Organismal Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Organismal Biology is an integrative course that explores the structure, function, diversity, and evolutionary relationships of living organisms with a focus on the whole organism. Through the study of plants, animals, fungi, and other life forms, students investigate how organisms interact with their environments, regulate physiological processes, and adapt to changing conditions. The course emphasizes comparative anatomy, life cycles, reproduction, and the ecological roles of various organisms, providing a comprehensive foundation for understanding the complexity and interconnectedness of life on Earth.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does artificial selection differ from natural selection?
A)Artificial selection occurs only in computer simulations,not with actual organisms.
B)Artificial selection is based on conscious choices by humans.
C)Artificial selection occurs only with plants.
D)Artificial selection is not based on heritable variation,but on new mutations.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a powerful way to test a hypothesis?
A)Incorporate the hypothesis into a more general theory.
B)Formulate a competing or alternative hypothesis.
C)Formulate a null hypothesis.
D)Perform an experiment that tests a prediction that follows from the hypothesis. Answer: D
Q3) On an evolutionary tree,any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe").Draw the tree for Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya.Are prokaryotes monophyletic?
A)yes
B)no
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which of the following true statements can be attributed to water's high specific heat?
A)Oil and water do not mix well.
B)Our body temperature takes a long time to change because it is composed mostly of water.
C)Ice floats on water.
D)Sugar dissolves in hot tea faster than in iced tea.
Answer: B
Q2) Doctors used to recommend that parents sponge feverish children with rubbing alcohol to lower their body temperature.Rubbing alcohol has a lower heat of vaporization than water does.Which of the following is true?
A)Rubbing alcohol will evaporate faster than water.
B)Rubbing alcohol will evaporate at the same rate as water.
C)Rubbing alcohol will evaporate more slowly than water.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) Which term best describes the protein in Figure 3.1?
A)peripheral
B)external
C)internal
D)integral
Answer: D
Q2) At the pH found in cells (about 7.0),what happens to the amino group on an amino acid?
A)It acts as a base and gains a proton,giving it a positive charge.
B)It acts as an acid and loses a proton,giving it a negative charge.
C)It is reduced and tends to act as an electron donor in redox reactions.
D)It remains neutral,like water,and does not have a charge.
Answer: A
Q3) How many times does the protein in Figure 3.1 cross the cell membrane?
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote?
A)peptide
B)glycosidic
C)phosphodiester
D)ionic
Q2) Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA and/or DNA?
A)cytosine and uracil
B)cytosine and thymine
C)cytosine,uracil,and thymine
D)cytosine,uracil,and guanine
Q3) When doing gel electrophoresis,why do researchers add a "ladder" made up of molecules of known size?
A)to help the molecules they are studying get through the gel more easily
B)to help the researchers identify the size of each molecule after the separation has occurred
C)to make sure the radioactivity doesn't interfere with the movement of the molecules that are being studied
D)The molecules being studied would not show up without the ladder.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following molecules would you expect to have the most free energy per gram?
A)one with carbon and hydrogen atoms only
B)one with carbon,hydrogen,and oxygen atoms only
C)one with a variety of atoms that are found in cells
D)one with hydrogen and oxygen atoms only
Q2) Which of the following structural features is common to cellulose,chitin,and peptidoglycan?
A)They are all composed of glucose in either the or form.
B)They all contain peptide bonds.
C)They can all form bonds between polymer chains that create parallel strands.
D)They all form highly branched fibers.
Q3) Which of the following sugars might have the formula C H O ?
A)triose
B)pentose
C)hexose
D)heptose
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is
A)that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms.
B)their molecular weight (size).
C)their chemical properties.
D)where they are found in the body.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis (CF)is a membrane-transport disease that is caused by an allele found primarily in Caucasian populations.What mechanism fails in CF patients?
A)production of ATP
B)movement of sodium and potassium across cell membranes
C)movement of chloride ions across cell membranes
D)phospholipids in the cell membrane that are not formed properly
Q3) Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a medium-sized molecule (like a monosaccharide or an amino acid)from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on the inside of a cell?
A)facilitated diffusion through an ion channel protein
B)facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein
C)active transport through a "pump" protein
D)passive transport
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) You arrive late to lecture and your professor is describing a feature of the nucleus that provides it with structural support.You are not sure which feature is being discussed,but because you read the book before you came to class,you are fairly certain that it is
A)the nucleus pore.
B)the nucleoplasm.
C)the nuclear lamina.
