
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior examines the ways individuals, groups, and structures influence behavior within organizations. This course explores key concepts such as motivation, leadership, decision-making, team dynamics, organizational culture, and communication, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of human behavior in work settings. Through the analysis of real-world scenarios and case studies, students learn to apply behavioral theories to enhance organizational effectiveness, manage conflict, and drive positive organizational change. The course aims to develop critical thinking and interpersonal skills essential for effective management and collaboration in diverse organizational environments.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 15th Edition by
Robert L. Mathis
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Q1) List the seven categories of human resources functions.
Answer: The seven categories of human resources functions are:
(1) Strategy and Planning
(2) Employee and Labor Relations
(3) Risk Management and Worker Protection
(4) Rewards
(5) Talent Management
(6) Staffing
(7) Equal Employment Opportunity
Q2) Which of the following is a part of the process of outsourcing analyses?
A) Revising organizational structure
B) Using domestic vendors instead of employees
C) Changing workloads and combining jobs
D) Attracting and retaining employees
Answer: B
Q3) Human resource management is the design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following is a source of outflow in the current staffing level?
A) External hires
B) Promotions
C) Recalls
D) Internal transfers
Answer: B
Q2) Internal Supply for next year = _____.
A) Current staffing level + Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
B) Current staffing level - Projected outflows this year - Projected inflows this year
C) Current staffing level + Projected outflows this year - Projected inflows this year
D) Current staffing level - Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
Answer: D
Q3) Define strategic HR management.
Answer: Strategic HR management refers to the use of Human Resource management practices to gain or keep a competitive advantage.
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Q1) Discuss two acts that have been passed to control pregnancy discrimination.
Answer: The Pregnancy Discrimination Act (PDA) of 1978 amended Title VII to require that employers treat maternity leave the same as other personal or medical leaves.
Closely related to the PDA is the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993, which requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family leave and requires that those taking family leave be allowed to return to jobs. The FMLA applies to both men and women.
The American with Disabilities Act Amendments Act (ADAAA) also expanded what conditions are identified as disabilities to include less permanent and serious physical/mental issues, which can be interpreted to cover pregnancies.
Q2) Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
A) Segregating employees on the basis of their educational qualification
B) Segregating employees on the basis of their ethnicity
C) Segregating employees on the basis of their work experience
D) Segregating employees on the basis of their skill sets
Answer: B
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Q1) Work is effort directed toward accomplishing results.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A _____ is composed of individuals who are separated geographically but linked by communications technology.
A) vertical team
B) special-purpose team
C) self-directed team
D) virtual team
Q3) _____ is the extent of individual freedom and discretion in the work and its scheduling.
A) Autonomy
B) Skill variety
C) Task identity
D) Task significance
Q4) Workflow analysis that focuses on making an organization more effective and efficient can be used only in manufacturing organizations.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) It is common for turnover to be high among newer employees during their first year.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Maslow's need theory, the highest human need is the need for_____.
A) self-esteem
B) safety
C) self-actualization
D) love
Q3) At Piaffe Products 15 employees had quit and an additional 10 were fired for poor performance in 2015. The mid-year employee count was 50 for that year. Piaffe's turnover rate for the year 2015 was _____.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 50%
Q4) Work rule violation is the most common reason for voluntary turnover.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between functional turnover and dysfunctional turnover.
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Q1) Recruiters have completely stopped using newspaper ads as a tool for external recruitment because job seekers use the Internet almost exclusively even in smaller cities and towns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contingency firms charge a client a set fee whether or not the contracted search is successful.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Recruiting is essentially an administrative function rather than a part of strategic HR planning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an advantage of internal recruitment?
A) Inbreeding of employees typically results in a more diverse workforce.
B) It ensures that there are no instances of infighting.
C) Recruiting costs are comparitively lower.
D) It eliminates the need of development programs when transfering employees into supervisory jobs.
Q5) How does a professional employer organization function?
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Q1) A nondirective interview allows the interviewer to improvise and pursue interesting nonroutine discussions. Consequently, the nondirective interview is more likely to turn up critical information that can be compared across applicants than a prepared list of questions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) HR professionals are least likely to make the final hiring decisions when _____ positions are filled.
A) clerical
B) contract
C) entry-level
D) middle-management
Q3) The position for City Manager of Scenic River attracted many applicants. As part of the selection process, the applicants each appeared one-by-one before the entire Scenic River Board of Aldermen for an interview. This is an example of a _____ interview.
A) panel
B) mass
C) biographical
D) situational
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Q1) In the context of training, self-efficacy refers to_____.
A) a person's desire to learn training content
B) a trainer's belief that the learners possess the basic skills required to learn new tasks
C) the perceived ability of the instructor to transfer the knowledge to the student
D) a person's belief that he/she can successfully learn the training program content
Q2) Combining short, fast-paced, interactive computer-based lessons and teleconferencing with traditional classroom instruction and simulation is called_____.
A) job shadowing
B) outsourcing
C) blended learning
D) cross training
Q3) One way to aid transfer of training to job situations is to ensure that_____.
A) the trainers have high levels of self-efficacy
B) the trainees are not troubled with follow-up exercises
C) the trainers focus primarily on informal training
D) the training mirrors the job context as much as possible
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Q1) Succession planning should be done for all key jobs in the organization, even if they are low in the hierarchy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is itdifficult for a supervisor to go from being a member of the work group to being the boss?
