Organismal Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Organismal Biology explores the structure, function, diversity, and evolution of multicellular organisms, with a primary focus on plants, animals, and fungi. The course investigates how organisms interact with their environments, regulate internal processes, and adapt to changing ecological conditions. Key topics include comparative anatomy and physiology, life cycles, reproduction, development, behavior, and the evolutionary relationships among major organismal groups. Through lectures, labs, and fieldwork, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the adaptations and strategies that allow organisms to thrive in a wide range of habitats.
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Evolution 1st Edition by Carl T. Bergstrom
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Overview of Evolutionary Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than 100 years ago,Charles Darwin and his colleague Thomas Huxley hypothesized that humans share a common ancestor based on A)anatomical evidence.
B)fossil evidence gathered during Darwin's voyage on the HMS Beagle.
C)manipulative experiments.
D)All of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Which source(s)of data do evolutionary biologists use to test their hypotheses?
A)Molecular data
B)Morphological and behavioral data
C)Data from the fossil record
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) How has artificial selection been used to shape the characteristics of food producing plants?
Answer: Answers will vary but should include increasing harvest yields and may include characteristics such as increased palatability or nutritional value.
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3
Chapter 2: Early Evolutionary Ideas and Darwins Insight
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Q1) Darwin's hypothesis of common ancestry with branching descent explains A)the hierarchical patterns of similarity observed in nature.
B)varieties nested within species, nesting within genera.
C)the history and pattern of life's diversity.
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) While various religious leaders challenged almost all of Darwin's major conclusions,
A)all early experimental evolutionists agreed with Darwin.
B)many British scientists embraced Darwin's ideas on evolution.
C)many British scientists rejected Darwin's proposed mechanism of natural selection.
D)B and C
Answer: D
Q3) Early Greek philosophers were among the first to
A)develop a philosophy of a natural world driven by physical laws.
B)describe the heavenly bodies as gods or personages.
C)explain the world around them according to fixed laws of nature.
D)A and C
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why aren't organisms perfectly adapted to their environments?
A)There are physical constraints that cannot be overcome.
B)An organism's surroundings do not present a stationary target to which natural selection can optimize its phenotype.
C)The process of natural selection lacks foresight.
D)All of the above
E)None of the above; some organisms are perfectly adapted to their environments.
Answer: D
Q2) Researchers studying variations in oldfield mouse coat color found that the light coat color of many beach populations was due to a
A)mutation in the Mc1R protein, which reduces the ability of a-MSH to bind.
B)mutation in the regulatory region of the Agouti gene, which increases ASP expression.
C)reduction in eumelanin production.
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Phylogeny and Evolutionary History
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Q1) Give an example of two groups of closely related organisms that have developed divergent traits because natural selection has worked differently on them,and then contrast this with an example of two groups of organisms that share one or more similar traits from being exposed to similar selective conditions.Explain the selective processes that worked on the groups of organisms in both examples,and be sure to use the scientific term for each set of conditions.Try to use examples other than those presented in your text.
Q2) Homologous traits are found in two or more species because A)some evolutionary process (usually natural selection) has independently fashioned similar traits in each species.
B)those traits are from a common ancestor.
C)Both of the above
D)None of the above
Q3) Analogous traits are found in two or more species because A)some evolutionary process (usually natural selection) has independently fashioned similar traits in each species.
B)those traits are from a common ancestor.
C)Both of the above
D)None of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Inferring Phylogeny
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Q1) Parsimony has the disadvantage of
A)being an inconsistent estimator.
B)conceptual complexity.
C)long-branch attraction.
D)A and B
E)A and C
Q2) Arrange the steps of constructing a phylogenetic tree using the distance method in the correct order.
1)A distance matrix is created.
2)Trees are constructed by arranging segments or branches derived from pair-wise distance comparisons.
3)The distance between species is measured using character state changes.
4)Phylogenetic inference software is used to choose the best tree.
A)1,2,3,4
B)2,3,4,1
C)3,1,2,4
D)4,3,2,1
Q3) While both parsimony methods and distance methods can be quite effective in inferring evolutionary history,both use tricks of sorts.Compare the assumptions,shortcomings,and methods of each.
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Chapter 6: Transmission Genetics and the Sources of
Genetic Variation
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Q1) Before pre-mRNA is converted to mRNA,a process known as _________ occurs.
Q2) The hypothesis that eukaryotic organelles are derived from once free living prokaryotes is known as the A)prokaryote origins hypothesis.
