Oral Health Promotion Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Oral Health Promotion explores the principles and practices of preventing oral diseases and improving oral health at both individual and community levels. The course covers strategies for educating diverse populations, analyzing behaviors that impact oral health, and implementing evidence-based interventions in various settings. Students will examine risk factors, health disparities, and social determinants of oral health, while learning to design and evaluate effective oral health promotion programs. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration, communication skills, and cultural competency to enhance outreach and advocate for healthy policies within the broader context of public health.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an administrator or manager not doing when referring to dental hygiene?
A) Planning
B) Staffing
C) Financial work
D) Directing
Answer: C
Q2) What occurs when individuals with differing strengths and areas of expertise work together as equal partners to achieve better outcomes than each would achieve working alone?
A) Implementation
B) Collaboration
C) Determination
D) Concentration
Answer: B
Q3) The dental hygienist must be _____ in the jurisdiction in which they practice.
A) licensed
B) certified
C) accredited
D) educated
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the signs and symptoms of a deficit in skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck.
A) Gingival inflammation
B) Bleeding on probing
C) Probing depths greater than 4 mm
D) Anemia
E) Xerostomia
F) Clinical attachment loss greater than 4 mm
G) Tinnitus
H) Extraoral tenderness or swelling
Answer: A, B, C, F, H
Q2) Which type of medications helps meet the human need for a biologically sound dentition?
A) Fluoride
B) NSAIDs
C) Penicillamine
D) Cyclosporine
E) Antimalarials
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first step in the EBDM process is:
A) finding the best evidence.
B) applying the results to client care.
C) asking a good clinical question.
D) evaluating the results.
E) critically appraising the evidence.
Answer: C
Q2) EBDM is now possible due primarily to which factor(s)?
A) Scientific databases
B) Computer access
C) Information explosion
D) Both a and b
E) Both a and c
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of community-centered organization include the following aims except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Strengthening community ability to take action
B) Longevity and self-sustainability of healthy environments
C) Building capacity within the community
D) Codependency between the community and healthcare providers
E) Development of skills and abilities of groups of people
Q2) George Prince is asked to be a spokesperson for the event because he is a well-known former National Football League player. Karen's choice to ask him is based on which concept?
A) Directive announcements
B) Official enforcement
C) Social marketing
D) Popular vote
E) Personal entitlement
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although perceptions are formed based on past experience, they are easily changed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interpersonal communication is never _________________ but rather is a ________________, ongoing process.
Q3) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q4) The CARE principle identifies _____, _____, _____, and _____ as important aspects of effective dental hygienist-client helping relationships. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q5) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q6) The Zones of touch are _________________ and _______________________.
Q7) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q8) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True B)False Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is standing beside her child in the dental office. The child is experiencing a terrible toothache. The mother is crying. She wants to know why God is doing this to her child. What would be the best response of the care provider?
A) Explain to her that God has nothing to do with the cause of this toothache.
B) Explain to her that she is making the child anxious.
C) Listen actively and allow her to express her feelings.
D) Do not pay too much attention to her crying, but focus on the child and try to examine the cause of the toothache.
Q2) Statement 1: Ethnic identity describes the common cultural, historic, and geographic experiences of a group. Statement 2: Individuals of a group who share an ethnic identity also share the same attitude, interests, and dialects.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
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9
Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) Copyright is the legal protection for authors and creators of original works, including writing, composing, graphic and visual arts, and architectural and industrial designs, from others copying their work. Copyright prohibits all forms or replication or copying.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) A portfolio required by a state licensing board would most likely be a:
A) working portfolio.
B) best work portfolio.
C) professional development portfolio.
D) curriculum vitae.
Q3) A dental hygiene student portfolio has limited use after graduating from the dental hygiene program. The primary purpose of the dental hygiene professional portfolio is to document professional development courses.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Today, there are a variety of operator stools for the dental hygienist to choose from based on his or her preference; however, the dental hygienist should keep ergonomic support in mind. Which three items are associated with operator stool and ergonomic support?
A) Support the lumbar region of the back
B) Should be able to recline back 180 degrees for comfort
C) Should not contain wheels because they can lead to injuries
D) Should allow for operator's feet to be flat on the floor
E) Easily adjustable
Q2) The dental laboratory is a well-ventilated are a. It is where dental work directly performed on the client takes place.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Most treatment areas have which of the following pieces of equipment:
A) storage cabinets
B) computers for scheduling
C) sink
D) alcohol hand rub
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modes of transmission most effectively transmits hepatitis B and HIV?