D)the nucleolus.
Q2) A cell is found to contain a series of damaged organelles.Which process will play a role in removal of these damaged organelles from the cytosol?
A)Phagocytosis
B)Exocytosis
C)Autophagy
D)Pinocytosis
Q3) What is the most likely role of a cell that contains an extensive smooth ER?
A)It plays a role in storage.
B)It synthesizes large quantities of lipids.
C)It actively exports protein molecules.
D)It plays a role in immune function.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) What is a major difference in the extracellular matrix (ECM)between plant and animal cells?
A)Plant ECM is composed primarily of proteins,whereas animal ECM is mainly carbohydrates.
B)Plant ECM is primarily carbohydrate in nature,whereas animal ECM is largely protein based.
C)Plant and animal ECMs are quite similar in structure and function.
D)Plant ECM components are released extracellularly by the Golgi stacks,whereas lysosomes function in this capacity in animal cells.
Q2) Transport of materials across a cell membrane
A)is selective.
B)always takes place from a region of greater concentration to a region of lesser concentration.
C)is an energy-requiring process regardless of the chemical properties of the substance being transported.
D)requires a carrier molecule in the membrane regardless of the chemical properties of the substance being transported.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) What electron carrier(s)function in the Krebs cycle?
A)NAD only
B)both NAD and FAD
C)the electron transport chain
D)FAD only
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE concerning ATP synthase?
A)It generates ATP by chemiosmosis in cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
B)It performs the same function in cellular respiration and photosynthesis,with similar structure and biochemical composition in each.
C)It is an enzyme that is a tiny rotary motor.
D)It is a component of the electron transport chain in cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
Q3) Which of the following statements describes the pathway shown above?
A)It is a catabolic pathway.
B)It is an anabolic pathway.
C)It is a set of reactions,each of which is exergonic.
D)It is a pathway that occurs in plants,algae,and some prokaryotes,but not in other organisms (such as animals,fungi).
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Both C and C plants have the enzymes of the Calvin cycle.How are C plants more efficient than C plants at fixing carbon?
A)In C plants,carbon fixation takes place in mesophyll cells,whereas the Calvin cycle takes place in bundle-sheath cells.
B)Both the carbon fixation reaction and the Calvin cycle take place in mesophyll cells,but the carbon fixation reactions take place in the dark,and the Calvin cycle is light dependent.
C)C plants do not have rubisco and therefore do not undergo photorespiration.
D)C plants fix carbon using the Calvin cycle;C plants use the reverse of glycolysis,a series of reactions that requires more energy in the form of ATP.
Q2) Stomata,openings in the leaf,are important to photosynthesis for
A)entry of carbon dioxide that is used in the Calvin cycle.
B)entry of oxygen that is used in the Calvin cycle.
C)removal of water and carbon dioxide,the end-products of photo-oxidation.
D)removal of nitrogen-containing waste products.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres.It is characterized by A)aligning of chromosomes on the equator.
B)duplication of centrioles.
C)cytokinesis.
D)disassembly of the nuclear envelope.
Q2) Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation.Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as A)karyokinesis.
B)cytokinesis.
C)S phase.
D)G phase.
Q3) For cells to divide more rapidly,increased production would likely be required of each of the following proteins EXCEPT A)p53.
B)cyclins.
C)activated MPF. D)PDGF.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) The karyotype shown above is that of a snail,Pomacea patula catemacensis.What is the diploid number for this organism?
A)13
B)26
C)46
D)7
Q2) Chromosomes and their homologues align at the equator of the cell during
A)prophase I.
B)metaphase I.
C)prophase II.
D)metaphase II.
Q3) In Figure 12.3,what major event is taking place during this phase of meiosis?
A)synapsis
B)crossing over
C)homologues separate
D)separation of sister chromatids
Q4) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?
A)Turner's syndrome (XO)
B)Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY)
C)Down's syndrome (21,21,21)
14
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) There are 40 different alleles for a gene involved in immune function.What is the maximum number of alleles that a human can have?
A)1
B)2
C)20
D)40
E)80
Q2) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation,but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation).Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked)recessive trait.What is the probability that their first female child will have albinism?
A)0%
B)1/8
C)1/2
D)1/4
E)100%
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) In the polymerization of DNA,a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A)ATP
B)C
C)the 3 OH
D)a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
Q2) How does the simple primary and secondary structure of DNA hold the information needed to code for the many features of multicellular organisms?