A) Lack of confidence
B) Poor time management
C) Inability to deal with "people problems"
D) Inability to balance work and family demands
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of training and development?
A) Training is for hourly employees; development is for managers and professionals.
B) Training focuses on the long-run performance of an employee.
C) Development is typically assessed with a cost-benefit analysis.
D) Capabilities learned in development may not apply to the employee's current job.
Q4) How do off-the-job techniques help individuals? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sabbaticals.
Q5) Whatare "jobshifters" and what do they need from employers?
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Q1) One concern of multisource rating is that those peers who rate poor-performing coworkers tend to inflate the ratings so that the peers themselves can get higher overall evaluation results in return.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A panel of division managers evaluating a supervisor's potential for advancement in the organization is known as _____.
A) peer rating
B) multisource rating
C) outsider rating
D) self-rating
Q3) The _____ occurs when a rater gives all employees an average rating.
A) central tendency
B) leniency error
C) primacy effect
D) recency effect
Q4) Describe the developmental uses of performance appraisals.
Q5) Describe Multisource/360-degree rating.
Q6) Define performance standards.
Q7) Describe the different types of performance information.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the factor-comparison method of job evaluation?
A) In this method, descriptions of each group of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the group it best matches.
B) It is time-consuming and difficult to use, which accounts for its limited popularity in organizations.
C) It uses subjective judgments to develop the class descriptions and to place jobs accurately in them.
D) It is a qualitative method that combines the classification and ranking methods.
Q2) Which of the following is an intangible reward?
A) Base pay
B) Health care benefits
C) Challenging work
D) Variable pay
Q3) Describe the two different compensation philosophies.
Q4) What is a lump-sum increase?
Q5) Describe the pay-for-performance philosophy of employee compensation.
Q6) Differentiate between exempt employees and nonexempt employees.
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Q1) Nonfinancial rewards cannot be used as incentives in pay-for-performance plans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a stock option plan, if the market price of the stock exceeds the exercise price, _____.
A) employees can then exercise the option and buy the stock
B) employees have to purchase the stock at the new price
C) employees have to forfeit their claims to the company shares
D) employees will make a loss through stock ownership
Q3) Entitlement culture is the idea that _____.
A) basic salaries are extra pay for sales performance rather than deferred bonuses
B) basic salaries are deferred bonuses rather than extra pay for extra sales performance
C) bonuses are extra pay for sales performance rather than deferred salary
D) bonuses are deferred salary rather than extra pay for extra sales performance
Q4) The focus of gainsharing is to increase "discretionary efforts."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the primary objectives of profit sharing plans.
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Q1) FMLA leave is typically paid and employers are also required to cover the workload for employees on family leave.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Kenneth, a programmer in the customer service department, took _____ when his father died.
A) paternity leave
B) sick leave
C) bereavement leave
D) jury leave
Q3) _____ typically consists of approaches that monitor and reduce medical costs through restrictions and market system alternatives.
A) Utilization review
B) Managed care
C) A medical review program
D) A medical option plan
Q4) What are the different conditions under which employers grant "leaves of absence" to their employees?
Q5) Discuss the financial benefits that companies commonly offer their employees.
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Q1) Carol, an HR executive, rarely conducts a thorough background check on the employees she hires. How could this practice affect her company?
Q2) _____ is the study and design of the work environment to address the physiological and physical demands on individuals.
A) Occupational therapy
B) Phrenology
C) Ergonomics
D) Industrial physiology
Q3) Who among the following is considered disabled under the ADA?
A) A person addicted to alcohol
B) A person addicted to an illegal drug
C) A person who is prone to developing an addiction to nicotine
D) A person who is prone to developing an addiction to illegal drugs
Q4) Which of the following actions is the first step of the accident investigation process?
A) Initial investigation
B) Emergency response
C) Corrective measures
D) Data analysis and determination of root cause
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Q1) The Fair and Accurate Credit Transaction Act (FACT)_____.
A) allows employers to hire outside investigators without notifying the employee under investigation
B) prohibits employers from hiring outside investigators when investigating an employee
C) requires employers to get permission from employees under investigation before hiring outside investigators
D) allows employers to hire outside investigators only if the employee has access to sensitive employer data
Q2) The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988_____.
A) covers all intoxicating substances, including alcohol
B) requires government contractors to take steps to eliminate employee drug use
C) covers the use of illegal substances both on-the-job and off-the-job
D) applies only to private sector employers
Q3) Explain the doctrine of employment-at-will and its exceptions. What is the relationship between this doctrine and a contract?
Q4) How does procedural justice differ from distributive justice?
Q5) Differentiate between upward and downward communication in workplaces.
Q6) Describe separation agreements.
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Q1) In the United States, employees in the public sector are more likely to be union members than employees in the private sector.
A)True
B)False
Q2) George, a unionized employee, is suspended from work after a conflict with his supervisor. George decides to file a grievance complaint. Whom should George approach with his problem? What are the different steps that George is likely to undergo in the grievance management procedure?
Q3) A union shop requires_____.
A) job applicants to have a "union card" to be considered for employment
B) employees to join the union, usually 30 to 60 days after being hired
C) employees who refuse to join the union to pay a special fee for representative services from the union
D) a union to represent an entire group of employees at a company, including nonmembers of the union
Q4) Workers must remain members of the union for the period of the labor contract.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why employers resist unions.
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