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Organizational Behavior explores the principles and dynamics that influence individual and group actions within workplace settings. The course examines key topics such as motivation, leadership, team dynamics, decision-making, organizational culture, communication, conflict resolution, and change management. Through case studies, theoretical frameworks, and real-world applications, students gain insights into how and why people behave as they do in organizations, ultimately developing skills to effectively manage and improve organizational performance.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 10th Edition by Robert Kreitner
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1914 Verified Questions
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Q1) Human capital is the productive potential of an individual's knowledge and actions.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) W. Edwards Deming believed that statistical analysis is required to uncover system failures.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following moral principles of Hodgson states that all have the right be treated equitably, and the right to the necessities of life, especially those in deep need and the helpless?
A)Dignity of human life
B)Autonomy
C)Honesty
D)Loyalty
E)Fairness
Answer: E
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Q1) Which of the following is true about an affirmative action?
A)It legitimizes quotas.
B)It is viewed more positively by people who are liberals and Democrats than conservatives and Republicans.
C)It requires companies to hire unqualified people.
D)It fosters the type of thinking that is needed to effectively manage diversity.
E)It is a natural intervention aimed at giving management a chance to correct an imbalance.
Answer: B
Q2) Women hired under affirmative action programs exhibit higher performance when they believe they are hired due to their competence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Educational background represents an internal dimension of diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Mergers frequently fail due to incompatible cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) _____ cultures value stability and have an external focus.
A)Clan
B)Adhocracy
C)Hierarchy
D)Market
E)Communal
Answer: D
Q3) A(n) _____ network is associated with having weak ties with multiple developers from different social systems.
A)traditional
B)opportunistic
C)entrepreneurial
D)local
E)receptive
Answer: B

Page 5
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Q1) Based on information gathered in the GLOBE project, which of the following refers to uncertainty avoidance?
A)The extent to which leaders should encourage and reward loyalty to the social unit.
B)The extent to which people should rely on social norms and rules to limit unpredictability.
C)The extent to which unequal distribution of power should be there in organizations and society.
D)The extent to which confrontational and dominant individuals should be in social relationships.
E)The extent to which people should delay gratification by planning and saving for the future.
Q2) Cross-cultural training, including intensive language study, is the best way to avoid culture shock.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Proxemics is the study of cultural expectations about interpersonal space.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following mental abilities was found to be a valid predictor of job performance for both minority and majority applicants?
A)Memory
B)Perceptual speed
C)Mnemonic fluency
D)Spatial ability
E)Deductive reasoning
Q2) A(n) _____ personality is defined as someone who identifies opportunities, is action-oriented, shows initiative, and perseveres to change things.
A)proactive
B)agreeable
C)emotionally stable
D)extrovert
E)external locus of control
Q3) The negative end of the agreeableness scale is labeled neuroticism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between self-esteem and self-efficacy.
Page 7
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Q1) Attitudes represent global beliefs that influence behavior across all situations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the ____ model of job satisfaction, satisfaction results from one's perception that work outcomes, relative to inputs, compare favorably with a significant other's outcomes/inputs.
A)need fulfillment
B)discrepancies
C)value attainment
D)equity
E)dispositional/Genetic component
Q3) In which of the following stages of life is a person least likely to change his or her general attitudes?
A)Childhood
B)Adolescence
C)Early adulthood
D)Middle adulthood
E)Early adolescence
Q4) Explain the five causes of job satisfaction.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about stereotyping is true?
A)Stereotyping facilitates better hiring decisions.
B)All stereotypes are positive.
C)All stereotypes are negative.
D)Stereotyping requires a great deal of cognitive effort.
E)Stereotyping is a self-reinforcing process.
Q2) _____ is a perceptual error that represents the tendency to avoid all extreme judgments and rate people and objects as average or neutral.
A)Contrast effect
B)Recency effect
C)Central tendency
D)Leniency
E)Halo
Q3) The recency effect is the tendency to remember old contacts, and then evaluate them by comparing them with characteristics of recently observed people or objects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the practical applications of the attribution models in the workplace.
Q5) Describe the process by which stereotypes are formed and maintained.
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Q1) According to McClelland, individuals with high achievement motivation are best suited for top-level executive positions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene model, which of the following is a hygiene factor?
A)Responsibility
B)Stimulating work
C)Supervisor relations
D)Recognition for a job well done
E)Achievement
Q3) Compare the need theories of Maslow, Alderfer, and McClelland.
Q4) A characteristic of high achievers is that they:
A)prefer working on tasks of extreme difficulty.
B)prefer situations in which their performance is due to their own efforts.
C)desire feedback on their failures but not their successes.
D)desire feedback on their successes but not their failures.
E)like to compete against people who are much more skilled than they are.
Q5) Explain the three concepts within Vroom's model.
Q6) Define a goal. Explain the motivational mechanisms of goal-setting.
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Q1) Goals should be impossible, to increase employee motivation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three general criteria for the distribution of rewards are: performance: results, performance: actions and behaviors, and nonperformance considerations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers should remember to give plenty of feedback when the final results are accomplished, but not for the incremental improvement steps along the way.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Extrinsic rewards often fail to motivate because there is too long a delay between performance and rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between learning goals and performance outcome goals. Explain how performance outcome goals could distract employees from the discovery of task relevant strategies.
11
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Q1) Men and women generally agree on what constitutes sexual harassment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to research, which of the following statements about group processes is true?