A)The hydrogen bonding among backbone constituents carries coded information.
B)The base sequence of DNA carries all the information needed to code for proteins.
C)The covalent bonding among backbone constituents contains the information that is passed from generation to generation.
D)The amino acids that make up the DNA molecule contain the information needed to make cellular proteins.
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant?
A)A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid.
B)The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms.
C)The genetic code is universal (the same for all organisms).
D)More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid.
Q2) According to the central dogma,what molecule should go in the blank? DNA
________ Proteins
A)complementary DNA
B)transport molecules
C)mRNA
D)chaperone molecules
Q3) The synthesis of RNA through complementary base pairing is known as
A)semiconservative replication.
B)dispersive polymerization.
C)transcription.
D)translation.
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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) There are 61 codons that each specify the addition of a specific amino acid,and three stop codons for which there is no corresponding amino acid.However,there are only about 40 tRNA molecules,representing 40 anticodons.How is that possible?
A)Only about 40 of the recognized 61 codons are present in mRNA.
B)An anticodon forms hydrogen bonds with the codon;it must match the first two bases of the codon,but is less specific with respect to the third base.
C)There are tRNAs that can bind one of two related amino acids.
D)Only 20 of the codons are active-one for each amino acid.
Q2) The ribosome-binding site of prokaryotes is also known as
A)the TATA box.
B)the promoter.
C)the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
D)the Pribnow box.
Q3) The start codon is the same for prokaryotes and eukaryotes.What is the start codon?
A)an anticodon
B)a ribozyme
C)AUG
D)GGC
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) To date,several lactose metabolism mutants have been found in Escherichia coli.One of these mutants has a phenotype in which the cell cannot accumulate lactose because no lactose permease protein is present.What genotype would be associated with this mutation?
A)lacZ
B)lacY
C)lacI
Q2) Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription.If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level,what would be different?
A)The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced.
B)Cells would expend significantly more energy.
C)Genes would no longer be transcribed.
D)Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur.
Q3) Full induction of the lac operon occurs when
A)lactose levels are low and glucose levels are low.
B)lactose levels are low and glucose levels are high.
C)lactose levels are high and glucose levels are low.
D)lactose levels are high and glucose levels are high.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) One way to detect alternative splicing of transcripts from a given gene is to A)compare the DNA sequence of this gene to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced.
B)measure the relative rates of transcription of this gene compared to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced.
C)compare the sequences of different primary transcripts made from this gene.
D)compare the sequences of different mRNAs made from this gene.
Q2) If cells of an individual contain the same set of genes,how do these cells become different from each other during development?
A)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are created during development.
B)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are selectively lost during development.
C)Differences in extracellular signals received by each cell lead to differences in the types of regulatory proteins present in each cell.
D)Differences develop in promoter sequences that lead to different signals being produced by each type of cell.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) If mRNAs could be ligated and replicated within plasmids,what enzyme commonly used in recombinant DNA technology would no longer be needed?
A)restriction enzymes
B)DNA polymerase
C)reverse transcriptase
D)Taq polymerase
Q2) How can an amino acid sequence be used to design a gene-specific hybridization probe?
A)A portion of a polypeptide chain can be synthesized based on the amino acid sequence of the full protein.
B)A protein can be purified,digested with proteases that cleave it at specific sites,and one of the peptide fragments can be used as a probe.
C)All possible nucleotide sequences that could encode a portion of the polypeptide can be synthesized and used as probes.
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) The features that are mapped in the HapMap Project are
A)restriction enzyme recognition sites.
B)promoters.
C)enhancers.
D)single-nucleotide differences.
E)STS repeat differences.
Q2) Which of the following makes it difficult to identify eukaryotic genes?
A)the presence of many introns
B)the large amount of DNA that does not code for proteins
C)the lack of homology between eukaryotic genes
D)A and B only
E)all of the above
Q3) What can proteomics reveal that genomics cannot?
A)The number of genes characteristic of a species.
B)The patterns of alternative splicing.
C)The set of proteins present within a cell or tissue type.
D)The levels of mRNAs present in a particular cell type.
E)The movement of transposable elements within the genome.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of the head segments.The probable mutation would be found in A)segment-polarity genes.
B)gap genes.
C)pair-rule genes.
D)homeotic genes.
