Course Introduction
Organic Chemistry I Practice Exam
Organic Chemistry I introduces students to the fundamental principles of carbon-based chemistry, focusing on the structure, properties, and reactions of organic molecules. Topics covered include bonding and hybridization, nomenclature, stereochemistry, functional groups, reaction mechanisms such as substitution and elimination, and the basics of spectroscopy for molecular identification. Students will develop problem-solving skills and a strong conceptual understanding of how structure affects reactivity, preparing them for more advanced studies in chemistry and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding
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Q1) What is the order of decreasing bond length for a C-C bond comprised of the following molecular orbitals? \[\begin{array} { c c c }
s p ^ { 3 } - s p ^ { 3 } & s p ^ { 2 } - s p ^ { 2 } & s p - s p \\ \text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } \end{array}\]
A) I > III > II
B) I > II > III
C) III > II > I
D) II > III > I
Answer: B
Q2) What is the ground-state electronic configuration of a fluorine atom?
A) 1s<sup>2</sup>, 2s<sup>2</sup>, 2p<sup>2</sup>
B) 1s<sup>2</sup>, 2s<sup>2</sup>, 2p<sup>3</sup>
C) 1s<sup>2</sup>, 2s<sup>2</sup>, 2p<sup>4</sup>
D) 1s<sup>2</sup>, 2s<sup>2</sup>, 2p<sup>5</sup>
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Acids and Bases
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Q1) Which of the following concepts can be used to explain the difference in acidity between acetic acid (CH<sub>3</sub>COOH) and ethanol (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH)?
A) Hybridization
B) Electronegativity
C) Resonance
D) Size
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest base?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
C) NH<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements about acid strength is true?
A) The stronger the acid, the further the equilibrium lies to the left.
B) The stronger the acid, the smaller the K<sub>a</sub>.
C) The stronger the acid, the larger the pK<sub>a</sub>.
D) The stronger the acid, the smaller the pK<sub>a</sub>.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups
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Q1) What intermolecular force is generally considered the weakest?
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) London dispersion forces
C) Dipole-dipole
D) Ion-ion
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following molecules are aliphatic hydrocarbons? \[\begin{array} { c c
c c }
\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } & \mathrm {
CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OCH } _ { 3 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) I, II, III
B) I and III
C) II, III, IV
D) II and IV
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Alkanes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the conformations of acyclic alkanes is true?
A) Conformations are the same arrangements of atoms that cannot be interconverted by rotation about single bonds.
B) In the eclipsed conformation, the C-H bonds on one carbon bisect the H-C-H bond angle on the adjacent carbon.
C) In the staggered conformation, the C-H bonds on one carbon are directly aligned with the C-H bonds on the adjacent carbon.
D) Rotating the atoms on one carbon by 60° converts an eclipsed conformation into a staggered conformation, and vice versa.
Q2) Which of the following compounds has only primary, secondary and quaternary carbon atoms?
A) Pentane
B) 2-Methylpentane
C) 2,2-Dimethylpentane
D) 2,2,3-Trimethylpentane
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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct definition for a pair of enantiomers?
A) A pair of stereoisomers that have a plane of symmetry.
B) A pair of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other.
C) A pair of stereoisomers that are not superimposable mirror images of each other.
D) A pair of stereoisomers that are superimposable mirror images of each other.
Q2) How many isomers (constitutional and stereoisomers) exist for dimethylcyclobutane?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) A natural product was isolated in the laboratory, and its observed rotation was +10° when measured in a 1 dm sample tube containing 1.0 g of compound in 10 mL of H<sub>2</sub>O. What is the specific rotation of this compound?
A) -10°
B) +100°
C) +10°
D) -100°
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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Bond breaking is endothermic.
B) The bond dissociation energy for bond breaking is always negative.
C) Bond making is exothermic.
D) The bond dissociation energy for bond formation is always negative.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Fast reactions have small rate constants.
B) Slow reactions have large rate constants.
C) A rate equation contains concentration terms for all reactants involved in a one-step mechanism.
D) A rate equation contains concentration terms for all the reactants involved in a multi-step reaction.
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) "Two reactions can have identical values for \(\Delta\)H° but very different E<sub>a</sub> values."
