Oral Health Promotion Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Oral Health Promotion explores the principles and practices involved in improving the oral health of individuals and communities. The course covers strategies for preventing oral diseases through education, behavioral change, and community-based interventions. Students examine the roles of dental professionals in advocating for healthier environments, evaluating risk factors, and designing evidence-based promotion programs. Emphasis is placed on cultural competence, policy development, and the social determinants of oral health, equipping learners to address disparities and to effectively promote lifelong oral health in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
The Dental Hygienists Guide to Nutritional Care 4th Edition by Cynthia A. Stegeman
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21 Chapters
824 Verified Questions
824 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Healthy Eating Habits
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acceptable macronutrient distribution ranges (AMDRs) are expressed as a percentage of total energy intake, because an intake of each depends on intake of the others or of the total energy requirement of the individual. Increasing or decreasing one energy source while consuming a set amount of kilocalories affects the intake of the other sources of energy.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: A
Q2) The process of restoring iron, thiamin, riboflavin, folic acid, and niacin removed during processing to approximately their original levels is called: A) fortification. B) enrichment.
C) satiety.
D) ghrelin.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Concepts in Biochemistry
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In metabolism, energy is extracted from glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>) and converted to carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>) by which chemical reaction?
A) Oxidation
B) Reduction
C) Hydrolysis
D) Condensation
Answer: A
Q2) A biomolecule is a substance required by the body that must be supplied by an outside source. During metabolism, energy can be extracted from dietary carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and can be used to create biomolecules required for life.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: The Alimentary Canal: Digestion and Absorption
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Missing teeth increase the potential for food obstruction in the airway, because an inability to masticate food can result in larger chunks of food being swallowed.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Passage of a permeable substance from a more concentrated solution to an area of lower concentration is called osmosis. Transport requiring a carrier and cellular energy is active transport.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrate: the Efficient Fuel
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49 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sucrose, lactose, and fructose can be metabolized by bacterial plaque. Fructose, also known as levulose and found naturally in honey, is less cariogenic than sucrose and lactose.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Which of the following foods provides the most fiber?
A) 3 oz of pot roast withcup gravy
B) cup of brown and wild rice blend
C) 1 medium orange
D) 1 whole grain bagel
Q3) Sucrose, lactose, and fructose can result in demineralization of tooth enamel because they rapidly diffuse into plaque biofilm and raise pH levels.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Protein: the Cellular Foundation
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements are true of the physiologic role of protein except one. Which one is the exception?
A) The amount of essential amino acid furnished by a food determines its ability to support growth.
B) Protein is present in muscle and connective tissue cells only.
C) Body proteins are continuously being broken down and replaced.
D) Amino acids and proteins are constituents of hormones, enzymes, and other body secretions.
Q2) Tissue building, maintenance, and repair are physiologic roles of proteins and carbohydrates, because both nutrients provide essential amino acids necessary for these functions.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 6: Lipids: the Condensed Energy
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fats is the most saturated?
A) Soybean
B) Canola
C) Palm
D) Oliver
Q2) Linoleic and arachidonic acids are omega-6 fatty acids because their first double bond occurs on the sixth carbon from the omega (terminal) end.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Patients should be counseled to substitute foods with trans fats for those with saturated fat, because saturated fat has a less detrimental effect on blood lipids.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Use of the Energy Nutrients: Metabolism and Balance
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of the satiety center results in a craving for food. If the satiety center of the hypothalamus becomes destroyed, the appetite becomes voracious, resulting in obesity.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Psychologic disorders such as anorexia nervosa can become life threatening because a lack of perception of one's undernourishment causes a vicious downward spiral of metabolic imbalances.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) The main manifestation of type 2 diabetes is:
A) hyperglycemia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) ketoacidosis.
D) insulin resistance.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Vitamins Required for Calcified Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) International units (IU) is the designation used to measure and recommend vitamin A levels because it better represents the absorption rates in humans than retinol activity equivalent (REA).
