Organic Chemistry
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Organic Chemistry is the study of the structure, properties, composition, reactions, and synthesis of carbon-containing compounds. This course explores fundamental concepts such as bonding, functional groups, stereochemistry, reaction mechanisms, and spectroscopy, with an emphasis on understanding how molecular structure affects chemical reactivity. Students will learn to predict the outcomes of chemical reactions, propose synthetic pathways, and interpret data from experimental techniques, preparing them for advanced studies in chemistry, biology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry for Today General Organic and Biochemistry 8th Edition by Seager
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Chapter 1: Matter, measurements, and Calculations
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Q1) A patient with a body temperature of 300 K would be considered as suffering from hypothermia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) How many significant figures are justified in a measurement of a length that is between 9 and 10 centimeters if the measuring device (ruler)has smallest divisions of 0.1 cm?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following consists of a single chemical species?
A) solution
B) homogeneous mixture
C) heterogeneous mixture
D) compound
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Atoms and Molecules
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Q1) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> contains equal parts by weight of hydrogen and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) One mole of any substance will contain one Avogadro's number of atoms of that substance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) How many moles of hydrogen molecules (H<sub>2</sub>)would be required to produce two moles of hydrogen peroxide (H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Electronic Structure and the Periodic Law
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Q1) Which of the following elements is classified as a representative metal?
A) element 30
B) element 26
C) element 38
D) element 63
Answer: C
Q2) Tin (Sn),which is found in Group IVA,has four electrons in the outside shell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Argon completes the fourth period of the periodic table.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Which of the following elements contains a total of 10 "s" electrons?
A) Sr
B) Sb
C) Cs
D) more than one response is correct
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Forces Between Particles
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Q1) Which of the following is the polyatomic ion call carbonate?
A) C<sub>2</sub>Cl<sup>2-</sup>
B) ClO<sup>-</sup>
C) CO
D) HCOS1U1P13-S1S1P0
Q2) The shape of a BF<sub>3</sub> molecule is _____ .
A) angular
B) trigonal planar
C) trigonal pyramid
D) tetrahedral
Q3) Eating foods rich in _____ has been shown to help reduce hypertension.
A) chloride
B) iron
C) sodium
D) potassium
Q4) CCl<sub>4</sub> has a tetrahedral structure.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions
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Q1) Lycopene,a phytonutrient,has several potential health benefits,including protection against prostate,cervical and pancreatic cancer.Which of the following is a good source of this substance?
A) spinach
B) broccoli
C) strawberries
D) tomatoes
Q2) According to the law of conservation of matter,which of the following may NEVER occur as a result of a chemical reaction?
A) creation of new chemical species.
B) reaction of starting materials.
C) rearranged to form new substances.
D) reduction in total mass.
Q3) What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction?
4HCl + MnO<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) Cl<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O + MnCl<sub>2</sub>
A) HCl
B) Cl<sub>2</sub>
C) MnO<sub>2</sub>
D) MnCl<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 6: The States of Matter
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Q1) Which of the following gases is least likely to behave ideally?
A) He
B) N<sub>2</sub>
C) HCl
D) H<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Thermal expansion is a property only observed for the gaseous state of matter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What volume in liters is occupied by 8.22 g of SO<sub>2</sub> gas confined at a pressure of 1200 torr at 75.0S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C? (hint: R = 0.0821 liter atm/mol K)
A) 0.499
B) 4.22 * 10<sup>1</sup>
C) 2.32
D) 32.1
Q4) Calculate the kinetic energy of a 0.500 g particles traveling at 5.50 cm/s.
A) 2.75 g cm<sup>2</sup>/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 7.56 g cm<sup>2</sup>/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 51.1 g cm<sup>2</sup>/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 6.88 g cm<sup>2</sup>/s<sup>2</sup>
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Chapter 7: Solutions and Colloids
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Q1) A colligative property
A) will only occur for aqueous solutions.
B) depends only on the number of species added to a solution.
C) results from increasing vapor pressure as a solute is added to a solvent.
D) All of the choices.
Q2) Weight-volume percentage solutions must be made in 100 mL increments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a patient's blood electrolyte levels are evaluated,sodium,chloride and bicarbonate ions are commonly measured and the difference in the total positive and negative charges calculated.This difference is called the
A) ionic ratio.
B) isoelectric point.
C) electromotive constant.
D) anion gap.
Q4) The vapor pressure of a pure solvent is
A) higher than that of a solution.
B) impossible to determine.
C) the same as that of a solution.
D) lower than that of a solution.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Reaction Rates and Equilibrium
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Q1) The device used to measure heat produced or used by a chemical reaction is called a(n)_____ .
A) thermometer
B) calorimeter
C) activator
D) joulery
Q2) A reaction rate can be described in terms of the change in concentration of either a reactant or a product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An inhibitor will have what effect on a reaction?
