Oral Radiology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Oral Radiology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices of radiology as applied to dentistry. The course covers the physics of radiation, the techniques and interpretation of intraoral and extraoral imaging, radiation safety, and the accurate identification of normal and pathological radiographic features. Students will develop competence in operating radiographic equipment, processing digital and traditional images, diagnosing oral diseases, and applying infection control procedures. Emphasis is placed on understanding imaging anatomy, recognizing common radiographic errors, and integrating radiology findings into overall patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) Identify the metal used in the focal spot of the x-ray tube:
A)tungsten
B)molybdenum
C)copper
D)iron
Answer: A
Q2) The target or focal spot in the x-ray tube can be found at the:
A)positively charged cathode
B)positively charged anode
C)negatively charged cathode
D)negatively charged anode
Answer: B
Q3) The quality of the x-ray photons is determined by the __________.
Answer: kilovoltage
Q4) All of the following are properties of x-rays EXCEPT:
A)x-rays are invisible
B)x-rays travel in wavy lines
C)x-rays can penetrate structures
D)x-rays can adversely affect human tissue
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) The most common cause of lack of detail on a radiograph is __________.
Answer: patient movement
Q2) The best way to view radiographs is:
A)unmounted
B)on a viewbox
C)using ambient light
D)in the darkroom
Answer: B
Q3) Penumbra can be described as:
A)definition
B)detail
C)blurring
D)sharpness
Answer: C
Q4) All of the following will keep the penumbra as small as possible EXCEPT:
A)small focal spot
B)small OFD
C)angulation of the target
D)decreased FFD
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main advantage of intensifying screens is:
A)quicker developing
B)less radiation to the patient
C)easier to prepare the cassette
D)better image definition
Q2) Duplicating film:
A)necessitates the use of x-ray photons for exposure
B)does not need safelight conditions
C)has emulsion on both sides
D)has a direct positive emulsion
Q3) Film speed is determined by:
A)the thickness of the emulsion
B)the presence of radiosensitive dyes
C)the size of the silver halide crystals
D)all of the above
Q4) Identify the fastest film speed currently available for intraoral radiography: A)B
B)C
C)E
D)F
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) A tissue that lies within the primary dental beam and is very radiosensitive is the ________.
Q2) Radiation damage to somatic cells is ________ passed on to succeeding generations.
Q3) The single largest contributor to background radiation is:
A)medical and dental radiation
B)radon
C)cosmic radiation
D)nuclear plants
E)soil
Q4) A tissue that is near the primary beam and receives a lot of secondary radiation is the _________.
Q5) Identify the time between exposure to ionizing radiation and the appearance of clinical symptoms:
A)latent period
B)short-term effect
C)somatic effect
D)genetic effect
Q6) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q7) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) An area in which a secretary sits constantly that is adjacent to a dental operatory where radiographs are taken is said to have an occupancy factor of:
A)8 hours
B)1
C)1/4
D)1/16
E)5 days
Q2) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 \(\frac {3} {4} \) inches at the skin
C)3 \(\frac {1} {2} \)inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q3) Identify the radiographic technique that provides less radiation exposure to the thyroid gland and eyes:
A)paralleling technique
B)bisecting angle technique
C)bite block technique
D)all of the above provide a lower radiation dose to the thyroid gland and eyes
Q4) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q2) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q3) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concentrated solution that is added to the processing solutions to compensate for oxidation and loss of solution volume is called:
A)acidifier
B)replenisher
C)hardener
D)oxidizer
Q2) If the silver halide crystals in the film emulsion are energized, more silver precipitates to give a _______ appearance on an image.
A)radiolucent
B)radiopaque
C)clear
D)light
Q3) The final washing step in manual processing typically lasts:
A)about 1 minute
B)about 5 minutes
C)8 to 10 minutes
D)about 20 minutes
Q4) A clear film can be caused by ______ or _______.
Q5) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) HBV and HBC are acronyms for types of the _________ virus.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false? Long-sleeved dental gowns:
A)need not be worn for the taking of radiographs
B)should be taken home to wash
C)can be worn when not in the dental office
D)all of the above
Q3) The steps of infection control are taken to benefit and protect:
A)ourselves
B)our fellow workers
C)our patients
D)all of the above
Q4) The process used to destroy all pathogens, including highly resistant bacteria and spores, is:
A)disinfection
B)autoclaving
C)sterilization
D)universal precautions
Q5) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
Q6) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
Page 10
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Cracks in the film emulsion brought about by excessive bending of a film will appear:
A)dark
B)light
C)clear
D)cracks in the emulsion have no effect on the processed image
Q2) Identify a desirable film placement to begin a full mouth radiographic survey:
A)maxillary central incisors
B)mandibular canine
C)maxillary molars
D)mandibular molars
Q3) Identify the film necessary to diagnose pathologic conditions of the tooth root:
A)bitewing
B)periapical
C)occlusal
D)skull
Q4) Reversing the film to the x-ray beam will cause ___________.