Q2) The plant Veratrum californicum contains an alkaloid that can severely affect normal developmental processes.When pregnant ewes eat this plant,their lambs may suffer deformities such as cyclopia (the development of a single central eye)and limb abnormalities.Experiments have shown that in the presence of this alkaloid,a protein known as Sonic hedgehog does not diffuse into limb buds of the embryo.The alkaloid inhibits cholesterol synthesis.What do you think is the explanation for the alkaloid's effect on development?
A)The alkaloid blocks the transcription of Sonic hedgehog.
B)The alkaloid cleaves Sonic hedgehog,making it ineffective.
C)Cholesterol is needed for the diffusion of Sonic hedgehog into the limb bud.
D)Cholesterol is needed for the translation of Sonic hedgehog mRNA.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) When a somite matures,the fact that it will become a specific cell type is referred to as which of the following?
A)cell specification
B)cell determination
C)cell differentiation
D)cell gastrulation
Q2) Many amphibian species release their sperm and eggs directly into a watery environment.All of the following mechanisms might ensure species-specific fertilization in these populations EXCEPT
A)acrosomal complexes in sperm.
B)complex coverings of the egg.
C)specific protein binding between sperm and egg.
D)fertilization envelopes.
E)blocking of non-species-specific mRNA sequences.
Q3) In mammals,the zona pellucida is digested during the process of fertilization.This structure is probably similar to
A)the cortical granules of the sea urchin egg.
B)the jelly layer of the sea urchin egg.
C)the vitelline envelope of the sea urchin egg.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) To what is the "double" part of double fertilization in flowering plants referring?
A)Two sperm penetrate and fertilize the egg at the same time.
B)Two sperm fertilize one egg each,producing two embryos.
C)One sperm fertilizes the egg to form the embryo,and,after several cell divisions,a second sperm fertilizes the same egg forming another embryo.
D)There are two fusion events involving separate sperm: one fuses with the egg forming an embryo,the other with a cell to form the endosperm.
Q2) One unique feature of fertilization in flowering plants compared with animals is that A)plant sperm are motile.
B)multiple ovules exist in the ovary.
C)the process involves double fertilization.
D)nuclear fusion does not take place.
E)the gametes are diploid,not haploid.
Q3) On the figure above,which of the letters represents the apical axis?
A)A
B)B
C)C
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Refer to Figure 24.1.In their investigation of natural selection on Mc1r alleles (the gene that determines coat color)in Arizona pocket mice,Hoekstra et al.determined the frequency of the D and d alleles in each population.They also determined the frequency of alleles for two neutral mitochondrial DNA genes (genes that do not affect and are not linked to coat color).Why did the researchers include the mitochondrial DNA genes as part of their experimental design?
A)Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as an experimental group and gives information on any general background genetic difference among these populations.
B)Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a control and determines coat-color differences among these populations.
C)Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as an experimental group and gives information on coat-color differences among these populations.
D)Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a control and gives information on any general background genetic difference among these populations.
E)None of the above answers apply.
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26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Given the information about the number of individuals of specific genotypes in the table above,what can you infer?
A)A is the dominant allele.
B)The relative amounts of each allele.
C)The phenotype of the individuals with each genotype.
D)The phenotype of A is likely disadvantageous.
Q2) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s.They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community.Today,the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies,at many loci,from all other populations including those in their original homeland.Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A)population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B)heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C)sexual selection and inbreeding depression
D)mutation and natural selection
E)founder effect and genetic drift
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Imagine two North American ground cricket species that contact each other as the southern species moves northward during a period of global warming.These two species do not mate much,due to differences in their courtship songs.The northern cricket does not seem to tolerate the warmer temperatures well,but is limited in its ability to move north because it does not normally disperse much.Based on this information,which is the most likely outcome?
A)fusion of the populations
B)reinforcement
C)hybrid zone formation
D)extinction of one of the species
E)creation of a new species
Q2) The snake family Typhlopidae consists of small,burrowing species with vestigial eyes.They are found in Australia,sub-Saharan Africa,India and some adjacent areas,and South America.What is the most likely explanation for this distribution?
A)rafting to the different continents from the point of origin on one of these continents
B)convergent evolution in the different regions
C)origin on Gondwana followed by continental drift and some range expansion
D)all of the above
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) How do mass extinctions differ from background extinctions?
A)Mass extinctions account for most species that have gone extinct in the history of life on Earth.
B)It is now recognized that mass extinctions but not background extinctions are generally caused by asteroid impacts.
C)Mass extinctions involve a relatively rapid extinction of a large proportion of organisms that were alive at that time.