A) increase the activation energy
B) lower the activation energy
C) slow the reaction down
D) lower the amount of product produced
Q4) All chemical reactions require at least some amount of activation energy to proceed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Acids,bases,and Salts
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Q1) The procedure commonly used to determine the amount of base in a solution by adding a measured quantity of acid is called _____ .
A) dissociation
B) titration
C) ionization
D) normalization
Q2) A solution has a pH of 8.72.What is the value of [H<sup>+</sup>]?
A) 5.2 * 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup>
B) 1.9 *10<sup>-</sup><sup>9</sup>
C) 5.2* 10<sup>-</sup><sup>8</sup>
D) 1.9 * 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
Q3) Water is able to act not only as a solvent but as and acid or base.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A reaction in which an acid and a base react completely,leaving only a salt and water,is referred to as a(n)
A) hydrolysis reaction.
B) neutralization reaction.
C) oxidation reaction.
D) None of the choices.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Radioactivity and Nuclear Processes
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Q1) The intensity of a radiation source was measured by a Geiger-Müller counter to be 236 counts per minute when the counter was place 124 ft from the source.What will be the intensity when the counter is 248 ft from the source?
A) 59.0 counts per minute
B) 236 counts per minute
C) 118 counts per minute
D) 472 counts per minute
Q2) An isotope of zinc containing 36 neutrons is bombarded with and captures a proton.What isotope is produced as a product of the reaction?
A) zinc-67
B) gallium-66
C) kryton-83
D) copper-65
Q3) The new nuclei produced when unstable nuclei undergo radioactive decay is referred to as the _____ .
A) father nuclei
B) daughter nuclei
C) mother nuclei
D) neighbor nuclei
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Organic Compounds: Alkanes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most organic compounds contain ionic bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some of the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are headache,nausea,and rapid respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons have the general formula
.
A) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>
B) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>n</sub>
C) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+2</sub>
D) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub><sub></sub><sub>-2</sub>
Q4) Which of the following compounds would be classified as inorganic?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
B) CH<sub>2</sub>ClCH<sub>2</sub>Cl
C) NaC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D) C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
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Chapter 12: Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
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Q1) Polymers are compounds that are composed of repeating units chemically bound to each other.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Alkenes must have at least two carbon atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a difference between butene and cyclobutene?
A) They are isomers.
B) Cyclobutene has 2 double bonds,butene does not.
C) The location of the double bond is terminal in cyclobutene,but between interior carbons in butene.
D) Cyclobutene is missing more hydrogens than is butene.
Q4) Which is the formula for an alkyne?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CCH<sub>2</sub>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
C) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CCH
D) (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CCH<sub>2</sub>)
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Chapter 13: Alcohols, phenols, and Ethers
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Q1) Compare glycerol with ethanol.
A) They both contain 3 carbons in the skeleton.
B) They both have the hydroxy on an interior carbon.
C) Glycerol is a long chain alcohol;ethanol is a short chain alcohol.
D) Glycerol is a triol;ethanol is not a triol.
Q2) The products of the complete oxidation of an alcohol are carbon dioxide and water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glycerol is used as a
A) fuel additive.
B) moistening agent.
C) solvent.
D) hydraulic fluid.
Q4) In the acid catalyzed dehydration of an alcohol,the acid catalyst
A) removes an hydrogen atom from -OH the to form an intermediate.
B) removes the -OH to form water.
C) protonates the intermediate to form the product.
D) protonates the -OH to form an intermediate.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Aldehydes and Ketones
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Q1) What is the result of a hydrolysis reaction?
A) getting the chemicals involved wet
B) causing an oxidation-reduction reaction resulting in hydration
C) splitting of the molecule into the component substances
D) one that results in the formation water
Q2) Fully reacting an aldehyde with an alcohol will produce?
A) a carboxylic acid
B) no reaction
C) a primary alcohol
D) an acetal
Q3) Which of the following is most toxic?
A) formaldehyde
B) benzaldehyde
C) acetone
D) camphor
Q4) Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
A) propanal
B) methanal
C) ethanal
D) butanal
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Chapter 15: Carboxylic Acids and Esters
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Q1) Which of the following is used as a mold inhibitor in bakery goods?
A) calcium propionate
B) calcium citrate
C) sodium stearate
D) sodium formate
Q2) Even though aspirin is named acetylsalicylic acid,aspirin contains the ester configuration due to the chemical reaction of a carboxyl group of the salicylic acid and acetic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following causes the noxious odor of rancid butter?
A) butyric acid
B) oxalic acid
C) lactic acid
D) stearic acid
Q4) Carboxylic acids are not polar and are expected to have a relatively high boiling point.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Amines and Amides
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Q1) Amines react readily with tertiary amines to form amides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aniline is the starting block for many of the aromatic amines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amphetamines have structures similar to that of _____.
