Organismal Biology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Organismal Biology explores the structure, function, diversity, and evolution of living organisms, emphasizing their interactions with each other and the environment. This course covers fundamental concepts related to the anatomy, physiology, development, and behavior of plants, animals, and other forms of life. Students will investigate how organisms adapt to their environments, reproduce, and contribute to the larger ecological systems. Through laboratory and field experiences, learners will gain practical skills in observation, data collection, and analysis, fostering a comprehensive understanding of the biological principles that govern life at the organismal level.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 17th Edition by Cleveland P Hickman
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Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about living things is FALSE?
A)Living things are made up of cells
B)Living things obey the laws of chemistry and physics
C)Living things show organization and other common characteristics of life
D)Emergent properties arise from interactions among the components of a system
E)Living things are composed only of organic elements,whereas nonliving things are made up of inorganic elements
Answer: E
Q2) Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A)Energy is neither created nor destroyed,but it can change from one energy form to another
B)Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter
C)Useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs
D)Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one form to another
Answer: A
Q3) Religious groups formerly proclaiming their views under the banner "creation-science" have renamed their arguments "_______ _______ _______" in an attempt to gain credibility.
Answer: intelligent design theory
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Most organic molecules are associated with living organisms.Which of the following statements is NOT related to the general distinctions between these types of molecules?
A)Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)lacks hydrogen atoms found in most organic molecules and therefore is usually not considered to be "organic."
B)Formaldehyde (CH<sub>2</sub>O)is a small molecule compared to most organic molecules but does have carbon and hydrogen covalently bonded together and therefore is considered to be "organic."
C)Salt (Na<sup>+</sup>Cl)is not an organic molecule but is important to the life of many organisms.
D)Organic carbon atoms are more diverse than inorganic carbon molecules that form the molecular structure of soot or a diamond from pure carbon.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) When hemoglobin takes up or releases oxygen,it undergoes a change in its _________ structure.
Answer: quaternary
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which correctly describes ribosomes?
A)Ribosomes contain both DNA and protein
B)Ribosomes are active in carbohydrate synthesis
C)Ribosomal subunits leave the nucleolus and form ribosomes in the cytoplasm
D)Ribosomes are found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotic cells
Answer: C
Q2) During the tug-of-war of early metaphase,condensed sister chromatids move to the middle of the cell and line up along a __________ ___________.
Answer: metaphasic plate
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about the Cell Theory?
A)It states that all organisms are composed of cells
B)It states that all cells come from preexisting cells
C)It states that small organisms can arise spontaneously
D)It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life
Answer: C
Q4) Pinocytosis involves invaginated units called ________ that contain concentrations of specific binding receptors on their surface.
Answer: caveolae
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Q1) How specific are enzymes?
A)Many enzymes can "cross over" to catalyze reactions of different substrates in the same chemical family
B)There are 20 amino acids and therefore 20 enzymes that control all protein metabolic reactions
C)An enzyme catalyzes one reaction but it may produce one product one time,another product another time
D)An enzyme catalyzes one reaction and it produces a distinct product
Q2) Which organelle contains ATP synthetase complexes in its membrane?
A)Golgi complexes
B)Mitochondria
C)Vesicles
D)Endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) Enzymes
A)lower the amount of energy present in the substrate.
B)raise the amount of energy present in the substrate.
C)lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate.
D)raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate.
Q4) Outline a hypothetical scenario of the evolution of metabolism.
Q5) Before a chemical bond is stressed enough to break,___________ must be supplied.
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Q1) Which RNA molecules carry genetic information away from DNA when it is needed for the construction of a protein?
A)Ribosomal RNA
B)Transfer RNA
C)Messenger RNA
D)Primary mRNA transcript
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct about X-linked characteristics?
A)More males than females are affected.
B)If a female exhibits the trait,all of her sons will also inherit and exhibit it.
C)Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it.
D)Males have two copies of the alleles for the trait,but females have only one.
Q3) If an egg of a worm contains 6 chromosomes following meiosis,it comes from a worm that has ______ chromosomes in each body cell.
Q4) mRNA molecules attach themselves to a _______ for the production of proteins.
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the Galápagos Islands,the tool-using woodpecker finches modify twigs to pry out grubs.With no true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands,this behavior allows it to exploit an untapped food source.However,not all members of this species exhibit this behavior which is learned from watching other finches.Therefore,
A)hatchlings will not know how to do this.