Q2) Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a taxon?
A)morphological data from fossil species
B)genetic sequences from living species
C)gehavioral data from living species
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly," which of the two phylogenetic trees above is better?
A)Tree 1
B)Tree 2
C)Both trees are equally parsimonious.
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29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) When some bacteria use lactose as a source of energy,they produce propionic acid and CO .What is the name for this process?
A)fermentation
B)cellular respiration
C)chemical synthesis
D)photosynthesis
E)carbon fixation
Q2) Imagine that you are given some chemoorganotrophic bacteria to grow.What should you use as a source of energy for this type of bacteria?
A)light
B)methane
C)ammonia
D)sugar
E)any of the above
Q3) Bacteria and Archaea are most easily distinguished from each other by their A)chromosome structure.
B)habitat.
C)transcription and translation mechanism.
D)reproduction method.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the major lineages of eukaryotes contain pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris?
A)Plantae
B)Excavata
C)Alveotata
D)Rhizaria
Q2) Imagine there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool.Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually,and some of them can reproduce only asexually.The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria.Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment?
A)the sexually reproducing species
B)the asexually reproducing species
Q3) A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis.How can you tell?
A)The chloroplasts have both nuclear and cyanobacterial genes.
B)The chloroplasts are exceptionally small.
C)The chloroplasts have three or four membranes.
D)The chloroplasts have only a single pigment.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Liverworts,hornworts,and mosses are grouped together as the Bryophytes.Besides not having vascular tissue,what do they all have in common?
A)swimming sperm for reproduction
B)antheridia and archegonia for gamete production
C)low,sprawling growth habit
D)ability to desiccate and rehydrate with no ill effects
E)All of these answers apply.
Q2) Which of the following possess stomata?
A)Ulvophyceae
B)Hepaticophyta
C)Charaphyaceae
D)Anthocerophyta
E)All of these answers apply.
Q3) The most basal lineages of land plants include
A)Lycophyta,Psilotophyta,and Pteridophyta.
B)Hepaticophyta,Anthocerophyta,and Bryophyta.
C)Spenophyta,Charaphyaceae,and Bryophyta.
D)Cycadophyta,Ginkophyta,and Gnetophyta.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi have an extremely high surface-area-to-volume ratio.What is the advantage of this to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption?
A)The larger surface area allows for more material to be transported through the cell membrane.
B)The lower volume prevents the cells from drying out too quickly,which can interfere with absorption.
C)This high ratio creates more room inside the cells for additional organelles involved in absorption.
D)This high ratio means that fungi have a thick,fleshy structure that allows the fungi to store more of the food it absorbs.
Q2) The fungi that we commonly know as mushrooms produce which of the following reproductive structures?
A)basidia
B)zygosporangium
C)chytrids
D)asci
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) A typical ectoparasite has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT that it
A)lives outside its host.
B)grasps its host with its legs or mouth.
C)has piercing mouthparts.
D)feeds from an organism larger than itself.
E)lacks a digestive system.
Q2) The text describes four ways,or tactics,of feeding.Which of the following is NOT one of those ways?
A)suspension feeding
B)food-mass feeding
C)herbivory feeding
D)deposit feeding
E)fluid feeding
Q3) In a habitat with only one abundant food source,which type of metamorphosis would you expect an animal species to undergo?
A)holometabolous metamorphosis
B)hemimetabolous metamorphosis
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) What do all the Lophotrochozoa phyla discussed in the text have in common?
A)They feed using lophophores,specialized ciliated structures.
B)They have trochophore larvae,which swim with the aid of a ring of cilia.
C)They have members that reproduce sexually and members that reproduce asexually.
D)They expand their bodies continuously during growth.
E)None of the above answers is correct.
Q2) A cephalopod's tentacles are modified from its A)mantle.
B)visceral mass.
C)foot.
D)shell.
E)radula.
Q3) As stated in the text,"DNA sequence data indicated that two major subgroups existed within the protostomes." This finding contradicts the long-held hypothesis that the protostomes are a monophyletic group.
A)True
B)False
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35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) In what respect do humans differ from all other anthropoids?
A)lack of a tail
B)eyes on the front of the face
C)bipedal posture
D)opposable thumbs
E)diurnal activity
Q2) Which characteristic is common to all the major reptilian lineages (Testudinia,Lepidosauria,Crocodilia,or Aves)?
