
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Organization Theory explores the fundamental principles and frameworks that explain how organizations are structured, function, and evolve over time. The course examines key concepts such as organizational design, culture, power, and decision-making processes, drawing on classical and contemporary theories. Students will analyze the impact of environmental, technological, and social factors on organizations, and evaluate strategies for improving effectiveness and adaptability. By studying real-world cases and theoretical models, learners gain insights into organizational dynamics and develop critical skills for leading and managing complex organizations.
Recommended Textbook
Organization Theory and Design 10th Edition by Richard L. Daft
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1152 Verified Questions
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Q1) The importance of organizations includes all of the following concepts except:
A) Create value for owners, customers, and employees
B) Establishing important relationships with the government
C) Facilitate innovation
D) Bring together resources for achieving desired goals and outcomes
Answer: B
Q2) John Black, a management consultant, successfully implemented and MBO program on his first consulting job. He now recommends MBO to all his clients. In so doing, our text would say the main point is that he is ignoring:
A) The latest techniques for solving problems.
B) The principles of contingency theory.
C) The external environment of the organization.
D) The internal environment of the organization.
Answer: B
Q3) Organizations are currently operating in a stable environment, so managers can focus on designing structures and systems that keeps the organization running efficiently.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The slogan, "We're a no-frills business! When we save, you save!" exemplifies the strategy of:
A) Low-cost leadership.
B) Differentiation.
C) Focus.
D) Legitimacy.
Answer: A
Q2) The ____ strategy tries to maintain a stable business while innovating on the periphery.
A) reactor
B) prospector
C) analyzer
D) defender
Answer: C
Q3) The internal process approach looks at the input side of the transformation process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the three components in the definition of organization structure. Answer: The three components in the definition of organization structure are:
1. Hierarchy: This component refers to the levels of authority within an organization. It outlines the chain of command, showing who reports to whom and how decisions are made. A clear hierarchy helps to establish accountability and ensures that tasks are delegated effectively.
2. Division of labor: This component refers to how tasks and responsibilities are divided among employees. It involves assigning specific roles and duties to individuals or departments based on their skills and expertise. A well-defined division of labor helps to streamline workflow and improve efficiency within the organization.
3. Span of control: This component refers to the number of subordinates that a manager or supervisor can effectively oversee. It determines the level of supervision and support that employees receive, as well as the communication channels within the organization. A proper span of control ensures that managers can effectively manage their teams and maintain clear lines of communication.
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Q1) Differentiation refers to differences in cognitive and emotional orientations among managers in different functional departments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the framework for assessing environmental uncertainty:
A) soft drink bottlers are examples of typical firms in the simple and unstable quadrant.
B) universities are examples of organizations typically found in the complex and stable quadrant.
C) electronic firms are typically found in the simple and stable quadrant.
D) fashion clothing or toy manufacturers would exemplify the complex and unstable quadrant.
Q3) Explain the differences between acquisitions, mergers, joint ventures, and partnerships.
Q4) An organization's environment includes all except:
A) labor market.
B) city, state, and federal laws.
C) Competitors.
D) production processes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The population-ecology model is developed from theories of natural selection in biology, and the terms retention and variation are used to refer to the underlying behavioral processes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the framework of interorganizational relationships, using the following two questions to help guide your answer: If organizational relationships are competitive, under what perspectives are the organization types similar versus dissimilar? If organizational relationships are cooperative, under what perspectives are the organization types similar versus dissimilar?
Q3) Institutional similarity is the emergence of a common structure and approach among organizations in the same field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The four perspectives of a framework of Interorganizational relationships include resource dependency, population ecology, collaborative network, and reengineering.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss the global matrix structure. Give an example.
Q2) Select any organization with which you are familiar--your college, the Toyota dealership down the road, a corporation where you work, etc. Analyze the global forces that influence the organization you selected. How should the organization respond to those global forces in order to gain international competitive advantage?
Q3) The ____ model reflects the ultimate in both organizational complexity, with many diverse units, and organizational coordination, with mechanisms for integrating the varied parts.
A) transformative
B) transnational
C) global
D) multidomestic
Q4) To meet new competitive threats, many manufacturing firms are emphasizing the ability to customize their products to meet specific needs, which requires a greater emphasis on global responsiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the stages of international evolution in terms of their strategic orientation.
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Q1) Large-batch production is considered to have greater technical complexity than small-batch production on Woodward's scale.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assume you are the supervisor of workers who have very limited education and experience, and that their work is routine. Generally you would:
A) be able to handle only a narrow span of control.