B)it is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically.
C)there must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned behavior to be repeated by most descendants of each generation.
D)as an acquired characteristic,in a strict sense this may not be part of the adaptive radiation of finches on the Galápagos.
E)all of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which condition is NOT among the requirements of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A)No mutations
B)No net migration of alleles into or out of the population
C)Small population with genetic drift
D)No selection of one genotype over another
Q3) Compare the ideas of phenotypic gradualism with those of punctuated equilibrium.
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Q1) Offspring produced by asexual reproduction that all have the same genotype are called
A)germ cells.
B)buds.
C)clones.
D)gonads.
E)gemmules.
Q2) The _______ undergo the first meiotic division in the production of sperm.
A)sertoli (sustentacular)cells
B)primary oocytes
C)spermatids
D)primary spermatocytes
E)spermatogonia
Q3) The ______ is the inner lining of the uterus that is discharged during menstruation.
A)endometrium
B)perimetrium
C)myocardium
D)endocardium
E)oviduct
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Q1) Outline the significance of the amniotic egg.Discuss the various layers and their functions in embryogenesis.
Q2) Contrast mosaic development with regulative development and indicate what animals would use each pattern of differentiation.Is one form of development "better" than another? Why or why not?
Q3) The concept that an egg or sperm cell contained a very small but fully developed individual was called
A)induction.
B)pronuclei.
C)preformation.
D)holoblastism.
Q4) Generally,only one sperm fertilizes an egg because
A)there are so few sperm that two are unlikely to arrive at the same time.
B)sperm compete and only the most fit one is accepted.
C)many sperm enter but only one set of chromosomes fuses with the egg nucleus;excess sperm are absorbed.
D)when the first sperm membrane fuses with the egg membrane,a barrier to other sperm forms.
Q5) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
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Chapter 9: Architectual Pattern of an Animal
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Q1) The grouping of single cells into definite patterns or layers represents the level of organization called the _______ ________ ____ _______.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having a true coelom?
A)In some animals,sperm and eggs can be stored before they are released
B)The digestive system can be coiled and provide greater surface area
C)Muscle contractions against the fluid chambers are absorbed and have no effect
D)In some animals,fluids here can assist respiration and circulation,and accumulate metabolic wastes
Q3) Your nose would be considered
A)medial,anterior,and dorsal.
B)medial,anterior,and ventral.
C)medial,posterior,and ventral.
D)lateral,anterior,and ventral.
Q4) The study of tissue types and functions is
A)physiology.
B)histology.
C)molecular biology.
D)entomology.
Q5) The study of tissues is called ________________.
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) If a taxon includes the most recent common ancestor of a group of organisms and all of the descendants of that ancestor,it is termed ______.
Q2) What is DNA barcoding of species and why might it be a useful tool for scientists?
Q3) Species that have very restricted geographic distributions are called ____________________.
Q4) What biochemical trait varies but is present throughout all of life,allowing the construction of an estimate of phylogeny?
A)DNA in the nucleus
B)DNA in mitochondria
C)Messenger RNA
D)Ribosomal RNA
Q5) _______ character states are present in the common ancestor and all members of a group.
A)Ancestral
B)Analogous
C)Derived
D)Synapomorphous
Q6) A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which structure is NOT correctly linked to the type of movement or podial function?
A)Axoneme-actin-binding protein that keeps ectoplasm from gelling
B)Axopodia-thin rods of microtubules
C)Lobopodia-flow of both endoplasm and ectoplasm
D)Filopodia-thin extensions of only ectoplasm
E)Reticulopodia-a thin net-like mesh
Q2) To what extent are the cells of a colonial Volvox specialized?
A)The cells of Volvox are not specialized at all;all are equivalent in function and to be otherwise would make them like those of the metazoa.
B)Somatic cells function in nutrition and locomotion while a few "germ" cells carry out reproduction.
C)Germ cells specialize in locomotion,others in nutrition,and others in reproduction.
D)Volvox is like two organisms living together symbiotically: one set of cells handles nutrition and locomotion and reproduce their type;another type of cell handles sexual reproduction and reproduce their type.
E)A Volvox cell alternates between first being somatic,then being reproductive.
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Q1) Which one of the following statements regarding the origin of metazoans has the most support?
A)The choanoflagellates share features with the sponges,like having collars of microvilli surrounding a flagellum and being colonial.These shared features suggest a link to at least one metazoan lineage.