B) "The larger the activation energy, the slower the reaction."
C) "\(\Delta\)H° determines the height of the energy barrier."
D) "The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction."
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8
Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution
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Q1) Which of the following is the most nucleophilic?
A) CH<sub>4</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>O
C) NH<sub>3</sub>
D) HF
Q2) Rank the following in order of increasing nucleophilicity, putting the least nucleophilic first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c }
\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { O } ^ { - } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm {~S} ^ { - } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { SH }
\\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }
\end{array}\]
A) II < IV < I < III
B) IV < III < II < I
C) III < IV < I < II
D) II < I < IV < III
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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?
A) It is a two-step process and has the same first step as an S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
B) It involves the formation of a carbocation from eliminating a good leaving group.
C) A common competing reaction is rearrangement of a less stable carbocation to a more stable carbocation.
D) The loss of a proton by the carbocation is a slow step.
Q2) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is true?
A) The identity of the leaving group affects the rate of reaction.
B) The reaction follows second-order kinetics.
C) The reaction is slowest with tertiary substrates.
D) Polar aprotic solvents favor the E1 mechanism.
Q3) Which of the following represents the rate law for an E2 reaction?
A) Rate = k[alkyl halide]
B) Rate = k[alkyl halide][base]
C) Rate = k[alkyl halide]<sup>2</sup>
D) Rate = k[base]<sup>2</sup>
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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the reaction of ethers with strong acids is true?
A) HCl, HBr and HI can all be used.
B) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>1 only.
C) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>2 only.
D) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>1 and S<sub>N</sub>2.
Q2) Which of the following explains why epoxides are much more reactive than ethers?
A) The C-O-C bond angle of an epoxide is 109°, making epoxides have angle strain.
B) The oxygen atom of an epoxide is sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized.
C) The C-O-C bond angle of an epoxide is 120°, making epoxides have angle strain.
D) The C-O-C bond angle of an epoxide is 60°, making epoxides have angle strain.
Q3) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?
A) Sodium methoxide and tert-butyl bromide.
B) Sodium tert-butoxide and iodomethane.
C) Methanol and tert-butyl alcohol in the presence of KOH.
D) Iodomethane and tert-butyl bromide in the presence of KOH.
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Chapter 10: Alkenes
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Q1) Calculate the degree of unsaturation for a molecule with molecular formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>9</sub>N.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q2) In which of the following alkene addition reactions will carbocation rearrangements occur?
A) Addition of Br<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
B) Addition of Br<sub>2</sub>
C) Addition of Cl<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
D) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O in the presence of H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
Q3) Rearrangements can occur in which of the following reactions?
A) Addition of Cl<sub>2</sub> to an alkene.
B) Addition of HOBr to an alkene.
C) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O/H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> to an alkene.
D) None of the above.
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Chapter 11: Alkynes
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Q1) Which of the following about the physical properties of alkynes is not true?
A) Alkynes have low melting and boiling points.
B) Melting and boiling points increase as the number of carbons increases.
C) Alkynes are soluble in organic solvents.
D) Alkynes are soluble in water.
Q2) How many \(\sigma\) bonds and \(\pi\) bonds are present in a triple bond?
A) One \(\sigma\) bond and one \(\pi\) bond.
B) One \(\sigma\) bond and two \(\pi\) bonds.
C) Two \(\sigma\) bonds and one \(\pi\) bond.
D) Two \(\sigma\) bonds and two \(\pi\) bonds.
Q3) In the addition of HBr to 1-butyne, the nucleophile in the first step of the mechanism is:
A) The Csp-H1s bond of 1-butyne.
B) The C-C triple bond of 1-butyne.
C) The H atom in HBr.
D) The Br ion.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) Which of the following classes of organic compounds cannot undergo reduction easily?
A) Alkanes
B) Alkenes
C) Alkynes
D) Carboxylic acids
Q2) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium? CH<sub>3</sub>Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>Li + LiCl
A) Oxidized
B) Reduced
C) Oxidized and Reduced
D) Neither oxidized nor reduced
Q3) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?
A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.
B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.
C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.
D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.
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14
Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has molecular ion peaks in its mass spectrum at mass 170 and 172, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3150-3000 and 1600 cm<sup>-1</sup>?