B)organelle hypothesis.
C)hybrid hypothesis.
D)endosymbiosis hypothesis.
E)early life hypothesis.
Q3) When comparing the DNA sequences from two individuals,you notice that an adenine at position 513 in one species is a cytosine in the other species.This is an example of _________.
Q4) DNA molecules can be very long.To better pack them into cells,DNA is often
A)reduced to a single strand.
B)coiled around proteins.
C)broken into smaller molecules.
D)equally divided between neighboring cells.
E)None of the above
Q5) _________ are DNA triplets that specify a protein's amino acid sequence.
Q6) Mutations occur _________ with respect to fitness.
Q7) Identify the three most common parts of a protein-coding eukaryotic gene. Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: The Genetics of Populations
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Q1) As the value of F increases,so does the frequency of A)homozygotes.
B)heterozygotes.
C)dominant alleles.
D)recessive alleles.
E)None of the above
Q2) In the island model of migration,under what condition(s)will the allele frequencies in an island population be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?
Q3) Pacific salmon hatch in streams and grow up out in the Pacific Ocean.At the end of their life,they mate once then die.Assuming that not all salmon survive life in the ocean and that those who do survive produce equal numbers of offspring,this would be an example of _________ selection.
Q4) Which of the following model organisms is not expected to achieve Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A)Fruit fly
B)Nematode worm
C)Bacteria
D)Mouse
E)Zebrafish
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Chapter 8: Evolution in Finite Populations
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Q1) Explain why the probability of fixation of a new beneficial allele is independent of population size in Haldane's model of selection and drift.
Q2) If it takes many generations for a collection of gene copies to coalesce to a single gene copy,we can infer that
A)Ne is small.
B)Ne is large.
C)there are few alleles in the population.
D)Ho will be small.
E)None of the above
Q3) What are the observed and expected heterozygosities in a population that has three genotypes with the following occurrences: f(A A )= 100,f(A A )= 25,f(A A )= 100.
Q4) Consider a population of 10,000 pigeons founded by a population in which no alleles were identical by descent.After 30 generations in this Wright-Fisher population,what will the expected identity by descent be?
Q5) Please describe the allele substitution rate in terms of the effective population size (N ),the number of neutral loci in the population (k)and mutation rate (n).Please show all of your work.
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Page 11
Chapter 9: Evolution at Multiple Loci
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Q1) In quantitative genetic terms,a phenotypic value can be expressed as
A)dominance and recessiveness.
B)epistasis and pleiotropy.
C)genotypic value and environmental deviation.
D)A and B
E)All of the above
Q2) Consider two loci (A,B)each with two alleles (Aa,Bb).The frequency (f)of A is known to be 0.3,the frequency (f)of b is known to be 0.25,and the coefficient of linkage disequilibrium (D)between loci A and B is known to be 0.15.What is the expected haplotype frequency of h B? Please show your work.
Q3) Narrow-sense heritability is defined as the total
A)genetic variation divided by the total phenotypic variation.
B)additive genetic variation divided by the total phenotypic variation.
C)dominance genetic variation divided by the total phenotypic variation.
D)additive genetic variation divided by the total dominance variation.
E)epistatic genetic variation divided by the total dominance variation.
Q4) A species of lotus produces a nearly continuous spectrum of flower colors,ranging from white to deep red.The color of the flower is determined by 10 loci,each with two codominant alleles.What concept does this example illustrate?
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Chapter 10: Genome Evolution
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Q1) Why are transposons considered selfish genetic elements?
Q2) Recombination rates across a chromosome
A)are highly variable.
B)are large in recombination hotspots.
C)are nearly equal.
D)A and B
E)None of the above
Q3) A bacteriophage was the first organism to have its genome sequenced.Sequencing of this genome was facilitated by
A)its complex genome.
B)its short genome.
C)previous studies of bacterial genomes.
D)A and C
E)All of the above
Q4) Transposons can be deleterious to a host genome because they can
A)disrupt a protein coding sequence.
B)disrupt regulatory elements.
C)generate mutations.
D)cause recombination errors.
E)All of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 11: The Origin and Evolution of Early Life
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Q1) In early cell evolution,why would natural selection favor division into equal-sized daughter cells?
A)Splitting into two equal parts is the most energetically efficient method.
B)Two daughter cells is the most efficient way to reproduce sexually.
C)Splitting into two daughter cells is more efficient for horizontal gene transfer.
D)Hypercycles can be maintained by splitting into two.