A) Airborne
B) Direct contact
C) Droplet
D) Bloodborne
E) All of the above
Q2) Which types of procedures may be restricted for a DHCP who is hepatitis B e-antigen positive?
A) None
B) Major oral or maxillofacial surgery
C) All invasive procedures
D) All periodontal procedures
Q3) If a client is suspected of having clinically active tuberculosis, the dental healthcare provider should first:
A) proceed with treatment as planned.
B) wear a particulate respirator during treatment.
C) defer treatment and refer the client for medical evaluation.
D) treat the client in a tuberculosis isolation room.
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The head tilt-chin lift technique is the most important step in maintaining an open airway for rescue breaths because a blocked airway can be cleared with this technique.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which of the following are signs of a client with moderate anxiety?
A) Cold sweaty palms
B) Pallor
C) Unnaturally stiff posture
D) White-knuckle syndrome
E) Xerostomia
F) Slow responses
G) History of emergency dental care only
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q2) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q3) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q4) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Q5) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Q6) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physician consultation can be completed by all the following methods except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Telephone contact
B) By faxing documents
C) Asking client what information was provided by physician
D) Written request for information
Q2) Which of the following questions are inappropriate when questioning the client about antibiotic prophylaxis?
A) What antibiotic was taken?
B) What dose was taken?
C) How long ago was the antibiotic taken?
D) Did insurance cover the cost of the antibiotic?
Q3) What ASA risk classification is appropriate for the client who has a history of myocardial infarction but who can meet a 10 metabolic equivalent (MET) functional capacity?
A) ASA I
B) ASA II
C) ASA III
D) ASA IV
E) ASA V
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Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a normal blood pressure reading for an adult?
A) <80/>150
B) >95/<120
C) <120/>80
D) <120/<80
Q2) The Korotkoff sounds are associated with which vital sign?
A) Pulse
B) Respiration
C) Temperature
D) Blood pressure
Q3) An abnormally elevated heart rate is known as:
A) Bradypnea
B) Bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Hypertension
Q4) When vital signs are taken at the first office visit, the term used for these readings is:
A) baseline.
B) Korotkoff.
C) consultation.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances are glycoproteins that provide lubrication to protect the oral mucous membranes from injury, ulceration, and toxins?
A) Mucins
B) Urea
C) Immunoglobulin A
D) Lactoferrin
Q2) Which variable is used to determine pediatric drug dosage?
A) Age
B) Height
C) Weight
D) Total body surface area
Q3) A drug that alters the pH of the stomach alters which aspect of pharmacokinetics of a second administered drug?
A) Absorption
B) Distribution
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion
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17
Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is necessary for an effective extraoral assessment by a dental hygienist of a client in a dental office setting?
A) Subdued lighting
B) Supine patient
C) Upright patient
D) Tight tie
Q2) The small bulge of tissue at the most anterior part of the hard palate, located lingual to the anterior teeth is the:
A) palatine rugae.
B) median palatine raphe.
C) incisive papilla.
D) greater palatine foramen.
Q3) The earliest form of oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is termed:
A) invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
B) dysplastic tissue.
C) carcinoma in situ.
D) basal cell carcinoma.
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the eruption period for the maxillary first permanent premolar?
A) 7 to 8 years
B) 8 to 9 years
C) 10 to 11 years
D) 12 to 13 years
Q2) What facial profile is associated when the maxillary central incisors are upright or retruded, and lateral incisors are tipped labially?
A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Retrognathic with lip incompetence
D) Mesognathic
Q3) There are several ways clients may lose tooth structure. Which of the following describes the term abfraction?
A) Loss due to chemical agents from acid reflux disease
B) Loss as a result of tooth-to-tooth wear through bruxism
C) Loss caused by a foreign substance such as traumatic toothbrushing
D) Loss as a result of cervical stress at the cementoenamel junction
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a need for knowledge about effective control of oral biofilm because a high percentage of the population exhibits some type of periodontal disease.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Plaque biofilm is a complex community of self-sustaining microorganisms. Which of the following are characteristic of oral biofilm? Select all that apply.
A) Resistant to essential oils
B) Bacteria in biofilm relocate to state a new community
C) Transparent, mineralized mass of bacterial colonies
D) Composed of loosely attached and unattached, free-flowing bacteria
Q3) Which of the following bacteria is not associated with a healthy periodontium?
A) Streptococcus oralis
B) Actinomyces sp.
C) Treponema
D) Streptococcus mitis
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select all of the caries risk factors.