B)Metazoans are derived from many separate lineages of unicellular organisms.
C)Ancient metazoans,similar to members of the phylum Placozoa,have been ruled out as ancestral metazoans.
D)Modern sponges have a genetic makeup that reflects their ancestral status.The origin of the metazoa is problematic.Morphological and functional similarities of sponges to choanocytes suggest a possible origin of that metazon lineage,however,the sponge genome is quite complex with more modern features.Placozoans have genetic features that suggest they may reflect the primitive state.
Q2) Specialized archaeocytes that secrete large quantities of collagen are A)collencytes.
B)sclerocytes.
C)choanocytes.
D)spongocytes.
E)lophocytes.Lophocytes are archeocytes specialized for secreting collagen.
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Chapter 13: Cnidarians and Ctenophores
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Q1) Hermaphroditic sea anemones that produce sperm first and eggs later,to prevent self-fertilization,are called A)asexual.
B)pre-testicular.
C)postgynous.
D)protandrous.
E)precocious.
Q2) The function of the siphonoglyph is
A)to form water currents into the gastrovascular cavity.
B)to sting the prey.
C)to aid in swimming.
D)to maintain balance or orientation.
E)reproduction.
Q3) Water in the gastrovascular cavity serves as a ________________ skeleton.
Q4) The function of the rhopalium is A)digestive.
B)respiratory.
C)food capture.
D)sensory.
E)reproductive.
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha, Platyzoa, and Mesozoa
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Q1) Humans become infected with lung flukes by
A)eating infected fish.
B)eating infected crabs or crayfish.
C)drinking water contaminated with eggs.
D)wading in infected waters.
E)eating undercooked pork.
Q2) Marine forms of platyhelminths have a ciliated larvae that resembles which of the following?
A)Trochophore
B)Planula
C)Miracidium
D)Gemmule
E)None of the choices is correct
Q3) The male copulatory organ of turbellarians is called a A)rhabdite.
B)pilidium.
C)cirrus.
D)hydatid.
E)gonopore.
Q4) Most monogeneans are external parasites of ____________.
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) Which phyla are included in the Clade Krytrochozoa? Check all that apply.
____ Nemertea
____ Brachiopoda
____ Phoronida
_____ Ectoprocta
Q2) The digestive system of a phoronid worm has
A)cilia in the stomach area of the U-shaped gut.
B)water passing over the anus and nephridiopores before entering the gut.
C)an anus that lies ventral to the mouth and inside the lophophore.
D)All of the choices are correct
E)None of the choices is correct
Q3) Which group is so specialized that they are only found on the mouth parts of marine decapods in the northern hemisphere?
A)micrognathozoans. B)rotifers.
C)cycliophorans.
D)acanthocephalans. E)entoprocts.
Q4) A lophophorate phylum that is primarily marine,but also has some freshwater members is ____________ (Bryozoa).
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) Gaseous exchange in gastropods may involve A)gills.
B)lungs.
C)mantle.
D)body surface.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q2) The ________ _________ projects into a bivalve stomach to keep the contents whirling while releasing digestive enzymes.
Q3) The main structures that taste food and direct it into the mouth of a clam is/are
A)the gills.
B)labial palps.
C)the siphons.
D)the gastric mill.
E)adductor muscles.
Q4) What surface (e.g. ,dorsal,ventral,anterior,posterior)of the squid faces forward as the animal moves by jet propulsion? What surface faces forward in a swimming cuttlefish? Explain your answers.
Q5) How has the problem of "fouling" been resolved by the various groups of molluscs?
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) Darwin observed earthworm behavior where a worm would seize a leaf fragment by its narrow end in order to pull the leaf into its burrow.This behavior is
A)evidence of high level reasoning.
B)mainly a product of trial and error.
C)genetic or innate.
D)proof of an extensive ability to learn.
E)now known to be totally random.
Q2) Select the list of characteristics typical of annelids.
A)Segmentation,open circulation,and metanephridia
B)Segmentation,a closed circulatory system,and metanephridia
C)An exoskeleton,metanephridia,and a pseudocoelom
D)An exoskeleton,Malpighian tubules,and a pseudocoelom
E)Metanephridia,a true coelom,and open circulation
Q3) Discuss why segmentation is such an important innovation in the Annelida.
Q4) Discuss the importance of a trochophore larva in both the Annelida and the Mollusca.