Q2) Molecular mutualism is
A)an interaction of molecules that disrupts hypercycles.
B)an interaction of two species to the benefit of both.
C)replication of RNA by another enzyme.
D)an interaction of molecules that increases the replication of each other.
Q3) The two major cell types are
A)archaea and bacteria.
B)archaea and prokaryotes.
C)prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
D)eukaryotes and archaea.
E)eukaryotes and bacteria.
Q4) What is the evolutionary relationship between mutation rates and DNA proofreading and repair?
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Chapter 12: Major Transitions
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Q1) Charles and Mary Brown have demonstrated that as cliff swallow colony size increases,the number of nests with one or more unhatched eggs decreases.They have also demonstrated that as the size of colony increases,the number of parasites increases,and these parasites cause nest failures and juvenile mortality.These two observations indicate that there are trade-offs in group living.What would be a better measure than unhatched eggs to understand the benefits of group living in cliff swallows?
Q2) What is a social group?
A)Individuals that are always together.
B)Individuals that affect each other's fitness.
C)A group that forages together.
D)A group that shares communal raising of offspring.
Q3) Why do the benefits of group living focus on foraging and predation?
A)Reproduction is irrelevant for the fitness of individuals in a group.
B)Individuals in groups always forage and are vigilant together.
C)Groups only exist for foraging and anti-predator behavior.
D)Much of an organism's time is spent foraging and avoiding predators.
Q4) Draw a graph that illustrates the relationship between foraging ability and group size where group living is beneficial.On the same graph,draw a line of the relationship if group living was not beneficial.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Evolution and Development
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Q1) MADS-box genes affect
A)only flowers.
B)segmentation in animals.
C)leaves, roots, and flowers.
D)early development.
Q2) The scala naturae is the
A)view that all of life can be arranged on a single scale from simple to complex.
B)ontogeny of an individual.
C)number of vertebrae shared among species.
D)environmental effect on development.
Q3) A totipotent cell
A)is fixed into a single developmental pathway.
B)has homeotic transformation.
C)can differentiate into any adult cell.
D)will become a stem cell.
Q4) How can changes in genetic enhancers affect morphology?
Q5) Does all life evolve from simple to complex? Explain.
Q6) How can natural selection lead to the loss of a gene duplication?
Q7) What evidence suggests that MADS-box genes are older than flowers?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Species and Speciation
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Q1) When are hybrid zones expected to disappear and complete the speciation process?
A)When hybrids are at a selective disadvantage
B)When hybrids have a selective advantage and will replace parents
C)When hybrids are found in ring species
D)When hybrids mate assortatively
Q2) The evolutionary species concept defines a species as
A)a group that forms a lineage with a distinct evolutionary fate from other lineages.
B)phenotypically similar individuals or populations.
C)groups of actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups.
D)the smallest monophyletic group distinguished by a shared derived character.
Q3) Suppose that we find an example of the peripheral isolate model of allopatric speciation in which a species pair results.One species is the progenitor,and one is the derivative species.How will these two species differ in geographical distribution,genetic diversity,and allele sharing?
Q4) How can reproductive isolation in plants be mediated through pollinators?
Q5) How does the evolutionary species concept differ from the phylogenetic species concept?
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Chapter 15: Extinction and Evolutionary Trends
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Q1) Which mass extinction led to the disappearance of the dinosaurs?
A)K-T mass extinction
B)Triassic mass extinction
C)Permian mass extinction
D)Devonian mass extinction
Q2) Where would you place the actual extinction date of a taxon if you knew that the
Signor-Lipps effect was at work?
A)Exactly at the date of the last known fossil
B)Before the date of the last known fossil
C)After the date of the last known fossil
D)It is not possible to determine when extinction occurred relative to the date of the last known fossil.
Q3) The probability of extinction via predation is particularly high when
A)predator and prey have coevolved over long periods of time.
B)prey populations are stressed by additional environmental factors.
C)predators are a new arrival to the prey's habitat.
D)the prey species is long lived and has a low birthrate.
E)B, C, and D
Q4) What effect of mass extinctions is described by the expression "dead clade walking"?
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Sex
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Q1) Do each of the following forms of reproduction represent asexual or sexual reproduction?
A.Amphimixis
B.Automixis
C.Apomixis
Q2) Some mammals have demonstrated preferential attraction to individuals that carry immune system alleles that are complementary to their own.Which hypothesis does this observation support?