A) Medium or high Streptococcus mutans count
B) Medium to high Lactobacillus count
C) Moderate plaque deposits on teeth
D) Saliva flow greater than 1 mL/min stimulated
E) Exposed roots
F) Deep pits and fissures
G) Frequent snack use greater than 3 times a day
Q2) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
Q3) All of the following factors are protective factors for children 0 to 5 years of age except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Mother or caregiver who uses xylitol mints or gum 4 to 5 times daily
B) Mother or caregiver who has no more than one carious lesion
C) Residence in a fluoridated water community
D) Dental examination for a child with oral hygiene instruction for the parent
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications has a beneficial effect on the periodontium?
A) Phenytoin
B) Nifedipine
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tetracycline
Q2) Which probe would be best for assessing furcation involvement?
A) Marquis
B) Nabers
C) Williams
D) UNC 15
Q3) All of the following conditions can be observed on radiographs except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Status of the lamina dura
B) Tooth crown to root ratio
C) Height of the facial boney plate
D) Changes in the PDL space
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Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with uncontrolled or poorly controlled diabetes mellitus:
A) have high levels of glucose in the blood.
B) are more susceptible to infections.
C) have more severe periodontitis compared with diabetics whose condition is medically well controlled.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Ventilator-associated pneumonias:
A) occur most often in patients receiving care in an intensive care unit (ICU) for prolonged hospital care.
B) occur when the breathing tube becomes colonized by microorganisms from the mouth and oropharynx.
C) can be reduced by performing oral hygiene procedures on ICU patients.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Ischemic strokes are caused by a sudden:
A) blockage of the airway.
B) overstimulation of peripheral nerves.
C) interruption of the brain's blood supply.
D) interruption of the cardiac blood supply.
E) hemorrhage within and around the heart.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following describe what a dental hygiene diagnosis does within the process of care except:
A) provides a focus for professional care.
B) clarifies the scope of dental hygiene practice.
C) clarifies what the client needs to do to promote and maintain oral health and wellness.
D) facilitates care planning and evaluation.
Q2) If a 3-year-old child has objective signs of early childhood caries and a history of still using a bottle with milk at night to go to sleep, what human need deficit does this child most likely have?
A) Biologically sound and functional dentition
B) Freedom from fear and stress
C) Freedom from pain
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck
Q3) All of the following describe a characteristic of a dental hygiene diagnosis except:
A) focuses on client's conditions.
B) is derived from the data collected during assessment.
C) requires the signature of the dentist.
D) is necessary for planning and implementing dental hygiene care.
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk management strategy for healthcare providers is to maintain comprehensive documentation of services rendered to clients. Documentation may be limited to evidence of
Dental hygiene diagnosis, preventive, and treatment services implemented and evaluation of client outcomes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) The evaluation phase of the process of care is a critical component to the successful outcome of dental hygiene care. Therefore, evaluation strategies are applied during the implementation phase of care, at the completion of the dental hygiene care plan, and at the subsequent continued care visit to guide the client in achieving and maintaining desired outcomes of care.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toothbrushing techniques that require brush filament placement on an angle in relation to the teeth are more difficult for clients to achieve consistently. Effective toothbrushing is not easy for most clients, and this additional challenge can limit toothbrushing effectiveness and client motivation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Dental hygienists should recommend replacement of toothbrushes at 2 to 3 month intervals because toothbrush bristles that are worn have been shown to remove less plaque than bristles that are not worn.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices is contraindicated for type I embrasures?
A) Power flosser
B) Floss holder
C) Floss threader
D) Tufted dental floss
Q2) The hydrokinetic activity produced by a dental water jet produces a compression and decompression action. The compression action has which impact on the subgingival bacteria?
A) Moves bacteria around the pocket
B) Flushes bacteria out of the pocket
C) Dilutes the bacteria in the pocket
D) Increases concentration of bacteria
Q3) Tongue cleaners are most useful in improving which of the following oral conditions?
A) Caries
B) Gingivitis
C) Malodor
D) Bleeding
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Page 27
Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to scientific evidence, zinc compounds are effective to combat halitosis and volatile sulfur compounds (VSCs). According to scientific evidence, pyrophosphates are effective to combat halitosis and volatile sulphur compounds (VSCs).
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Pyrophosphates are therapeutic or medicinal agents that:
A) prevent dental caries.
B) prevent gingivitis.
C) reduce tooth sensitivity.
D) prevent tartar.
Q3) A new detergent is more and more present in which dentifrice?
A) Agar-agar
B) Sodium citrate
C) Cocamidopropyl betaine
D) Triclosan with copolymer
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage(s) of a standing position while scaling the mandibular arch are which of the following?