Q5) Of what evolutionary significance is the "hydrostatic skeleton"?
Q6) The Hirudinida are unique in that they have both an anterior and a posterior
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Elephantiasis is an enlargement of legs,arms,scrotum,and other tissues caused by
A)an infection of the human coelom by Ascaris.
B)a large number of Trichinella worms encysting in our muscles.
C)contracting a disease that usually occurs in elephants.
D)microscopic nematodes that reproduce and clog lymph glands,causing infection and limbs to swell.
E)a protozoan that lives in tropical roundworms and which,when ingested by humans,causes muscles to bloat.
Q2) Tiny marine worms that burrow through mud by extending the head and anchoring it by recurved spines are ________________.
Q3) The _______________ are burrowing marine worms with a proboscis,trunk,and usually one or two caudal appendages.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a factor that protects North Americans from many parasitic worm infections?
A)Much of the U.S.has bitter cold winters.
B)Most of the population wears shoes.
C)We usually cook our meat and there are few raw meat dishes.
D)We have superior drugs and surgeons.
E)We do not use human excreta ("night soil")to directly fertilize crops.
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) You could collect a sea spider
A)as an ectoparasite on a whale.
B)grazing in kelp beds.
C)from intertidal zones to over 6000 meters deep,especially in polar waters.
D)as an endoparasite in the gut of echinoderms.
E)in underwater webs in coral reefs.
Q2) Which is NOT a correct association of scorpion structures and functions?
A)Pectines-tactile organs to explore the ground
B)Spermatophore-a packet of sperm
C)Chelicerae-large six-jointed pincers
D)Cephalothorax-bears the appendages
E)Postabdomen-bears a tail with sting
Q3) Do you believe our current understanding of the phylogeny of the arthropods is the correct one? Why or why not?
Q4) The excretory system of spiders and insects is a structure known as ________
Q5) __________ differ from all other arachnids in having complete fusion of the cephalothorax and abdomen.
Q6) Four classes of myriapods are Chilopoda,Pauropoda,Symphyla and
21
Q7) Tactile organs on the ventral side of scorpions are ________________.
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) The "bailer" of a crayfish that draws water over the gill filaments is a part of the A)second maxillae.
B)caudal furca.
C)third maxilliped.
D)first walking leg.
E)first swimmeret.
Q2) Which is a correct association of pigment and function in an arthropod compound eye?
A)Strong light-distal retinal pigment disappears
B)Strong light-each ommatidium is shielded from the others and sees only a limited area
C)Strong light-distal and proximal pigments separate
D)Dim light-each ommatidium is shielded from the others and sees only a limited area
E)Dim light-distal and proximal pigments fuse
Q3) Position sensors in the base of the first antennae of crayfishes are called
Q4) The dorsal cuticle of the head of many crustaceans extends posteriorly to form a covering called the ___________________.
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Chapter 21: Hexapods
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Q1) The stages in the life cycle of a holometabolous insect are egg,larva,________________,adult.
Q2) Insect legs are attached to the
A)head,thorax,and abdomen (one pair each).
B)thorax and abdomen (two pairs on the thorax and one on the abdomen).
C)thorax with one pair on the prothorax,mesothorax and metathorax.
D)thorax with all three pairs on the mesothorax.
E)thorax with two pairs on the mesothorax and one pair on the metathorax.
Q3) How is an insect circulatory system best described?
A)The open system uses a dorsal aorta and accessory pulsatory organs to push hemolymph through the body cavities and wings,etc.but the hemolymph has little respiratory function.
B)The system is totally closed like ours with arteries and veins and the amebocytes aid in respiratory function.
C)The system is similar to ours with general closed sinuses but no distinct arteries and veins.
D)A circulatory system is totally absent and each body cell is on its own to gain food and get rid of wastes.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) Unique characteristics of echinoderms include all of the following EXCEPT
A)an endoskeleton of plates or ossicles.
B)marine,freshwater,and terrestrial species.
C)pedicellariae.
D)dermal brachiae.
E)a water vascular system.
Q2) Outline the phylogeny and adaptive diversification of the hemichordates and discuss the latest data of small subunit rRNA supporting a deuterostome phylogeny for this group.
Q3) The water vascular system is derived embryologically from the left _______ ________ ________.
Q4) How much nervous system does an echinoderm have? Sea stars have
A)a complex of nerve ganglia in each ray.
