety, love, and self-actualization
B) Self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological
C) Esteem, love, safety, self-actualization, and physiological
D) Self-actualization, love, esteem, safety, and physiological
E) Physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization
Q2) Unlike job enrichment, which merely combines equally simple tasks, job enlargement builds more complexity and depth into jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A study of 164 New Zealand companies with at least 100 employees found higher employee turnover among firms using participative management practices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Every employer in the U.S. must comply with the Family and Medical Leave Act.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does job enrichment differ from job enlargement?
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Q1) Organizational politics have both negative and positive aspects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____ refers to the productive potential resulting from strong relationships, goodwill, trust, and cooperative effort.
A) Group dynamics
B) Synergy
C) Human capital
D) Group norming
E) Social capital
Q3) Cross-functional teams have which of these as an advantage over traditional functional departments?
A) Better integration and coordination
B) Greater reliance on volunteers
C) More relaxed norms
D) More centralized decision making
E) Less conflict
Q4) According to a recent poll, only 25 percent of adults surveyed respected CEOs.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Transformational leaders take corrective action when there are deviations from rules and standards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Influence is an attempt by a person to change someone else's behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The path-goal theory of leadership is based on
A) Goleman's EQ theory.
B) expectancy theory.
C) McGregor's Theory Y.
D) goal-setting theory.
E) Herzberg's two-factor theory.
Q4) Power affects organizational members in the areas of decisions, behavior, and situations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most widely used tactic in downward influence is pressure. A)True
B)False
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Q1) When managers selectively withhold information and consciously arrange events to increase the chance that a change will be successful, co-optation has taken place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organization development (OD) involves planned change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ refers to systematically following up a change program for lasting results.
A) Assessment
B) Implementation
C) Unfreezing
D) Refreezing
E) Intervention
Q4) How do employees tend to respond differently to changes they like versus changes they dislike and fear?
Q5) The first step of AVN involves finding some common ground as a basis for negotiation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of these is not among Deming's famous 14 points?
A) Use numerical quotas
B) Drive fear out of the workplace
C) Seek continuous improvement
D) Avoid low-cost suppliers
E) Promote teamwork
Q2) Concurrent control involves learning from past mistakes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of an ideal organizational control situation is a small business such as local bike shop that is run by a highly motivated expert.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Benchmarking is good for setting challenging organizational standards.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Internal auditors should be overseen by the head of the accounting department.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What important lessons does Deming management teach today's managers? Page 18
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