A)presence of teeth
B)presence of limbs
C)ectothermy
D)presence of a notochord
E)all of the above
Q3) The evolution of the limb in chordates has generally led to
A)increased diversity of movement types,as animals evolve to fill different niches.
B)decreased diversity of movement types,as animals evolve toward a single most efficient way of moving.
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36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following plays an important role in the ability of an enveloped virus to fuse with the host cell?
A)Presence of antibodies on the host cell surface that recognize the virus.
B)Presence of the same phospholipid bilayer structure in both virus and host cell.
C)Presence of capsid protein shell on the outermost layer of the virus.
D)Answers A and B
Q2) Which of the following viruses would be the most likely to have reverse transcriptase?
A)an RNA-based lytic virus
B)an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)a DNA-based lytic virus
D)a DNA-based lysogenic virus
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the ambi-sense virus?
A)The genome contains the same sequences as the mRNA required to produce viral proteins.
B)The base sequences in the genome are complementary to those in viral mRNAs.
C)Some sections of the genome are positive,while others are negative-sense.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) What is true about plant meristematic cells?
A)They are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant.
B)They are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells.
C)They produce outgrowths called root hairs.
D)They subdivided into three distinct cell types named parenchyma,collenchyma,or sclerenchyma.
E)They are the main cells involved with transpiration.
Q2) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Q3) In 2005,a spot 1 centimeter from the center of a woody stem is in the bark.In what tissue will the same spot (1 cm from the center)be in 2050?
A)bark
B)secondary phloem
C)vascular cambium
D)secondary xylem
E)impossible to tell
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for apoplastic movement of water?
A)porous cell walls
B)cytoskeleton
C)plasmodesmata
D)large central vacuole
E)semipermeable plasma membrane
Q2) Which theory of water transport in xylem can also be used to explain the movement of water in nonvascular plants such as mosses?
A)cohesion-tension
B)capillarity
C)proton pump
D)pressure flow
E)root pressure
Q3) Water potential of plants during night is ________ compared to day water potential due to ________.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are ion channels localized?
A)in the cytoplasm
B)inside the nucleus
C)spanning plasma membranes
D)on the extracellular surface of plasma membranes
E)on the intracellular surface of plasma membranes
Q2) Soil leaching is usually
A)beneficial for plants.
B)neutral for plants.
C)harmful for plants.
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
Q4) Which elements are responsible for the greater part of plant wet weight?
A)carbon,nitrogen,oxygen
B)carbon,nitrogen,phosphorus
C)carbon,oxygen,hydrogen
D)oxygen,hydrogen,phosphorus
E)oxygen,hydrogen,nitrogen
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells.Suppose you took a cutting from a plant and treated it with an antisense gene that would block the transcription of an enzyme involved in auxin production.What would happen to your cutting?
A)Photosynthesis would decrease.
B)It would grow to be very tall and thin.
C)Adventitious root growth would be greatly reduced.
D)It would not be able to initiate a hypersensitive response.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Upon exposure to blue light,plants not only begin to grow toward the light,but move their chloroplasts to the sunny side of each cell.Why would it be advantageous to move chloroplasts within cells?
A)to maximize light absorption by the chloroplasts for photosynthesis
B)to add weight to the sunny side of the plant so the plant will bend
C)to maximize heat absorption by the chloroplasts for cellular respiration
D)to reduce stomatal opening on the sunny side of the plants
E)all of the above
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Unripe fruits protect seeds from predation and early germination.What is the major function of ripe fruits?
A)attracting pollinators
B)dispersing seed
C)deterring predators
D)keeping the seed hydrated before germination
Q2) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?
A)Cell division occurs in the embryo,and growth starts.
B)Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.
C)Water is taken up.
D)Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.
E)New mRNAs and proteins are produced.
Q3) What is an essential part of alternation of generations in plants?
A)meiosis to produce gametes
B)meiosis to produce zygotes
C)mitosis to produce gametes
D)fertilization to produce spores
E)fertilization to produce gametes
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) After you eat a meal,blood glucose concentration increases.Insulin is released from the pancreas to restore blood glucose concentration by facilitating the uptake of glucose by cells and stimulating the conversion of glucose to glycogen.What homeostatic mechanism is this an example of?
A)positive feedback
B)negative feedback
C)neutralizing feedback
D)feedback inhibition
Q2) Which of the following explanations for brown adipose tissue explains why infant humans and some small mammals have this tissue type?
A)This tissue allows for the conversion of fats directly into heat without the production of ATP.