B)a central nervous system including a brain.
C)a simple nerve ring and radial nerves leading to simple sensory cells scattered over the epidermis.
D)no genuine nerve cells are found in echinoderms;they operate completely by a hydraulic system.
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Q5) The mouth of the brittle star is surrounded by five movable plates that serve as
Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) Chordates typically have
A)a notochord.
B)radial cleavage.
C)the anus derived from the blastopore.
D)a coelom that is either enterocoelous or schizocoelous.
E)all of the choices are typical chordate features.
Q2) The skeletal rod found in all chordates is called a _________.
Q3) Pikaia gracilens,the earliest known chordate collected from the Burgess Shale of British Columbia,closely resembles
A)the amphioxus lancelet.
B)living sessile tunicates.
C)the ammocoete larva.
D)an adult larvacean.
E)the lamprey.
Q4) The urochordates are
A)called tunicates.
B)marine animals.
C)sessile as adults,but tadpole-like as larvae.
D)often abundant in intertidal organisms.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) The spiral valve in the intestine of a shark serves to
A)release strong acids to aid digestion.
B)function as a liver in producing bile salts.
C)entrap food molecules in a mucus strand.
D)slow passage of food and increase absorptive surface area.
E)propel food through the tract at a faster rate.
Q2) The gills of bony fishes are covered with a movable flap called the __________.
Q3) Hagfishes
A)are entirely fresh water animals.
B)are parasitic.
C)have a complex but well-researched reproductive cycle.
D)generate enormous quantities of slime if disturbed.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) Explain why there are relics of the transformation of Meckel's cartilage during the development of modern sharks.
Q5) Why has the coelacanth apparently changed so little from its fossil ancestor of 70 million years ago?
Q6) The class __________ is composed of vertebrates having eel-like bodies,a biting mouth with two rows of teeth,and numerous slime glands.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Frog singing
A)is more common in males than females.
B)is produced by passing air back and forth between the lungs and vocal pouches.
C)uses the large vocal sacs as resonators.
D)involves vocal cords in a larynx.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Most salamanders are fertilized internally after a female picks up a sperm packet or ______________.
Q3) Discuss the transition from an aquatic environment to a terrestrial environment.What are the structural and physiological features required for such a move?
Q4) All of the following are characteristics of modern amphibians except one.Select the exception.
A)Ten pairs of cranial nerves
B)Separate sexes
C)Smooth moist skin
D)Endothermic
E)Bony skeleton
Q5) Some salamanders retain larval features (e.g. ,gills)throughout life,a condition called
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) In the nonavian reptilian egg,the embryo is bathed in a fluid contained within an extra-embryonic membrane called the __________________.
Q2) Turtle fossils appear in the _____.
A)Permian
B)Triassic
C)Carboniferous
D)Jurassic
E)Cretaceous
Q3) Which association of lineages and eventual derived groups is NOT correct?
A)Anaspids-turtles
B)Diaspids-all "reptilian" groups except turtles
C)Lepidosaurs-only extinct ichthyosaurs and pterodons
D)Synapsids-mammals
E)Archosaurs-dinosaurs,crocodilians,and birds
Q4) Nonavian reptiles are a paraphyletic group because
A)they do not have a common ancestry.
B)they have a common ancestry.
C)they do not include all descendants of their most recent common ancestor.
D)they include all descendants of their most recent common ancestor.
Q5) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) Discuss the relative merits of the two competing hypotheses for the origin of avian flight.
Q2) Birds fly through the air at relatively high speeds.This is possible in part because they have
A)a crop and gizzard.
B)highly sensitive sensory systems.
C)less power per unit weight.
D)ability to store large amounts of water.
E)All of the choices are the result of having to accommodate flight
Q3) The bird that makes the longest known migrations of any bird,between the Arctic and the Antarctic,is the ______ _______.
Q4) More than 90% of all birds follow a type of mating system in which an individual mates with only one partner each breeding season,called ___________.
Q5) Archaeopteryx resembled modern birds in having
A)a large keel or breastbone for pectoral muscle insertion.
B)pneumatic bones.
C)fused clavicles or "wishbone."
D)a beak.
E)All of the choices were Archaeopteryx features
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) Discuss the significance of the evolution of a true placenta.Why would this have been an evolutionary milestone?
Q2) The fur of mammals
A)consists of underhair and guard hair.