A) atropine
B) epinephrine
C) serotonin
D) lidocaine
Q4) Reacting an amine with HCl will produce?
A) an ammonium ion and OH<sup>-</sup>
B) a salt
C) an amide plus HCl
D) an amide plus a carboxylic acid
Q5) The molecules that serve as neurotransmitters are complex amides.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) maltose
Q2) A component of lactose is the sugar _____ .
A) ribose
B) deoxyribose
C) fructose
D) galactose
Q3) Carbohydrates which contain two sugar units chemically linked together are called a(n)_____ .
A) monosaccharides
B) disaccharides
C) trisaccharides
D) polysaccharides
Q4) In order for molecules to be mirror images,there must be at least one carbon that does not have duplicate groups attached.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Lipids
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Q1) Steroids are classified as lipids because they have this distinguishing feature.
A) dissolve in nonpolar solvents
B) are present in biological materials
C) can be saponified
D) have a ring structure
Q2) Glycolipids are abundant in which tissue?
A) muscle
B) brain
C) heart
D) liver
Q3) Which reaction is involved in preparing margarine from corn oil?
A) hydrolysis
B) hydrogenation
C) saponification
D) esterification
Q4) The products of hydrolysis of a wax include a fatty acid and A) glycerol.
B) a long chain alcohol.
C) an ester.
D) More than one response is correct
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Chapter 19: Proteins
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Q1) Hemoglobin consists of several components,including which of the following?
A) heme groups
B) alpha chains
C) beta chains
D) More than one answer is correct.
Q2) The tertiary structure of myoglobin reveals that nonpolar portions are primarily on the ____ of the molecule.
A) interior
B) exterior
C) iron containing portion
D) oxygen containing portion
Q3) A major characteristic of the alpha amino acids is that they all possess polar side chains;the beta amino acids do not possess side chains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Denaturation usually involves a change in the primary structure of the protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Enzymes
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Q1) While most enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by providing a new mechanism with a lower activation energy,there are several examples where they can also increase the activation energy and slow down or stop a reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following enzyme properties is explained by the lock-and-key model?
A) specificity
B) high turnover rate
C) high molecular weight
D) susceptibility to denaturation
Q3) Which of the following disorders results from a deficiency of the enzyme tyroinase?
A) Albinism
B) Galactosemia
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Homocystinuria
Q4) Cofactors and enzymes form a tightly bound complex without which enzymes will not function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) What do restriction enzymes do?
A) restrict enzyme activity
B) regulate the type of DNA allowed into a bacterial cell
C) catalyze the manufacture of DNA
D) limit enzyme growth
Q2) Each amino acid in a protein synthesis is specified by only one codon in the genetic code.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The participation of tRNA is performed by the formation of a coordinate covalent bond between the tRNA and a specific amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nucleic acid which carries information for protein synthesis from the nucleus to the cytoplasm is _____ .
A) DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Energy for Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not classified as either a micronutrient or macronutrient?
A) fiber
B) carbohydrates
C) vitamins
D) lipids
Q2) Which fat-soluble vitamin is essential for the proper utilization of calcium and phosphorous in the body?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin E
D) Vitamin K
Q3) Because many amino acids,fatty acids and carbohydrates are considered essential,we must be careful to eat an ample quantity of each on a daily basis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Energy is generally consumed during anabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) The normal blood sugar level,for an adult,measured after a fast of 8-12 hours is
A) 90-110 mg/100 mL.
B) 40-80 mg/100 mL.
C) 50-70 mg/100mL.
D) 70-110 mg/100mL.
Q2) Glycolysis and the TCA are so efficient that over 90% of the chemical energy is stored in the form of ATP for the use of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The function of glycolysis is to extract energy from the glucose molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A key organ in regulating blood glucose levels is the _____ .
A) heart
B) liver
C) adrenal cortex
D) thyroid
Q5) Epinephrine stimulates glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Lipid and Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) If an individual does not have a sufficient level of insulin in the blood,the uptake of glucose by the cells is inhibited.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the fatty acid synthetase system,acetyl CoA is converted back into a fatty acid.How many ATPs are used in making a 10 carbon fatty acid?
A) 10
B) 8
C) 6
D) 4
Q3) Which of the following types of proteins tend to have the highest turnover rate in the body?
A) enzymes
B) plasma proteins
C) connective tissue proteins
D) muscle protein
Q4) Glycerol that is liberated from fats is digested by passing through glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Body Fluids
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Q1) Which of the following substances is least likely to be reabsorbed in the kidney tubules?
A) water
B) glucose
C) urea
D) amino acids
Q2) Carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream chiefly in the form of _____ .
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
D) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>
Q3) Interstitial fluid contains low concentrations of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chloride shift occurs due to the increase in oxygen in the blood at the lungs and decreases as the oxygen is used by the tissues.
A)True
B)False
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