A) Leverage for applying pressure in calculus removal
B) Enhanced access to reaching to deep periodontally involved areas
C) Diminished static sitting positions
D) All of the above
Q2) A client presents with periodontal pockets in maxillary left posteriors with light to moderate burnished calculus along the distal line angles with slightly loose tissue. Which instrument would be the best instrument for calculus removal?
A) 13/14 Gracey curet
B) 13/14 Minibladed curet
C) 13/14 Extended shank curet
D) Universal curet
Q3) The general purpose of furcation instruments are the following except:
A) finish surfaces in narrow and inaccessible areas.
B) enhance tactile sensitivity.
C) remove light calculus deposits.
D) All of the above are purposes.
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hand-activated and mechanized instrumentation are equally effective in removing subgingival oral biofilm and dental calculus. The effort to remove endotoxin is also equal with hand-activated and mechanized instrumentation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) All of the following are true about activation of ultrasonic instruments except:
A) the working end is in motion at all times.
B) overlapping and multidirectional strokes are used.
C) excessive lateral pressure is used.
D) immediate clinical outcome from instrumentation is evaluated using the dental light, air, and a periodontal explorer.
E) movement on the tooth is in an elliptical pattern.
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of No. 11 and No. 12 will provide instrumentation challenges due to which of the following canine and first premolar features?
A) Inclined axial positioning of the maxillary canine and narrow premolar proximal surfaces
B) Ovoid maxillary canine root shape and cone-shaped premolar root
C) Prominent maxillary canine root concavities and prominent distal premolar root concavity
D) Long canine crown with a broad distal crest of curvature and short first premolar crown with a prominent mesial concavity
Q2) Dentinal hypersensitivity may occur as a result of the removal of cementum during root instrumentation. The goal of root instrumentation is to remove all cementum. A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indications for selective polishing include the presence of which of the following?
A) Slightly stained deposits of light supragingival calculus
B) Darkening of the enamel from pulpal necrosis
C) Light brown stain caused by cigarette smoking
D) Brown stain from excess fluoride during tooth development
Q2) All of the following are recommended during air polishing to increase safety of the procedure except:
A) high-speed evacuation.
B) preprocedural antimicrobial rinse.
C) mint-flavored powder.
D) removal of the client's contact lenses.
Q3) Prophylaxis pastes containing casein phosphopeptide-amorphous calcium phosphate (CPP-ACP) are contraindicated for use on people who have which of the following?
A) White spot lesions
B) Dentinal hypersensitivity
C) Allergy to casein
D) Lactose intolerance
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) Laser therapy may prove useful in NSPT in the future for which of the following?
A) Gingival curettage
B) Elimination of subgingival periodontal pathogens
C) Assisted periodontal debridement
D) Periodontal debridement therapy
E) Antimicrobial therapy
Q2) Periodontal debridement includes all of the following except removal of:
A) all clinically detectable plaque biofilm retentive factors.
B) detectable calculus and embedded cementum.
C) cementum or surface dentin that is rough.
D) all subgingival plaque biofilm and its byproducts, evidenced by signs of inflammation.
E) all clinically detectable plaque biofilm retentive factors on and adjacent to implants (calculus, possible cement).
Q3) How long should PM continue for a client?
A) One year after initial therapy
B) Five years after active therapy
C) Until periodontal attachment loss is halted
D) Until 1 to 2 mm of clinical attachment level is gained
E) For the life of the dentition or its implant replacements
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) chip?
A) Must be professionally removed
B) Marketed under the trade name Atridox
C) Suppresses bacteria for several weeks after release
D) Contraindicated for clients allergic to the tetracycline family of antibiotics
Q2) All of the following describe the research guidelines provided by the ADA Council on Scientific Affairs except:
A) study population should be representative of typical users.
B) studies should be at least 2 months long.
C) study product should be used in its normal regimen.
D) at least two studies should be conducted by independent researchers.
Q3) All of the following statements are true regarding controlled-release drug delivery systems except:
A) indicated in sites with persistent clinical attachment loss and deep pockets.
B) require professional placement into disease site.
C) provide sustained drug delivery over months of time.
D) provide relatively high doses of systemic drug concentrations.
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
Q2) Which one of the following factors is most important in the emergency management of an avulsed tooth?
A) Handle only by the crown and do not dry the tooth
B) Store in tap water
C) Dental hygienist treatment
D) Dry the tooth
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
A) Pericoronitis is spread by physical contact.
B) The most commonly affected teeth are the incisors.
C) Pericoronitis is soft-tissue inflammation associated with a partially erupted tooth.