B)is molted twice annually in most mammals.
C)is composed of keratin.
D)is used for a variety of purposes such as protection,temperature regulation,etc.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q3) Mammals began a dramatic expansion in the A)Pleistocene.
B)Paleocene.
C)Oligocene.
D)Triassic.
E)Eocene.
Q4) Discuss the significance of the evolution of echolocation in bats.Could that partially explain why bats are the most diverse group of mammals today?
Q5) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of placental and marsupial modes of reproduction.
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) At intervals along the actin strand of skeletal muscle is a complex of protein called ___________ that acts as a calcium-dependent switch.
Q2) Is there a limit to the size of animal that can evolve? Why are certain mechanical advantages not available to animals larger than a horse?
Q3) The ________ is part of the appendicular skeleton of a vertebrate.
A)neurocranium
B)atlas
C)humerus
D)sacrum
E)mandible
Q4) Bone that develops from cartilage is called _________ bone,a word meaning "within cartilage."
Q5) Discuss the modification of the basic pentadactyl limb for life in different environments.
Q6) Differentiate between calcification and sclerotization.In which groups of animals are these processes found?
Q7) Define the following terms: keratin,keratinization,cornification,stratum corneum,dermis,epidermis.
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Compared to kangaroo rats,humans
A)evaporate a higher proportion of water.
B)have considerably more water in their feces.
C)urinate considerably more.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Briefly describe the function and role of the following: aldosterone,renin,angiotensin,and antidiuretic hormone.
Q3) Compare and contrast ectotherms with endotherms.How do ectotherms achieve temperature independence,and what would be the "metabolic cost" to them if they evolved homeothermy?
Q4) Why is homeostasis so important to animals? Why should any kind of constancy of the internal environment be important?
Q5) The area of a nephron that constitutes a countercurrent multiplier system is called the ______ ___ _____.
Q6) Compare excretory structures of single-celled organisms with those of marine invertebrates and terrestrial vertebrates.
Q7) In freshwater fish,water that enter the gills osmotically is pumped out by the
Q8) The term "homeostasis" was coined by the American physiologist ______ ______. Page 32
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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) Interstitial fluid is constantly formed by
A)the lymphatic system producing it.
B)lightweight elements in the blood plasma filtered through capillary walls.
C)absorption across the gut lining.
D)absorption across the lung surface.
E)reabsorption in the kidney tubules.
Q2) The atrioventricular valves separate the atria from the ventricles in the heart,and the ___________ valves prevent backflow from the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
Q3) The mammalian lung is filled with millions of small air sacs called
Q4) The external openings to the tracheal systems of arthropods are called
Q5) Why should arteries farther away from the heart possess more smooth muscle and fewer elastic fibers than arteries closer to the heart?
Q6) Briefly discuss the functions of the many inorganic and organic substances in solution within body fluids.
Q7) Extracellular fluid in animals with a closed circulatory system is subdivided into blood plasma and _________________ (intercellular)fluid.
Page 34
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Microvilli form a brush-like border on the cells of the A)esophagus.
B)stomach.
C)duodenum.
D)tongue.
E)pharynx.
Q2) Villi serve to
A)produce enzymes and absorb nutrients.
B)secrete bile.
C)produce antibodies.
D)synthesize vitamins.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Describe the unique pathway for the digestion of fat molecules and indicate why they are not completely broken down, as are other food molecules.
Q4) The pancreatic juice contains two powerful proteases,trypsin and ____________.
Q5) A milk-curdling enzyme found in the stomach of ruminant mammals is ____________.
Q6) Outline the action of the major digestive enzymes.
Q7) List the hormones involved in the regulation of digestion.
Q8) Outline the process of digestion of fats.
Q9) Describe one mechanism for regulating food intake. Page 35
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) Explain how the parasympathetic and sympathetic subdivisions of the autonomic system interact.
Q2) The nodes of Ranvier are
A)motor nerve terminations on muscle fibers.
B)tiny vesicles on the postsynaptic membrane of synapses.
C)interruptions in the myelin sheath surrounding axons.
D)ganglia in the flatworm nervous system.
E)the interneurons in our cerebral cortex that allow us to "think."
Q3) The active transport device whereby sodium is moved from inside the axon to the outside is referred to as the ______ ______.
Q4) What roles do acetylcholine and acetylcholinesterase play in the transmission of neural action potentials?