Q5) An overexposed film will appear similar to a (an)__________ film.
Q6) When the PID is not positioned so that it almost touches the patient's face, a ________ film will result.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Q1) A -5 degree vertical angulation for the lower incisors will produce a (an)________ image.
Q2) The topographic occlusal projection can be used for:
A)localizing impactions
B)evaluating periodontal bone height
C)visualizing large areas of pathology
D)detecting caries
Q3) The imaginary angle that is bisected with the use of the Bisecting Angle Technique is formed between the long axis of the tooth and:
A)the long axis of the PID
B)the horizontal axis of the film
C)the long axis of the film
D)the horizontal axis of the tube head
Q4) ____________________ exposure times can be used for the bisecting technique because of the shorter FFD.
Q5) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
Q6) When compared with periapical films, topographic occlusal films have a
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Q7) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large radiopacity is seen on the middle of the panoramic film. Identify the cause of this appearance:
A)patient was slouched in the unit
B)patient's lead apron was placed too high
C)patient moved during the exposure
D)patient's chin was tilted up too far
Q2) Another application of tomography used in dentistry is:
A)sialography
B)digital radiography
C)computed tomography (CT)scanning
D)transcranial radiography of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
Q3) Identify the error seen if a panoramic radiograph is exposed to the light from a cell phone during processing:
A)film will be darker
B)film will be lighter
C)film will be fogged
D)no change will be seen in the processed radiograph
Q4) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to
Q5) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) Identify the projection used in tomography as a scout film to determine condylar position:
A)posteroanterior
B)lateral oblique
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q2) Cassettes with intensifying screens are used in extraoral radiography to ________.
Q3) Identify the projection used to view the maxillary sinus and middle third of the face:
A)lateral oblique
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q4) Identify the projection used to view the sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses:
A)posteroanterior
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q5) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) Images that are opaque on an image obtained by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)have a _________ hydrogen density and a _________ signal.
Q2) Four views of the TMJ can be seen by:
A)MRI
B)CT
C)arthrography
D)the transcranial technique
Q3) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
Q4) _________ enables viewing of an area in three planes.
Q5) For the transcranial technique, the central ray is aimed _____ inches above and _____ inch in front of the external auditory meatus.
Q6) A conventional panoramic projection will show both the right and left joints in the:
A)lateral plane
B)axial plane
C)cross-sectional plane
D)frontal plane
Q7) In TMJ radiography it is preferable to take films in the __________ positions.
Q8) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
Page 15
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) One advantage of the storage phosphor technique is that the sensor:
A)is larger
B)is thicker
C)is slightly more flexible
D)is more sensitive to radiation
Q2) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
Q3) Identify the most critical part of a digital radiography system:
A)x-ray machine
B)digital sensor
C)laptop computer
D)monitor
Q4) To "process" a full-mouth survey and a panoramic image by the storage phosphor technique takes about:
A)5 minutes
B)10 seconds
C)2 minutes
D)1 minute
Q5) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Q6) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
Q7) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CT number for air is:
A)-1000
B)1000
C)0
D)500
Q2) CT scans are viewed in all of the following planes EXCEPT:
A)sagittal
B)axial
C)midsagittal
D)coronal
Q3) CBVT (CBCT)imaging may be utilized in dentistry for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A)evaluation of interproximal caries
B)implant treatment planning
C)oral pathologies
D)evaluation of impacted teeth
Q4) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Q5) With the film-screen system, __________ exposures are made to obtain the diagnostic information contained in one CT scan.
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Q6) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The powder capable of contaminating intraoral film is approximately ___% lead.
Q2) Fresh, full-strength fixer clears films in:
A)30 seconds
B)1 minute
C)2 to 3 minutes
D)10 minutes
Q3) QA programs for digital imaging include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)sensor cables should be carefully uncoiled each day
B)phosphor plates should be submerged in cold sterilizing solutions after each patient
C)the sensor and cable should not be clamped by a hemostat
D)the cable should be placed so that the operator chair does not roll over it
Q4) Inspections and calibration of x-ray machines include:
A)kilovoltage peak and milliamperage output
B)tubehead stability
C)accuracy of the timing device
D)all of the above
Q5) Maintaining high levels of ________ competence is the basis of any quality assurance program.
Q6) Processing solutions should be changed _________, depending on the workload.