B) strive for low centralization and low formalization.
C) use the human relations model.
D) be able to have a wide span of control.
Q3) Job enrichment refers to the expansion of the number of different tasks performed by an employee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Boundary roles are used extensively in manufacturing firms, but rarely used in service organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast the axes on Perrow's framework for department technologies.
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Q1) Describe your use of explicit knowledge when you prepare for an examination. Do you also use tacit knowledge regarding this activity? Explain.
Q2) Contrast the two approaches for explicit knowledge management against two approaches for tacit knowledge management.
Q3) The statistical report is typically used to set targets for the organization's expenditures for the year and then report actual costs on a monthly or quarterly basis.
A)True B)False
Q4) Managers use periodic statistical reports to evaluate and monitor nonfinancial performance, such as customer satisfaction, employee performance, or rate of staff turnover.
A)True B)False
Q5) Information reporting systems are designed for non-managerial and non-supervisory personnel to have access to basic information on the status of product orders.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is not a type of authority that could explain the creation and control of a large corporation?
A) Charismatic authority
B) Rational-legal authority
C) Traditional authority
D) Competitive authority
Q2) Is bigger organization size better? Whether you say yes or no, defend your answer. Then explain the countering or opposite position, trying to make it as convincing an argument as you can.
Q3) If Max Weber were living in the United States today, and observing the push away from bureaucracy, what do you think he would say? Would he defend the use of bureaucracy today, or are there different environmental factors that would cause him to abandon bureaucracy?
Q4) Ninety-nine percent of businesses that make it past the first year still fail within five years because they can't make the transition from the entrepreneurial stage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss each stage of the life cycle.
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Q1) The degree of agreement among members of an organization about the importance of specific values is referred to as:
A) adaptability.
B) culture strength.
C) internal integration.
D) social responsibility.
Q2) In a mission culture, managers shape behavior by envisioning and communicating a desired future state for the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Internal integration, as it related to corporate culture, means that members develop a collective identity and know how to work together effectively.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the characteristics that define values-based leaders.
Q5) Identify a specific organization that has a culture you know enough about to discuss. Then describe that organization's culture at both of its levels. In your answer, let it be clear what makes up each of the two levels.
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Q1) The flexibility of a(n) ____ organization is attributed to people's freedom to be creative and introduce new ideas.
A) mechanistic
B) bureaucratic
C) organic
D) resource
Q2) Organic organizations encourage a bottom-up innovation process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The manager of R&D for PlasticWare, a kitchen products company, said that only 10% of their new products ever make a profit. He said that the industry average is 15%, but one company in the industry has a success rate of 90%. What advice would you give PlasticWare concerning organization structure?
Q4) What is organization development? Discuss three techniques of O.D.
Q5) Discuss the stages of change commitment process.
Q6) List and describe four of the seven techniques that can be used to implement change.
Q7) Discuss the forces for culture change.
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Q8) Compare and contrast the dual core approach and the ambidextrous approach.
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Q1) An organizational theorist said, "Decision making cannot be taught in a management class." In what ways do you agree with his statement? In what ways do you disagree?
Q2) ____ refers to understanding and agreement about how to solve problems and reach organizational goals.
A) Decision learning
B) Technical knowledge
C) Intuitive decision making
D) Management science
Q3) Management science works best for decisions when problems:
A) are vague.
B) have unknown variables.
C) are analyzable.
D) are qualitative and cannot be quantified.
Q4) Describe the difference between programmed decisions and nonprogrammed decisions and provide an example of each.
Q5) What is a problematic search? What is its role in decision making?
Q6) Compare the individual decision making approach of bounded rationality to any one of the organizational decision making approaches or models.
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Q1) Vertical sources of power include all of the following except:
A) control of decision premises.
B) network centrality.
C) formal position.
D) manipulation.
Q2) For lower level employees, network centrality:
A) is out of reach because they cannot have access to critical information.
B) can be gained by becoming knowledgeable about certain activities or taking on difficult tasks and acquiring specialized knowledge.
C) makes no difference because they cannot increase power.
D) takes on different meaning than it does for top managers; it means nothing more than being physically located next to those with power.
Q3) ____ is power sharing, the delegation of power or authority to subordinates in an organization.
A) Empowerment
B) Confrontation
C) Dependency
D) Power sources
Q4) Explain the five sources of personal power and provide an example of each.
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