D) Pericoronitis appears along the lateral aspects of the root and in furcation areas of multirooted teeth.
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Page 35
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false regarding neutral fluoride gels, foams, and varnishes?
A) It should be used for patients with gold restorations because acidulated fluoride (APF) can corrode metal.
B) Neutral fluoride products include foams and gels for tray application.
C) Research has not yet demonstrated that it is as effective as APF or acidulated fluoride.
D) It should be used for patients with sealants.
E) Neutral fluorides are preferred for porcelain restorations because APF can cause pitting.
Q2) Which of the following is not a way to decrease the pathologic factors for caries management?
A) Explaining the caries process
B) Teaching brushing and flossing
C) Reducing caloric intake
D) Using a 0.12% chlorhexidine rinse to reduce the numbers of S. mutans
E) Using xylitol gum to reduce the numbers of S. mutans
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Page 36
Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which population should have sealants placed on their teeth?
A) Children with newly erupted molars
B) Adolescents with deep pit and fissures on their posterior teeth
C) Adults with noncavitated lesions
D) All of the above
Q2) Moisture control and isolation of the teeth selected for sealant placement can include:
A) rubber dam and saliva ejector.
B) cotton rolls.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which type of sealant is most likely to require an occlusal adjustment?
A) Unfilled sealant
B) Filled sealant
C) Both are the same.
Q4) Sealants are designed to accomplish which of the following?
A) Enhance the strength of enamel
B) Prevent caries on the proximal tooth surfaces
C) Prevent caries primarily on the occlusal surfaces of teeth
D) All of the above
37
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cecilia recently reported to the dentist for her 6-month recall appointment. During the dental charting, four new areas of interproximal decay were noted. The hygienist questioned Cecilia about changes in her oral hygiene or dietary patterns. Cecilia told the hygienist that she was a full time student at the local community college. She also commented that she had taken a part-time job to help her parents with college expenses. Due to her busy academic and work schedule, she does not have the opportunity to eat regular meals so she packs healthy snacks, such as baked chips, pretzels, and low-fat peanut butter on whole wheat sandwiches, to eat throughout the day. She also drinks lots of energy drinks to keep her going throughout the day. Which of the following factors could contribute to Maria's new areas of decay?
A) Frequency of intake
B) Form and consistency
C) Timing
D) Both a and c
E) Options a, b, and c
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the major aspects of nicotine addiction that sustain tobacco use?
A) Psychologic aspects
B) Behavioral aspects
C) Sensory aspects
D) Social-cultural aspects
E) All of the above
Q2) All of the following identify symptoms of nicotine withdrawal except:
A) cravings.
B) anxiety.
C) insomnia.
D) stomach problems.
E) concern about confidentiality.
F) hunger or weight gain.
G) All of the above identify symptoms.
Q3) Halitosis is a potential deficit of which type of human need due to tobacco use?
A) Wholesome facial image
B) Protection from health risks
C) Freedom from fear and stress
D) Responsibility for oral health
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Page 39
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best factor in controlling the setting time of alginate impression materials is the:
A) temperature of the water.
B) water-powder ratio.
C) length of spatulation.
D) All of the above are factors.
Q2) A rope of utility or beading wax may be placed on the periphery of the stock tray to:
A) lengthen the tray.
B) help direct the impression materials into a high palatal vault.
C) prevent material from flowing out of the tray.
D) do all of the above.
Q3) Disinfecting of impressions:
A) protects the patient from surface bacteria.
B) must be completed after the impression is poured.
C) is done only with impressions for patients with known infectious diseases.
D) is completed after the impression is rinsed with water.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Finishing and polishing an amalgam increases the likelihood that:
A) plaque will not adhere to the restoration.
B) the restoration will be free of voids.
C) proper trituration was used.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Cements are more soluble than the overlying restoration. Secondary decay can occur where the cement dissolves.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are false.
D) Both statements are true.
Q3) Which of the following is (are) part(s) of the rubber dam retainer?
A) Bow
B) Prongs
C) Forceps holes
D) All of the above
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to refer to sites of tooth structure wear commonly found on the incisal or occlusal surfaces of teeth as a result of masticatory forces?
A) Abrasion
B) Erosion
C) Attrition
D) Abfraction
Q2) What term refers to the reduction of the dentinal tubule lumen as a result of the deposition of intratubular dentin?
