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Organizational Behavior examines the dynamics of human behavior within professional settings, focusing on how individuals, groups, and structure impact organizational effectiveness. The course explores key concepts such as motivation, leadership, teamwork, communication, power and politics, organizational culture, and change management. Through theoretical frameworks and real-world case studies, students develop a deeper understanding of how to analyze and influence behavior in organizations, ultimately fostering a more productive and positive work environment.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 7th Edition by
Steven McShane
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15 Chapters
1994 Verified Questions
1994 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deep-level diversity includes:
A)physiological differences.
B)attitudes.
C)ethnicity.
D)gender.
E)All of these.
Answer: B
Q2) As part of the knowledge management process, experimentation is conducive to:
A)measuring intellectual capital.
B)knowledge acquisition.
C)increasing organizational memory.
D)knowledge sharing.
E)unlearning.
Answer: B
Q3) The systematic research anchor relies mainly on qualitative data and subjective procedures to test hypotheses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) Which of the following refers to the natural talents that help employees learn specific tasks more quickly and perform them better?
A)Persistence levels
B)Direction
C)Intensity
D)Aptitude
E)Commitment
Answer: D
Q2) People with a high score on the neuroticism personality dimension tend to be more relaxed, secure, and calm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Presenteeism refers to employees who attend work even though their capacity to work is significantly diminished by illness, fatigue, personal problems, or other factors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) A manager believes in the philosophy of positive organizational behavior.His self-fulfilling prophecies are likely to improve organizational performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Joanie is an engineer at an architectural firm.She is very proud of this fact and often defines herself in terms of her work to family and friends.She is very skilled at her job and confident in that fact, but often has trouble adapting to changing job duties and environmental conditions.Most likely Joanie has:
A)high complexity.
B)low clarity.
C)low consistency.
D)low complexity.
E)All of these.
Answer: D
Q3) Diversity training is the best way to minimize perceptual biases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The dimensions of emotional intelligence are cognitive dissonance, continuance commitment, and emotional labor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The competency most strongly associated with social awareness is:
A)conflict management.
B)empathy.
C)organizational comprehension.
D)self-esteem.
E)job performance.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of emotions in the workplace?
A)They are physiological actions rather than behavioral actions.
B)Emotions last for a longer time period.
C)Emotions are directed toward someone or something.
D)They are also referred to as moods of individuals.
E)Emotions and moods are directed toward specific attitudes of others.
Q4) Job performance leads to improved job satisfaction only when performance is linked to valued rewards.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Briefly describe four-drive theory and explain how drives influence employee motivation.
Q2) Motivation is closely related to the concept of employee engagement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maslow's needs hierarchy theory incorporates only five basic categories.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multisource feedback tends to provide more complete and accurate information than feedback from a supervisor alone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Four-drive theory states that everyone has the drive to acquire, bond, learn, and defend.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Antecedents cause behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Why is it difficult to maintain feelings of equity among employees?
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Q1) Competency-based rewards are consistent with the concept of employability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an individual incentive?
A)Gainsharing plan
B)Piece rate plan
C)Share option
D)Share ownership
E)Employee stock ownership plan
Q3) Employees require some degree of autonomy to engage in self-leadership.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe some of the important strategies for improving reward effectiveness.
Q5) Job enlargement increases skill variety.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe how organizations reward people for job status.Discuss three potential problems with rewarding employees for their job status.
Q7) Briefly explain the benefits and problems of job specialization.
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Q1) Divergent thinking refers to calculating the conventionally accepted "right answer" to a logical problem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A marketing specialist needed to find a new way of marketing the company's main product to its potential clients.While watching a movie one evening, the marketing specialist saw a scene that gave her inspiration for a new marketing plan.According to the creative process model, which of the following is the next stage in the creative process after such inspiration?
A)Preparation
B)Incubation
C)Verification
D)Illumination
E)Morphological analysis
Q3) Decision structure, risk of conflict, and decision commitment are the:
A)three conditions required for bounded rationality.
B)factors that support implicit favorites.
C)contingencies of employee involvement.
D)factors that lead to escalation of commitment.
E)constraints of team decision making.
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Q1) Self-directed teams:
A)are informal groups that exist in an organization.
B)usually exist as communities of practice.
C)consist of a group of employees who are subject to methodical supervision.
D)have substantial autonomy over the execution of a complete task.
E)have reduced member-interdependence compared to other teams.
Q2) Knowledge-based trust offers a low level of potential and is more unstable because it is exploratory in its nature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a dysfunctional norm is very deeply ingrained in a team, the best strategy is probably to:
A)tell the group that corporate leaders are willing to tolerate the dysfunctional norm.