A)The Red Queen hypothesis
B)Muller's ratchet
C)The Fisher-Muller hypothesis
D)The Attribution Bias hypothesis
Q3) What are two examples of asexual-like reproduction in the genomes of obligate sexually reproducing organisms?
Q4) What are coadapted gene complexes?
A)Genes that are located on the same chromosome
B)Codominant alleles
C)Favorable combinations of alleles at different loci
D)Any epistatic interaction between different loci
E)A and C
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Chapter 17: Sexual Selection
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Q1) Which of the following factors should make females the choosier sex?
A)Eggs are expensive and rare compared to sperm.
B)Females tend to invest more time and energy in gestation time and/or brood care.
C)Female quality never plays a role in male mating decisions.
D)Males and females show about the same variation in quality.
E)A and B
Q2) You hypothesize that the size of prey items provided as nuptial gifts by male hanging flies is under sexual selection by the direct benefit model.Which of the following observations would support your hypothesis?
A)The size of the prey item is correlated with female fitness.
B)An increase in copulation time increases the number of sperm transferred.
C)An increase in copulation time increases the number of eggs fertilized.
D)The offspring of males who provide larger prey items have a lower parasite load.
E)A, B, and C
Q3) Name one direct benefit that females may receive from a particular mate choice.
Q4) What prediction of the runaway model that is never predicted for the good genes model may help to distinguish between the models in natural populations?
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Chapter 18: The Evolution of Sociality
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Q1) Is haplodiploidy a necessary condition for the evolution of eusociality?
A)Yes, true eusociality is found only in the hymenoptera.
B)Yes, eusociality can only evolve when indirect fitness is as high as occurs between haplodiploid sisters.
C)No, true eusociality is also found in organisms that do not have a haplodiploid genetic system.
D)No, coefficients of relatedness between sisters are never 0.75 because there are always multiple fathers.
Q2) Which of the following equations illustrates the correct relationship?
A)Indirect fitness + Direct fitness = Inclusive fitness
B)Inclusive fitness + Direct fitness = Indirect fitness
C)Indirect fitness + Inclusive fitness = Direct fitness
D)Direct fitness - Inclusive fitness = Direct fitness
Q3) Assume that the cost of fighting is four times greater than the benefit gained from the resource that is being fought over.What is the probability with which an individual should play dove in the mixed Nash equilibrium of the hawk-dove game?
Q4) Why does conflict arise between different alleles at the same locus even though they are part of a single individual's genome?
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Chapter 19: Coevolution
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Q1) How did Lutzoni and Pagel conclude that the entire genome of mutualistic fungi evolved faster than the genome of free-living fungi?
A)They based their estimate on the branch lengths in the phylogeny of a single gene.
B)They compared the evolutionary rates of multiple genes.
C)They conducted a genome scan at a great number of variable loci using microarray technology.
D)Their "conclusion" is mere speculation and is not backed up by data.
Q2) Suppose that Epicephala moths are part of a larger group of moths whose members are all seed feeders,but none of the other seed-feeding genera are involved in the pollination of their host plant.What would you conclude to be the most parsimonious pathway for the evolution of the mutualistic relationship between Epicephala and Glochidion plants?
A)It evolved via a pollination mutualism without a seed-feeding relationship.
B)Epicephala started out eating Glochidion foliage before starting to pollinate the flowers of its host.
C)Pollination evolved as a byproduct of female moths laying their eggs in Glochidion flowers.
D)The ancestor of mutualistic Epicephala larvae had pollen-feeding larvae.
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Chapter 20: Evolution and Medicine
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Q1) Many wild mushrooms make delicious food,but some are highly toxic and can result in a fatal meal.Apply the principle of asymmetric harm to mushroom identification,and recommend a strategy for mushroom identifiers.
Q2) Plants do not have a germ line and gametes are derived from cell lines that are also responsible for the growth of the organism.Can the disposable soma hypothesis be applied to plants?
A)Yes, trade-offs between reproduction and repair are still possible.
B)Yes, plants have a much higher physiological tolerance for the effects of mutations.
C)No, the distinction between somatic cells and germ line is at the heart of the hypothesis.
D)No, plants do not produce eggs or sperm but gametophytes that represent an additional generation.
Q3) Which of the following represents a similarity between the evolution of tumors and the vertebrate immune response?
A)Both involve somatic mutations.
B)Both involve sexual reproduction.
C)Both can be examined using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.
D)Genetic drift is negligible in both systems.
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