A) The compound is not pure.
B) The compound contains a halogen.
C) The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds.
D) Both A (The compound is not pure) and B (The compound contains a halogen) are true statements.
E) Both A (The compound is not pure) and C (The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.
Q2) Which of the following information is primarily obtained from an IR spectrum?
A) Conjugated \(\pi\) system present in a compound.
B) Functional groups present in a compound.
C) Molecular weight of a compound.
D) The carbon and hydrogen framework of a compound.
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Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
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Q1) What region of the electromagnetic spectrum does nuclear magnet resonance spectroscopy use?
A) Radio frequency
B) Microwave frequency
C) Infrared frequency
D) Visible frequency
E) Ultraviolet frequency
Q2) Which of the following spectroscopy methods does not involve the interaction of organic molecules with electromagnetic radiation?
A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B) Infrared spectroscopy
C) Mass spectroscopy
D) Ultraviolet spectroscopy
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?
A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.
B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.
C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.
E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.
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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about radical reactions is not true?
A) Light or heat provides the energy needed for homolytic bond cleavage to form radicals.
B) Breaking the weak O-O bond of peroxides initiates radical reactions.
C) The diradical O<sub>2</sub> removes radicals from a reaction mixture.
D) Radicals rearrange.
Q2) Which of the following statements is (are) true about free radical halogenation of alkanes?
A) The first of the chain-propagating steps is rate-determining.
B) The reaction proceeds by way of a flat sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized free radical.
C) The chain-initiating step involves cleavage of a carbon-hydrogen bond to afford a carbon radical and a hydrogen atom.
D) Statements (The first of the chain-propagating steps is rate-determining) and (The reaction proceeds by way of a flat sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized free radical) are both true.
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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the Diels-Alder reaction is true?
A) The diene can react only when it adopts the s-trans conformation.
B) Electron-withdrawing substituents in the diene increase reaction rate.
C) Electron-donating substituents in the dienophile increase the reaction rate.
D) The stereochemistry of the dienophile is retained in the product.
Q2) Which of the following is not a feature of the Diels-Alder reaction?
A) They are initiated by peroxides.
B) They form new six-membered rings.
C) Three pi bonds break.
D) They are concerted.
Q3) Which of the following statements about kinetic vs. thermodynamic products is true?
A) The product that is formed faster is the thermodynamic product.
B) The kinetic product predominates at low temperature.
C) The product that predominates at equilibrium is the kinetic product.
D) The thermodynamic product is less stable.
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18
Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the molecular orbital (MO) theory is true?
A) When two p orbitals of similar phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is formed.
B) When two p orbitals of opposite phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is formed.
C) A \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.
D) A \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.
Q2) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?
A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.
B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.
C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.
D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.
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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution
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Q1) What is the electrophile in aromatic nitration?
A) NO<sup>+</sup>
B) NO<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
C) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
D) NO<sub>2</sub>H
Q2) Rank the following deactivating groups in order of increasing deactivating strength, listing the least deactivating first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } - \mathrm { COOH } & - \mathrm { CHO } & - \mathrm { SO } _ { 3 } \mathrm { H } &\mathrm { NO } _ { 2 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) I < II < III < IV
B) II < III < IV < I
C) II < I < III < IV
D) IV < III < I < II
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H
Bond
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Q1) What would happen if a mixture of benzoic acid and cyclohexanol dissolved in CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> is treated with aqueous NaOH solution?
A) Benzoic acid would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer, and cyclohexanol would dissolve in the aqueous layer.
B) Benzoic acid would dissolve in the aqueous layer while cyclohexanol would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer.
C) The salt of benzoic acid would dissolve in the aqueous layer while cyclohexanol would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer.
D) The salt of benzoic acid would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer while cyclohexanol would dissolve in the aqueous layer.
Q2) What is the overall charge of the amino acid, alanine, at pH = 7?
A) + 1
B) - 1
C) No overall charge
D) + 2
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;
Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) Which reagent can be used to reduce the alkene in cyclopentenone?
A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>
B) LiAlH<sub>4</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub> and Pd-C
D) DIBAL-H
Q2) A carbonyl group, C=O, and an alkene, C=C, double bonds, are both sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized. However, the chemistry of these two functional groups is very different. This can be explained by which of the following statements?