B)This tissue can convert ATP into heat energy instead of using it for muscle contraction and other energy-requiring processes.
C)This tissue stores more heat than other types of fat because of its darker color.
D)This tissue type has less water than other adipose tissues and thus has less evaporative cooling.
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are microvilli on the luminal (apical)surface of the epithelium that lines the lumen of the proximal tubule.Microvilli are structural features designed to
A)maximize surface area available to pump ions into the renal tubule.
B)maximize surface area available for reabsorption of solutes from the renal tubule.
C)accommodate membrane proteins involved in active transport of substances into the rental tubule.
D)provide adequate space to house membrane proteins involved in active transport of solutes out of the renal tubule.
Q2) The products of filtration in the renal corpuscle enter the renal tubule through which of the following structures?
A)the proximal convoluted tubule
B)the loop of Henle
C)the collecting duct
D)Bowman's capsule
Q3) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amino acids,dipeptides,and sugars are transported from intestinal epithelial cells into circulation.Lipids are transported from the intestinal epithelium into A)smooth muscles that make up the core of the villi of the intestinal epithelium.
B)the lymph system.
C)the liver.
D)the gall bladder.
Q2) What condition may arise if an individual has defective insulin receptors?
A)diabetes mellitus type I
B)diabetes mellitus type II
C)diabetes insipidus
D)gestational diabetes
Q3) Which of the following words best completes this sentence? The human body cannot ________ essential nutrients.
A)excrete
B)make
C)secrete
D)absorb
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45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Premature infants may not produce surfactants in the alveoli of their lungs.What implications does this have for their health and survival?
A)The partial pressure of oxygen drops significantly in the absence of these surfactants,and the child may suffer brain damage from oxygen deprivation.
B)The surface tension of fluids in the lungs may be too high for the lungs to expand fully during inhalation.
C)Surfactants are necessary to trap pollutants and other material that enters the lungs during inhalation;thus,lung disease is more likely.
D)Surfactants raise the surface tension of alveolar fluids so that deoxygenated air does not get trapped in the lungs during exhalation.
Q2) Which of the four muscular chambers of the human heart directly propels blood into the pulmonary circulation?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The depolarization phase of an action potential requires
A)opening of K channels in the membrane.
B)opening of Na channels in the membrane.
C)a K concentration gradient across the membrane.
D)a Na concentration gradient across the membrane.
E)both B and D
Q2) If you experimentally increase the concentration of K inside a cell,while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were,what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
A)The membrane potential would become more negative.
B)The membrane potential would become less negative.
C)The membrane potential would remain the same.
Q3) Upon witnessing a robber hold up a convenience store at gunpoint,which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate?
A)increased heartbeat
B)constriction of airways
C)dilation of pupils
D)all of the above
E)only A and C
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A)to store and release ATP
B)to store and release ACh
C)to store and release Ca
D)to store and release myosin
E)to store and release troponin
Q2) What is the function of sensory receptor cells?
A)to receive a signal from the environment
B)to transduce a signal from the environment
C)to integrate a signal from the environment
D)all of the above
E)A and B only
Q3) Hair cells in the vertebrate ear are responsible for transducing sound pressure waves.Ion channels in the hair cell membrane open when
A)a chemical ligand binds to the ion channel.
B)light is absorbed by a molecule in the membrane.
C)the cell membrane reaches a threshold voltage.
D)the membrane is distorted mechanically.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) In experiments where researchers suspect that a hormone may be responsible for a certain physiological effect,they may cut the neurons leading to the organ where the effect being studied occurs.What is the purpose of cutting these neurons?
A)To make sure that the effect is not occurring through actions in the nervous system.
B)To make sure that the organ being effected cannot function unless the researchers stimulate it with an external electrical probe.
C)To impair the normal functions of the organ so that the hormonal effect can be more easily studied.
D)To numb the organ so that it can be probed without inducing pain in the lab animal.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true of hormones?
A)All are organic molecules.
B)All are secreted from the cells where they are synthesized.
C)Some have only local effects on nearby cells.
D)Some are derived from amino acids.
E)They have large effects on target tissues relative to their concentrations.
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) What is the significance of using the concentrations of 5,25,and 100 ng/l of 17 -estradiol for the dose in this experiment?
A)These concentrations are similar to those found in many animals.
B)These concentrations are found in the environment.
C)These concentrations are effective,yet not lethal to the fish.
D)These concentrations are standard in toxicology assays.