B)disband the group and replace it with people having more favorable norms.
C)supplement the existing group with one or two people having more favorable norms.
D)introduce rewards that support the dysfunctional norm.
E)provide direct reinforcement and punishment to the employees.
Q4) What are team norms? How are they developed in an organization?
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Q1) The responding stage of active listening includes showing interest and clarifying the message.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Intended feedback is encoded, transmitted, received, and decoded from the receiver to the sender of the original message.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mimicking another person's behavior and emotions is a part of emotional contagion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Done correctly, MBWA most likely occurs on a _____ basis.
A)annual
B)semi-annual
C)quarterly
D)monthly
E)daily or weekly
Q5) Should companies try to eliminate grapevine communication? Explain your answer.
Q6) Briefly explain the communication process model and its components.
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Q1) Organizational politics is more common where decisions are:
A)easy to understand.
B)based on complex and ambiguous rules.
C)based on the brainstorming technique.
D)based on clearly defined principles.
E)based on formal criteria.
Q2) Angela wears a business suit to work every day in her job as a college business professor.Which of the following influence tactic does this refer to?
A)Persuasion
B)Forming coalitions
C)Networking
D)Impression management
E)Exchange
Q3) Explain the important contingencies of power.
Q4) Expert and referent power originate mainly from the power holder's own characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the "dark side" of social networks.
Q6) Describe how people react to influence attempts.
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Q1) Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low assertiveness?
A)Forcing
B)Inquisition
C)Compromising
D)Arbitration
E)Avoiding
Q2) Constructive conflict tests the logic of arguments and encourages participants to re-examine their basic assumptions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Relationship conflict usually causes people to:
A)use logical analysis in organizational decision making.
B)reduce communication and information sharing with the other party.
C)rethink their assumptions and beliefs about the issue that is the source of conflict.
D)stay away from organizational politics and related activities.
E)concentrate on the issue rather than the people involved in the issue.
Q4) Explain the optimal conflict perspective.
Q5) Distinguish between constructive conflicts and relationship conflicts.
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Q1) Which of the following refers to "walking the talk"?
A)The leader uses metaphors to symbolize the vision to the employees.
B)The leader continuously works as a part of a team to know them better.
C)The leader provides specific instructions to help employees understand the task requirements.
D)The leader steps out and behaves in ways that symbolize the vision.
E)The leader continuously analyzes the path that the organization is taking.
Q2) Which of the following leadership approaches directly support the idea that the "romance of leadership" is important in leadership?
A)Transformational leadership perspective
B)Managerial leadership perspective
C)Implicit leadership perspective
D)Contingency perspective of leadership
E)Servant perspective of leadership
Q3) Briefly explain the important contingencies of path-goal theory.
Q4) Transformational leaders shape a strategic vision of the future that focuses employees on a superordinate organizational goal.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When employees work in non-routine and ambiguous situations, formal hierarchy is the least time-consuming coordinating mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Informal communication is a coordination mechanism only in small and a few medium-sized organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tall hierarchies encourage employee empowerment and engagement because they focus power around employees rather than managers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many companies are moving away from divisionalized structures that organize people around:
A)functional specializations.
B)clients.
C)geographic clusters.
D)products.
E)emerging forms of technology.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is consistent with the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory?
A)Job applicants who later become organizational members tend to be attracted to co-workers who share their values and assumptions.
B)Organizations have a natural tendency to attract, select, and retain people with values that are consistent with the organization's own culture.
C)Attraction, selection and attrition are part of the natural life-cycle of organizational members.
D)Employees get attached to organizations that meet their reward expectations.
E)Attraction followed by selection inevitably leads to attrition in the future.
Q2) An example of a ritual is how visitors are greeted as they enter the company's offices.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the stages of organizational socialization.
Q4) Organizational socialization is a process of both learning and adjustment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A parallel learning structure:
A)is a feature of all organizational change interventions.
B)includes highly participative teams constructed alongside the formal organizational hierarchy.
C)exists in organizations where employees are located in two or more buildings.
D)is mostly comprised of senior management and some professional staff members.
E)includes a specialized team of experts who possess the necessary skills to monitor the change process.
Q2) Which of these forces are commonly called resistance to change?
A)Process forces
B)Driving forces
C)Parallel learning structures
D)Restraining forces
E)Unfreezing forces
Q3) Unfreezing occurs by making the driving forces stronger, weakening the restraining forces, or a combination of both.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the major advantages of using a pilot project?
Q5) Explain at least three reasons that employees resist change.
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