Q5) If you destroyed the neuromasts in a fish's lateral line,how would you expect this to affect its ability to school?
Q6) The vertebrate ear functions in hearing and in ____________.
Q7) The arthropod compound eye is composed of numerous independent visual units called _________.
Page 37
Q8) The organ of hearing in the inner ear of tetrapod vertebrates is the ______ ___
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) What hormone stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor or somatomedin by the liver in humans?
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Thyroid stimulating hormone
C)Gonadotropic hormones
D)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E)Growth hormone (somatotropin)
Q2) Many hormones are controlled by negative feedback mechanisms that operate between the endocrine gland and the ______ ______.
Q3) Removal of the parathyroid glands results in
A)an increase of calcium in the blood.
B)severe muscle spasms and death.
C)stimulation of the thyroid to maintain proper calcium level in the blood.
D)no noticeable effect.
Q4) The two hormones involved in insect metamorphosis are molting hormone and the __________ hormone.
Q5) The condition in humans called goiter is caused by an insufficiency of ____________ in the food and water.
Q6) List the hormones of the neurohypophysis and their actions.
Page 39
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is commonly called ________.
Q2) _________________ is/are a series of proteins activated in a sequence as a response to invading organisms.
A)Complement
B)Lysozymes
C)A major histocompatibility complex
D)Interferons
E)Tumor necrosis factors
Q3) What type(s)of cell(s)conduct(s)phagocytosis?
____Macrophages in lymph nodes
____Kupffer cells in sinusoids
____Microglial cells in the brain
____Neutrophils
_____Mast cells
_____Natural killer cells
Q4) The cells that secrete antibodies are called __________________.
Q5) Rh incompatibility accounts for a peculiar and often fatal disease of the newborn called ___________________ __________.
Q6) Identify the following: tumor necrosis factor,complement,phagocytosis,leukocytes.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) One kind of learning behavior,illustrated by goslings that will follow the first moving object they see (usually their mother)is called ____________.
Q2) A benefit of social organization may be
A)Protection from predators.
B)Cooperation in hunting for food.
C)To facilitate contact between males and females.
D)All of the choices are benefits.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q3) The invariable,predictable,stereotyped behavior of animals that does not require learning is called ____________ behavior.
Q4) Discuss the properties of imprinting.How could any kind of imprinting have evolved?
Q5) If food is close to the hive,
A)no dance is necessary to communicate a source that is within eyesight.
B)the bees dance in a very small figure
C)the bees perform a round dance.
D)the bees dance in a straight "bee line."
E)none of the choices is correct.
Q6) Why is territoriality considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
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Chapter 37: Animal Distribution
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Q1) Explain the salient features of the Continental Drift Theory.Why did it take so long for it to be accepted?
Q2) The phenomenon where visible and U-V radiation are absorbed at the earth's surface and re-emitted as longer infrared wavelengths that are then absorbed by water vapor,carbon dioxide,and methane,is known as A)the ozone layer.
B)the greenhouse effect.
C)global warming.
D)the atmospheric cycle.
Q3) Deserts and tundra have about the same rainfall,yet the tundra is not "dry." Why?
Q4) How do the various physical features of the lithosphere,the hydrosphere,and the atmosphere interact to produce a viable biosphere?
Q5) Why are so many deserts located between 15 and 30 degrees latitude?
Q6) The terrestrial biome having the greatest diversity of tree species is the ____________.
Q7) Which biome is the most diverse in terms of numbers of species? Why?
Q8) Discuss the contributions of Alfred Russel Wallace to modern historical biogeography.
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) Whether most young of an animal die soon after they are born or grow up such that most of the population dies in old age is called
A)carrying capacity.
B)intrinsic rate of growth.
C)cohort.
D)survivorship.
E)the limiting resource.
Q2) Discuss how ecosystems are based on energy transfer at different trophic levels.
Q3) Compare logistic growth with exponential growth.Would a pest insect species more likely exhibit a logistic growth curve or an exponential growth curve? Explain your reasoning.
Q4) The energy accumulated by plants,less that used in respiration,is the _____ _______ ______.
Q5) Discuss how the extinction of a keystone species can affect an ecosystem.
Q6) Describe the functioning and possible patterns associated with metapopulation dynamics.
Q7) Discuss the paradox of biodiversity concerning species isolation and potential for both speciation and extinction.
Q8) Almost all life depends on the energy from the _______.
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