A) Abfraction
B) Abrasion
C) Dentinal sclerosis
D) Attrition
Q3) Which one of the following is the best self-applied home product to help decrease dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) Fluoride mouth rinse or gel
B) Nonfluoride antibacterial mouth rinse
C) Oral irrigation system
D) Medium- to hard-bristled toothbrush
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nerve is polarized or in a resting state when:
A) there exists a change in the ion balance and the nerve membrane becomes more permeable to sodium.
B) the nerve membrane becomes less permeable to sodium.
C) there is a balance between the sodium (Na+) ion on the outside of the nerve membrane and the potassium (K+) ion on the inside of the nerve membrane.
D) sodium (Na+) and calcium (Ca++) ions are in a state of balance within the nerve membrane.
E) sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions are in a state of balance within the nerve membrane.
Q2) Amide local anesthetics undergo biotransformation in the:
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) intestines.
D) nerve cell.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proportion of nitrous oxide the client in question 11 is receiving is which of the following?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
E) None of the above
Q2) Objective signs of a desirable level of sedation are:
1) normal eye reaction and pupil size.
2) normal blood pressure and pulse.
3) no loss of gag reflex.
4) ability to answer questions.
5) relaxed hands, fingers, and mandible.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) All of the above
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygienist is assessing a new client in the practice. The client suffered a stroke about 8 months ago. What is the dental hygienist trying to evaluate when watching the client brush teeth with his or her current technique?
A) The client's skill level
B) The client's grip strength
C) The client's range of motion
D) The client's ability to understand and follow directions
Q2) All of the following should be taken into consideration when treating a patient who is totally blind except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Greet the client by grasping their hand.
B) Allow the client to smell and feel materials that are to be used.
C) Instruct the client to leave the guide dog in the waiting area.
D) Explain to the client the location of the dental operatory.
Q3) The primary reason why most disabled people do not have access to dental care is they:
A) are unable to pay for their dental work.
B) do not care about their dental health.
C) are unable to travel to a dental office.
D) are unable to find a dentist who will treat them.
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Page 45
Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most frequently occurring valvular heart defect that can result in cardiovascular damage?
A) Mitral valve prolapse
B) Heart murmur
C) Endocarditis
D) Rheumatic heart disease
Q2) A pulse rate of 150 beats per minute indicates:
A) normal pulse rate.
B) tachycardia.
C) bradycardia.
D) atrial fibrillation.
Q3) Clients receiving antihypertensive drug therapy may experience all of the following except:
A) orthostatic hypotension.
B) xerostomia.
C) metallic taste.
D) fatigue.
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) Interventions shown to prevent type 2 diabetes by 58% to 71% include:
A) 30 minutes of walking 5 times a week, and 7% weight reduction.
B) eating less sugar.
C) frequent self-monitoring of blood glucose.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Atherosclerotic disease is more common in which type of diabetes?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational diabetes mellitus
D) Prediabetes
Q3) Xerostomia in people with diabetes is due to which of the following?
A) Increased fluid loss
B) Polydipsia
C) Neuropathy
D) Parotid gland swelling
Q4) Which type of diabetes involves an absolute deficiency in insulin secretion?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an early sign of oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Unrelenting pain
B) Nonhealing ulcer
C) Lump or mass
D) White or red patch
Q2) All of the following are considered to be a palliative measure for radiation-induced xerostomia except:
A) chlorhexidine rinse (0.12%).
B) saliva substitute.
C) humidified room air.
D) salivary gland stimulant.
Q3) Which of the following is not a possible cause of cancer as stated by the American Cancer Society?
A) Fluoride in the water
B) Cigarette smoking
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Poor nutrition and inactivity
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase is best characterized as converting:
A) RNA into DNA.
B) DNA into RNA.
C) RNA into tRNA.
D) the host cell into an HIV virion.
Q2) Kaposi's sarcoma lesions frequently regress after initiation of an effective HAART regimen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission of HIV?
A) A woman becoming infected after sex with her husband
B) A man becoming infected after sex with another man
C) A child becoming infected after a blood transfusion
D) A neonate becoming infected after being fed breast milk from his HIV-infected mother
E) A series of injection drug users becoming infected after sharing the same needle
Q4) Most patients with HIV are unmotivated to preserve their oral health.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be a problem related to a spinal cord injury?
A) Deficiency of dopamine
B) Blood pressure control
C) Depth perception
D) Facial nerve pain
E) Hearing loss
Q2) When treating a client with epilepsy, it is advised not to perform which of the following?
A) Nitrous oxide and oxygen sedation
B) Scaling instrumentation
C) Placement of sealants
D) Coronal polishing
E) Fluoride tray delivery
Q3) Individualized home dental care for a stroke client is most similar to that of the client with which other condition?