A)Role conflict tends to facilitates group development.
B)The credibility of peer feedback typically decreases as the group develops through successive stages.
C)Interpersonal feedback typically decreases as the group develops through successive stages.
D)A participative leadership style is most effective early in group development.
E)Uncertainty about group deadlines tends to disrupt group development.
Q3) A group member who says, "The key issue here is performance," is functioning in a maintenance role.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Interpersonal feedback remains constant during the group development process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does a manager decide the optimum size of a work group?
Page 12
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Q1) Describe the attributes of high-performance teams.
Q2) Internet chat rooms tend to create less work and yield better decisions than face-to-face meetings and telephone conferences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following team competencies assists the team in arriving at a common understanding of the situation or problem?
A)Orienting team to problem-solving situation
B)Organizing and managing team performance
C)Promoting a positive team environment
D)Facilitating and managing task conflict
E)Appropriately promoting perspective
Q4) Managers can enhance instrumental cohesiveness by:
A)regularly updating and clarifying the group's goals.
B)emphasizing members' common characteristics.
C)keeping the group relatively small.
D)encouraging interaction and cooperation.
E)building a favorable public image of the group.
Q5) What is cohesiveness? Explain the types of group cohesiveness.
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Q1) Chauffer driven and group driven systems are used in _____.
A)brainstorming
B)computer-aided decision making
C)nominal group technique
D)face-to-face interactions
E)scenario-building
Q2) Lily had finished her high school and was ready to go to university. However, she also loved sports. She wanted to join a basketball academy and become a professional basketball player. She found this situation very stressful and was psychologically uncomfortable. This implies that Lily had a(n) _____.
A)low tolerance for ambiguity.
B)conceptual decision-making style.
C)low need for structure.
D)analytical style of decision making.
E)high social concern.
Q3) Intuition is a practical approach when resources are limited and deadlines are tight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the important issues to be considered when using groups to make decisions.
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Q1) Mention the changes associated with increased group cohesiveness.
Q2) According to the _____ the more members of different groups interact, the less intergroup conflict they will experience.
A)contact hypothesis
B)ethnocentric theory
C)transfer theory
D)transmission hypothesis
E)diffusion theory
Q3) Integrating is the best style of handling conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People tend to handle negative conflict in predictable and patterned ways referred to as styles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution that renders a decision.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How can managers reduce intergroup conflict?
Q7) Describe four alternative dispute resolution techniques.
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Q1) Rebecca e-mails a wedding invitation to her cousin Shawn. A few days later, she gets a reply saying that he can't make it to the wedding because he will not be able to get any vacation. In the communication process, Shawn's reply is an example of _____.
A)noise
B)feedback
C)encoding
D)decoding
E)jargon
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the communication styles of men and women?
A)Men tend to ignore blame and place it elsewhere.
B)Men and women use similar linguistic styles.
C)Women are less likely to admit weaknesses.
D)Women are less likely to ask clarification questions.
E)Men are more likely to use softer voice volume to encourage persuasion and approval.
Q3) Feedback occurs when the sender gets a reaction from the receiver.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following influence tactics is used to get others to support your effort to persuade someone?
A)Ingratiation
B)Consultation
C)Coalition tactics
D)Exchange
E)Pressure
Q2) Power sharing occurs when followers are granted authority to make decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Personal initiative is a behavior syndrome resulting in an individual's taking an active and self-starting approach to work and going beyond what is formally required in a given job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Responsible managers strive for socialized power while amassing personalized power.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the nine generic influence tactics.
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Q1) _____, a set of leader behaviors, includes behaviors such as sacrificing for the good of the group, being a role model, and displaying high ethical standards.
A)Inspirational motivation
B)Individualized consideration
C)Idealized influence
D)Intellectual stimulation
E)Organizational culture
Q2) _____ is defined as a process whereby an individual influences others to achieve a common goal.
A)Leadership
B)Management
C)Power
D)Socialization
E)Mentoring
Q3) According to Fiedler's contingency model, leaders are either task-motivated or relationship-motivated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly discuss the traits associated with "bad leadership."
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Q1) A(n) ______ actively attempts to infuse the organization with new ideas and information by scanning the external environment and hiring new talent.
A)learning organization
B)traditional organization
C)legacy organization
D)closed system
E)downsized system
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of a mechanistic organization?
A)It has a rigid bureaucracy.
B)The tasks are broadly defined.
C)The communications follow a bottom-up approach.
D)They have flexible networks.
E)The multitalented individuals perform a variety of tasks.
Q3) A functional structure can save money by grouping together people who need similar materials and equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly discuss the functional structure.
Page 19
Q5) Compare and contrast closed and open systems.
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Q1) According to Lewin's change model, the _____ stage involves creating the motivation to change by encouraging people to replace old behaviors with those desired by management.
A)refreezing
B)changing
C)settling
D)converting
E)unfreezing
Q2) The four components of organizational development are:
A)diagnosis, intervention, evaluation, feedback.
B)mild change, value-loaded, diagnosis/prescription cycle, process-oriented.
C)evaluation, feedback, diagnosis/prescription cycle, goal-oriented.
D)profound change, objective, intervention, process-oriented.
E)evaluation, value-loaded, life cycle, process-oriented.
Q3) _____ involves spending time with others in leisure and recreational activities.
A)Esteem support
B)Informational support
C)Social companionship
D)Instrumental support
E)Global support
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