A) The bond angle of the carbonyl is larger than the bond angle of the alkene.
B) The electronegative oxygen of the C=O group makes this bond polar.
C) The bond of the C=C is longer that the bond of the C=O.
D) There is more steric crowding in the carbonyl than in the alkene.
Q3) What reagent would be used to reduce an amide to an amine?
A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>
B) LiAlH(OtBu)<sub>3</sub>
C) LiAlH<sub>4</sub>
D) FeCl<sub>3</sub>
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition
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Q1) What is the driving force for the Wittig reaction?
A) The formation of an alkene
B) The deprotonation of a phosphonium salt
C) The elimination of triphenylphosphine oxide
D) The formation of a phosphonium salt
Q2) Why are strongly acidic conditions not used in the formation of enamines and imines?
A) The carbonyl will be protonated.
B) The amine will be completely protonated.
C) The product is not stable to strong acid.
D) An enol will be formed.
Q3) Why can't you use acidic conditions (such as aqueous hydrochloric acid) for the addition of a Grignard reagent to a ketone?
A) Because the Grignard reagent will react with the acid and be quenched.
B) Because the ketone will be protonated and thus unreactive.
C) Because the ketone will form an unreactive enol.
D) Because the Grignard reagent won't dissolve in aqueous solutions.
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Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives
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Q1) How can you convert a carboxylic acid into an acid chloride?
A) Heat with hydrochloric acid
B) React with thionyl chloride (SOCl<sub>2</sub>)
C) React with sodium chloride
D) React with Cl<sub>2</sub> and FeCl<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Why is an amide less reactive to nucleophilic acyl substitution than an acid chloride?
A) Nitrogen is a better leaving group.
B) Chloride is a better leaving group.
C) Nitrogen donates more electron density into the carbonyl.
D) The amide anion is less basic.
Q3) Where is the carbonyl absorption found in the IR spectrum of a simple ester?
A) 2.5 ppm
B) 2250 cm<sup>-1</sup>
C) 3800 cm<sup>-1</sup>
D) 1740 cm<sup>-1</sup>
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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl
Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon
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Q1) Why is it difficult to stop the halogenation of ketones under basic conditions at the mono-halogenated stage?
A) The ketone undergoes a Bayer-Villigar oxidation.
B) The ketone is reduced.
C) The ketone undergoes an Aldol reaction.
D) The bromine helps to stabilize the second enolate, making the product more acidic than the starting material.
Q2) If you want to form a kinetic enolate, you want to:
A) Use a strong, non-nucleophilic base such as LDA.
B) Use a protic solvent.
C) Use a low temperature.
D) Both use a strong, non-nucleophilic base such as LDA and use a low temperature.
Q3) What are the three steps in the malonic ester synthesis?
A) Deprotonation, alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation
B) Hydrogenation, alkylation, deprotonation
C) Alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation. hydrogenation
D) Hydrolysis/decarboxylation, deprotonation, alkylation
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions
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Q1) What reaction type is an Aldol reaction?
A) nucleophilic substitution
B) electrophilic substitution
C) electrophilic addition
D) nucleophilic addition
Q2) What is the general name of the product of a crossed Claisen reaction between a ketone and an ester?
A) "\(\beta\)-keto ester"
B) "\(\alpha\),\(\beta\)-dicarbonyl compound"
C) "\(\gamma\)-dicarbonyl compound"
D) "\(\beta\)-dicarbonyl compound"
Q3) What are the names for the two parts of the mechanism in a Robinson annulation?
A) Michael addition and intramolecular Claisen reaction
B) Michael addition and intramolecular aldol reaction
C) Claisen reaction and intramolecular aldol reaction
D) Aldol reaction and intramolecular Claisen reaction
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Chapter 25: Amines
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Q1) Why is the N-H bond of an imide especially acidic?
A) The conjugate base is stabilized by electron-donating inductive effect.
B) The conjugate base is stabilized by resonance.
C) The conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.
D) The conjugate base is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides cannot be used to prepare primary amines by the Gabriel synthesis?
A) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
B) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
C) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
D) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
Q3) Why are 1°, 2°, and 3° alkylamines more basic than ammonia (NH<sub>3</sub>)?
A) Because of the electron-withdrawing inductive effect of the alkyl groups.
B) Because of the steric hindrance of the alkyl groups.
C) Because of the resonance delocalization of the alkyl groups.
D) Because of electron-donating inductive effect of the alkyl groups.
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Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes a reaction yielding a dichorocarbene?
A) The reaction of chloroform with KOC(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
B) The reaction of chloroform with Zn(Cu).
C) The reaction of chloroform with (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CuLi.
D) The reaction of diazomethane with KOC(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
Q2) Why is the Grubbs catalyst synthetically important?
A) Because it only requires dilute concentrations of the reactants.
B) Because it produces only stereospecific products.
C) Because it produces only stereoselective products.
D) Because it provides a synthetic pathway for ring-closing metathesis reactions.
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true about the Simmons-Smith reaction?
A) The Simmons-Smith reaction involves the formation of a free carbene.
B) The Simmons-Smith reaction uses the reagents zinc-copper couple.
C) The Simmons-Smith reaction is stereospecific.
D) The Simmons-Smith reaction involves CH<sub>2</sub>I<sub>2</sub> reacting with a copper-activated zinc reagent.
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28
Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about thermal electrocyclic reactions is not true?
A) The number of \(\sigma\) bonds in the conjugated polyene determines whether rotation is conrotatory or disrotatory.
B) Thermal electrocyclic reactions occur in a disrotatory fashion for a conjugated polyene with an odd number of \(\pi\) bonds.
C) Thermal electrocyclic reactions occur in a conrotatory fashion for a conjugated polyene with an even number of \(\pi\) bonds.
D) In thermal reactions, we consider the orbitals of the HOMO of the ground state electronic configuration to determine the course of the reaction.
Q2) How many \(\pi\) molecular orbitals are present in 1,3,5,7,9-decapentaene?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12
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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates
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Q1) The branching units in amylopectin, a polysaccharide, which enable this molecule to be water soluble are connected with __________________________ linkages.
A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
C) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
D) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
Q2) From the disaccharides listed below, which one will not undergo mutarotation?
A) sucrose
B) maltose
C) lactose
D) xylobiose
Q3) Upon hydrolysis of amylopectin, what sugar is formed?
A) sucrose
B) maltose
C) lactose
D) glucose
Q4) Does a monosaccharide prefer to exist in the open-chain or closed-ring form?
A) open
B) closed
C) Both forms exist in equal ratios.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Q1) Why do amide bonds exist as reasonably stable s-cis or s-trans isomers at room temperature?
A) These amide bonds are not stable.
B) There is partial double bond character between the carbonyl carbon and the nitrogen atom.
C) The oxygen atom is hydrogen-bonded with the nitrogen atom.
D) The side-chains can form hydrogen bonds.
Q2) Which of the following amino acids is achiral?
A) phenylalanine
B) glycine
C) valine
D) alanine
Q3) Why does the formation of salts of a racemic mixture of N-acetyl valine with a single enantiomer of \(\alpha\)-methylbenzylamine enable the separation of the two enantiomers of N-acetyl valine?
A) They form amides.
B) They form diastereomers.
C) They form salts.
D) They form meso compounds.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Lipids
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Q1) How can an unsaturated fatty acid be converted into a saturated fatty acid?
A) hydrogenation
B) hydration
C) ozonolysis
D) hydrolysis
Q2) Which of the following fatty acids has the highest melting point?
A) palmitic acid
B) arachidic acid
C) stearic acid
D) lauric acid
Q3) Liquid oils usually have a higher percentage of what component compared to solid fats?
A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) unsaturation
D) aromatic rings
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers
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Q1) What is the purpose of plasticizers?
A) to harden plastics
B) to soften plastics
C) to initiate polymerizations
D) to cross-link polymer chains
Q2) Which of the following initiators can be used for free radical chain-growth polymerization?
A) benzoyl peroxide
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Li
C) BF<sub>3</sub>
D) Al(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>, TiCl<sub>4</sub>
Q3) Which of the following is (are) addition polymer(s)? I. polypropylene
II) Teflon
III) nylon
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) Both I and II
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