A) Arthritis
B) Diabetes
C) Epilepsy
D) Infective endocarditis
E) All of the above
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the options that should be part of documentation for the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have autoimmune disease.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to treatment
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
Q2) Regular maintenance intervals of no more than 3 months are recommended for clients with autoimmune disease, because they are not motivated to maintain oral health at home.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of pretransplant candidates are people living with _____ disease.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) lung
Q2) Peritoneal dialysis is typically performed in which of the following?
A) Hospital
B) Dialysis center
C) Home
D) Urgent care center or emergency room
Q3) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is treated with any of the following except which one?
A) Dietary modifications with regard to phosphorus
B) Active vitamin D
C) Phosphorus binders
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Q4) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are reasons to request a medical consultation except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Cases of persistent moderate to severe asthma
B) Reported symptoms suggesting poorly controlled asthma
C) Clients taking systemic corticosteroids, such as prednisone
D) None of the above
Q2) Under what conditions should a client with active tuberculosis be treated?
A) Using nitrous-oxide sedation in a dental office for routine procedures
B) Using strict infection-control procedures in a dental office especially equipped for clients with tuberculosis
C) In a dental office using universal precautions
D) In a hospital setting for emergency dental care only
Q3) Which of the following is not normally a symptom of an asthma attack?
A) Dyspnea
B) Perspiration
C) A need to lie down
D) Feeling of pressure or tightness in the chest
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are oral manifestations that can be observed in clients with Down syndrome except:
A) microdontia.
B) periodontal disease.
C) hypersalivation.
D) low caries risk.
Q2) Down syndrome is the most common and frequently observed chromosomal abnormality in humans and incidence is correlated with increased maternal age.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) The use of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate mouth rinse is commonly prescribed for clients with disabilities to help control oral biofilm and gingivitis. It can be administered via an oral irrigator, a spray, or a swab.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 54
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When treating clients with chemical dependency, the dental hygienist's primary goal is to:
A) identify substance abuse and refer client to appropriate treatment facility.
B) diagnose substance dependence and document in dental record.
C) provide treatment facility options.
D) educate client on need for routine professional oral health care, good self-care, and proper nutrition.
Q2) Select all intraoral signs of marijuana use.
A) Extrinsic green stain
B) Halitosis
C) Bloodshot eyes
D) Slurred speech
Q3) Select all intraoral methamphetamine mouth signs.
A) Rampant decay
B) Xerostomia
C) Bruxism
D) Severe gingivitis
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All clients with bulimia nervosa present with some evidence of perimylolysis; clients with binge-eating disorder sometimes present with perimylolysis.
A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
C) Both parts of the statement are true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
Q2) In comparison to other medical conditions, bulimia nervosa is known to have a high mortality rate, whereas anorexia nervosa has a low mortality rate.
A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
C) Both parts of the statement are true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Dental Association (ADA) refers to the disorder related to bone necrosis of the jaw due to taking bisphosphonates and other antiresorptive therapy as:
A) bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ).
B) antiresorptive agent-induced ONJ (ARONJ).
C) bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw (BONJ).
D) bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis (BON).
Q2) When does the endogenous sex steroid hormone gingival disease occur?
A) As estrogen and progesterone levels rise
B) As estrogen and progesterone levels decrease
C) In infants and children
D) In postmenopausal women
Q3) Pregnant dental personnel should receive no greater than _____ rem during the gestation period.
A) 0.05
B) 0.5
C) 5.0
D) 0.55
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Page 57
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are expected to decline normally in aging except:
A) vision.
B) hearing.
C) thickness of epithelium.
D) salivary function.
Q2) Which of the following is a cause of dry mouth in the elderly?
A) Anticholinergic properties of many common medications
B) Result of normal aging
C) Decreased bioavailability of vitamins, specifically vitamin C and B complex vitamins
D) Loss of integrity of parotid gland tissue
Q3) Many older clients may benefit from daily use of a nonalcoholic mouth rinse to:
A) reduce periodontal disease.
B) reduce oral malodor.
C) assist in the removal of plaque biofilm.
D) increase salivary flow.
Q4) The edentulous rate among older adults is expected to rise to 40% by the year 2030.
A)True
B)False
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58
Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two components of a fixed partial dental prosthesis are a(n) _____ and a(n)
A) bridge; pontic
B) pontic; clasp
C) clasp; abutment
D) abutment; pontic
Q2) The best way to prevent the loss of a removable dental prosthesis is to ensure it is:
A) stored in a container.
B) wrapped in a tissue and stored in a pocket.