Q2) Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to their parent.What type of cell division occurs to generate this type of offspring?
A)mitosis
B)meiosis
C)A and B in combination
D)none of the above
Q3) What structure in female humans is analogous to the sensitive tissues of the penis?
A)clitoris
B)labia minora
C)labia majora
D)vagina
E)cervix
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) A certain cell type has existed in the blood and tissue of its vertebrate host's immune system for over 20 years.One day,it recognizes a newly arrived antigen and binds to it,subsequently triggering a secondary immune response in the body.Which of the following cell types most accurately describes this cell?
A)B cell
B)T cell
C)memory cell
D)secondary cell
Q2) Home blood typing kits reveal an individual's blood type by interpreting how blood reacts when exposed to antibodies.Which of the following is studied to interpret the results using these types of kits?
A)complementation
B)agglutination
C)hypersensitivity
D)autoimmunity
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Based on the data in the figure above,which of the following statements is false?
A)Area 1 has more average precipitation than area 2.
B)Area 1 has a higher average temperature than area 2.
C)Both areas have variation in monthly precipitation.
D)Area 2 has a smaller annual temperature variation compared to area 1.
Q2) The specific abiotic factors defining a biome are
A)maximum annual temperature and moisture levels.
B)average annual temperature and moisture levels.
C)annual variation in temperature and precipitation.
D)maximum annual temperatures,moisture levels,and average annual temperature.
E)average annual temperature,moisture levels,and annual variation in temperature and precipitation.
Q3) In the figure above,which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Using the information above,and knowing that the PKG encoded by the foraging gene has recently been associated with the maturation of out-of-nest behavior in honeybees,what would be a logical explanation for this relationship?
A)As animals mature,they require more food;therefore,PKG levels must increase.
B)As animals mature,they are more likely to forage;therefore,PKG levels must increase.
C)As animals mature,they respond to pheromones from the queen,which increases PKG levels.
D)As animals mature,they are able to fly,an activity that is connected to the increase in PKG levels.
Q2) You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons.What would best explain this observation?
A)Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison.
B)Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to avoid them.
C)Rats may learn this behavior from their parents or siblings.
D)Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) Using information from the table above,how would you describe the population dynamics of L.vivipara?
A)The population is increasing.
B)The population is decreasing.
C)The population is stable.
D)The figure does not provide this information.
Q2) Which of the two graphs in the figure above shows a population of organisms that has a strong population cycle?
A)(a)
B)(b)
C)both show identical cycles
Q3) Why can't a female lizard have both high fecundity and high survival?
A)Only in rare cases do lizards have both high fecundity and high survival.
B)Female lizards are able to produce only one set of offspring.
C)Competition for resources prevents this.
D)The more energy the female devotes to offspring,the less that can be devoted to her survival.
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54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) According to the figure above,which species is more successful in competing for seeds?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)These species do not compete for seeds.
D)This figure does not illustrate which species is more successful.
Q2) People with at least one copy of the HLA-B53 gene are better able to beat back malarial infections before the infection progresses.If this is a coevolutionary arms race between Plasmodium and humans,what would the next step in this race be?
A)to see humans with more than one copy of the HLA-B53 gene
B)to see humans without the HLA-B53 gene
C)to see Plasmodium populations that counter the HLA-B53 gene
D)to see Plasmodium populations that have the HLA-B53 gene
Q3) Which are the only two interaction types to depend on density and effective defense to determine the short-term impact?
A)competition and consumption
B)consumption and parasitism
C)parasitism and mutualism
D)mutualism and commensalism
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) What is the leading hypothesis as to why terrestrial productivity is higher in equatorial climates?
A)Productivity increases with temperature.
B)Productivity increases with water availability.
C)Productivity increases with available sunlight.
D)Hypothesis is most likely a combination of the other answers.
Q2) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above,what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)nitrogen fixation by bacteria
Q3) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue,this is
A)net primary productivity.
B)the amount of energy available to consumers.
C)maintenance costs.
D)Both A and B
E)Both B and C
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) In looking at the figure above,what can be said about edge effects?
A)Biomass declines sharply along edges of forest fragments.
B)Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.
C)Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.
D)Fragmentation does not affect biomass.
Q2) Based on Figure 55.2,what snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by a king brown snake?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
Q3) According to the figure above,what is occurring after 1985?
A)The population is increasing exponentially.
B)The population is increasing.
C)The population growth rate is increasing.
D)The sheep are climbing a hill.
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