Page 18
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) Identify the projection in which gagging occurs most often:
A)maxillary molar periapical
B)molar bitewing
C)maxillary canine periapical
D)mandibular premolar periapical
Q2) Identify a suitable extraoral substitute for the child who is unable to tolerate intraoral film placement:
A)skull
B)cephalometric
C)Waters' view
D)lateral oblique
Q3) Marking grids should not be confused with grids used to __________.
Q4) All of the following are synonymous with each other EXCEPT:
A)tube shift technique
B)Clark's rule
C)right angle localization
D)buccal-object rule
Q5) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q6) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) The V-shaped structure seen in the mandibular incisor area is the:
A)mylohyoid ridge
B)internal oblique ridge
C)external oblique ridge
D)mental ridge
Q2) The broad radiolucent band seen just below the internal oblique ridge is the
Q3) On intraoral radiographs, when the patient's right is on your left, this is called:
A)labial mounting
B)neutral mounting
C)cross mounting
D)lingual mounting
Q4) Mandibular landmarks visible on panoramic radiographs include:
A)mandibular condyle
B)condylar neck
C)sigmoid notch
D)all of the above
Q5) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
Q6) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of
20
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
Q2) ___________________ are located in specific areas of the oral cavity and are well within normal limits.
Q3) If a lesion is not seen in three planes:
A)the operator should dismiss the patient
B)no advanced imaging is needed
C)the operator should reschedule the patient's appointment
D)further imaging is needed
Q4) Rapidly growing lesions without distinct borders are usually:
A)cysts
B)benign
C)malignant
D)not cause for concern
Q5) Edentulous areas:
A)cannot be radiographed
B)should be radiographed
C)should not be radiographed
D)may sometimes be radiographed
Q6) ____% of all pathologic conditions seen in the jaws are the result of nonvital teeth and their sequela.
21
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) An example of caries that is almost never seen on radiographs is:
A)incisal
B)interproximal
C)lingual
D)incipient
Q2) Resorption that occurs in a plane parallel to the cementoenamel junctions on adjoining teeth describes:
A)vertical bone loss
B)horizontal bone loss
C)infrabony pocket
D)all of the above
Q3) Bitewing radiographs that have incorrect horizontal angulations will make interproximal caries detection:
A)easier
B)difficult
C)almost impossible
D)none of the above
Q4) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
Q5) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
Q6) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Identify the radiographic sign of pulpitis in the pulp chamber:
A)the presence of additional pulp denticles
B)widened lamina dura
C)no radiographic changes are seen
D)changes in alveolar bone
Q2) Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
A)root fracture
B)tooth movement
C)pulpal necrosis
D)all of the above
Q3) The first detectable radiographic sign of periapical pathology is:
A)hypercementosis
B)loss of the lamina dura
C)disruption of the lamina dura
D)thickening of the periodontal ligament
Q4) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q5) Periapical cemental osseous dysplasia is a three-stage lesion that is _________ and self-limiting, and for which no treatment is indicated.
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Q6) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) Radiographically in fusion we see:
A)two pulp canals
B)calcified canals
C)one pulp canal
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following condition(s)are hereditary disturbances?
A)fusion
B)amelogenesis imperfecta
C)dentinogenesis imperfecta
D)b and c
Q3) An S-shaped root condition is referred to as ______________.
Q4) A supernumerary tooth in the midline is referred to as a (an):
A)odontoform
B)mesiodens
C)enamel pearl
D)taurodont
Q5) Impacted teeth can be localized in their mesiodistal position by periapical, ___________, or lateral oblique films.
Q6) When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, __________ is present. Page 24
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) A malignant lesion will usually have an ____________ border.
Q2) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
Q3) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Q4) Implants will appear _____________ on radiographs.
Q5) A slowly growing periapical cyst will have as its borders a ___________.
Q6) Fractures of the mandible will:
A)not be seen on periapical films
B)appear as radiopaque lines
C)appear as radiolucent lines
D)not be seen during the first 24 hours
Q7) An osteoma, demonstrating an increase in the density of the bone, would appear:
A)radiolucent
B)radiopaque
C)mixed lesion
D)none of the above
Q8) A malignant tumor of bone will appear _________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) If a patient refuses a recommended radiographic examination:
A)dental procedures should go on as planned
B)the patient should sign a release form
C)it should be entered into the patient record and treatment should not be performed
D)the patient should be asked to leave the practice
Q2) Dental radiographs of adult patients should be kept in the office for:
A)2 years
B)4 years
C)6 months
D)7 years
Q3) Radiographs belong to the ___________.
Q4) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
Q5) Identify the most important legal aspect of dental radiology:
A)risk management
B)liability
C)licensure
D)quality assurance
Q6) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
Q7) The third party payers should not request _________ from the dentist.
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