C) placed in a drawer.
D) labeled with a person's name or an identification number.
Q3) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:
A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
C) food habits are broken.
D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a sign of a fractured jow?
A) deformed, crooked or shifted mandible.
B) malocclusion of the dentition.
C) difficulty breathing.
D) numbness in the chin and lower lip.
Q2) Facial fractures resulting from motor vehicle accidents can be prevented, because wearing seat belts and obeying speed limits are safety measures.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) An individual suffers a blow to the head, specifically the mandible, during an altercation with another person, and is rendered unconscious. What should be the initial response?
A) Call 911 for emergency personnel.
B) Secure the airway, breathing, and circulation.
C) Transport the individual to a healthcare facility.
D) Contact their physician or dentist.
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Page 60
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does it take for the successful osseointegration of a dental implant to occur?
A) 2 months
B) 3 to 6 months
C) 7 to 10 months
D) 1 year
Q2) What is the term used for a stable functional replacement for one or more missing teeth?
A) Osseointegrated dental implant
B) Anchor
C) Abutment
D) Peri-implantitis
Q3) Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of dental implants?
A) poor diet
B) obesity
C) a history of head and neck radiation therapy
D) pregnancy
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two types of spacing that are desirable in the primary dentition are:
A) posterior and distal spacing.
B) anterior and eruptive spacing.
C) primate and developmental spacing.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Reorganization of the periodontal and gingival tissues after the completion of orthodontic therapy:
A) takes 3 to 4 months to complete.
B) is enhanced by the natural flexion of the teeth during the chewing of food.
C) occurs when teeth are permitted to respond individually to the forces of mastication.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q3) During orthodontic treatment, it is possible that fragments of cementum and dentin will break away from the apex of the root and then become absorbed by the body. This results in which of the following?
A) Thinning of the root apex to a sharp point
B) Blunting of the apex and shortening of the root length
C) Endodontic infection
D) Lengthening of the root as new cementum and dentin develop
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failure of dental hygienists and dentists to report suspected cases of child maltreatment has led in some cases to:
A) death of the child.
B) repeated maltreatment of the child.
C) loss of the dental professional's license.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Behavior indicative of an abusive parent includes:
A) hesitating to seek dental treatment for a child's oral injuries.
B) insisting his or her child be seen for an unscheduled appointment immediately after an oral injury has occurred, much to the chagrin of the receptionist who finds no available appointments.
C) providing detailed information about how the oral injury occurred.
D) reporting a story of how the injury occurred that is consistent with the history reported by the injured child.
E) all of the above.
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63
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral problems are not common among patients receiving palliative care, because most patients can perform oral hygiene on themselves regularly.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which of the following represents the oral complication that appears as red edematous tissue with a yellow membrane covering the ulceration?
A) Oral candidiasis
B) Mucositis
C) Xerostomia
D) Burning mouth syndrome
Q3) What organism is a natural inhabitant of the oral cavity and responsible for most cases of candidiasis?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
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Page 64
Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) A complete case presentation includes all of the following information except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Why the problem is occurring
B) Treatment options on how to fix the problem
C) Recommendations on various options
D) The option the provider wants you to choose
E) Outcomes if no treatment is completed
Q2) Offices should have a standard format with the same topics for each office meeting so the employees are prepared for the conversation. Meetings should not be planned in advance; instead meetings should be off the cuff topics.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Assisted dental hygiene practice increases production for the practice by:
A) 20%.
B) 30%.
C) 40%.
D) 50%.
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Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress and burnout may be caused by:
1) intense interpersonal relations with clients and staff members.
2) dental hygiene job tasks that are repetitive and monotonous.
3) lack of intellectual stimulation at the workplace.
4) lack of feeling appreciated, which leads to reduced self-esteem.
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 4
E) All of the above
Q2) When should a follow-up thank you letter be sent to a potential employer?
A) One week following an interview
B) One day following an interview
C) Two weeks postinterview, if the applicant has not received a job offer
D) Two weeks postinterview, if the applicant has received a job offer
E) Two to 4 weeks following an interview
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66
Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) Which of the following are recommended risk management strategies for appropriately maintaining client records?
A) Entries should be accurate, concise, and written in black ballpoint pen.
B) Entries should include patient cancellations and late arrivals.
C) Errors can be erased or blacked out if corrections are clearly documented.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
Q2) In the scenario described, if a civil lawsuit were filed and a trial occurred, which of the following levels of proof would the jury or judge use in determining if the dental hygienist was guilty of negligence?
A) Substantial proof
B) Beyond a reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof of intent
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