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Rickets is no longer prevalent in the United States because increased breastfeeding provides ample vitamin D reserves.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Each of the following is true of rickets except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency.
B) Rickets is caused by vitamin C and vitamin D deficiency.
C) Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
D) A narrow and distorted chest occurs.
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Chapter 9: Minerals Essential for Calcified Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of calcium within the saliva except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
B) Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature of demineralized enamel surface.
C) Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
D) Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.
Q2) Magnesium is the third most prevalent mineral in teeth. Enamel contains about three times more magnesium that dentin.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) High levels of calcium within the kidneys is called:
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypercalciuria.
C) hyperplasia.
D) hypoplasia.
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11
Chapter 10: Nutrients Present in Calcified Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potentiates action of insulin
A)Keshan disease
B)Excess selenium
C)Tin
D)Copper
E)Aluminum
F)Manganese
G)Excess molybdenum
H)Chromium
I)Selenium
Q2) Causes copper deficiency
A)Keshan disease
B)Excess selenium
C)Tin
D)Copper
E)Aluminum
F)Manganese
G)Excess molybdenum
H)Chromium
I)Selenium
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Vitamins Required for Oral Soft Tissues and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Associated with malnourished alcoholics
A)Antigenic
B)Filiform papillae
C)Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
D)Circumvallate lingual papillae
E)Angular cheilosis
F)Xerostomia
G)Cobalamin
H)Thiamin
I)Folate
J)Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
K)Pellagra
Q2) During early phases of nutritional deficiency, which epithelial tissue is the most likely to be evident?
A) Gingival
B) Lips
C) Glossal
D) Palatal
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Chapter 12: Fluids and Minerals Required for Oral Soft
Tissues and Salivary
Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following accurately describe thirst as it relates to physiologic aspects of hydration? (Select all that apply.)
A) The early sign of the need for fluid is often mistaken for hunger.
B) Older patients often have a reduced sensation of thirst.
C) Increased blood pressure stimulates release of theanine, which leads to the release of aldosterone.
D) Release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex causes blood pressure to increase.
E) The ability to regulate water balance is not precise in infants and older adults.
Q2) Dissolved substances that freely cross cellular membranes are:
A) osmoreceptors.
B) solutes.
C) renin.
D) cations.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional Requirements Affecting Oral Health in
Women
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only 22% to 34% if women receive dental care during pregnancy. Which of the following accurately describe prenatal oral health concerns? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pregnancy gingivitis usually becomes evident in the second trimester.
B) Even when oral problems exist, most women do not see a dentist.
C) Pregnancy tumors are large lumps originating from gingivitis.
D) Periodontal disease is a significant risk factor for preeclampsia.
E) Dental erosion can result from nausea during pregnancy.
Q2) Each of the following is a prudent recommendation for a dental hygienist to make for a menopausal patient except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Supplement calcium and vitamin D slightly beyond upper intake (UI) level because of increased metabolic needs.
B) Encourage lean protein and regular exercise to maintain muscle mass.
C) Avoid alcohol and alcohol-containing oral hygiene products if xerostomia is present.
D) Consumption of 90 mg daily of isoflavones in soy products helps to increase bone mass.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nutritional Requirements During Growth and Development and Eating Habits Affecting Oral Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with cerebral palsy, Down syndrome, and intellectual disabilities are likely to have abnormal sensory input and muscle tone. A small, underdeveloped tongue is common in many such disorders and results in diminished nutritional status.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Because of increasing cases of fluorosis, low levels of fluoride are added to commercial infant formula. Breast milk provides low levels of fluoride.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Each of the following is true except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Infant formulas should be discontinued at approximately 1 year of age.
B) Vitamin D-fortified whole milk should not be provided until 2 years.
C) Low-fat milk is not recommended for children younger than 2 years.
D) Special toddler formulas are available, but are unnecessary.
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Chapter 15: Nutritional Requirements for Older Adults and Eating Habits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following accurately depicts aspects of genomics except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Genome refers to only the mid-section of an organisms DNA sequence.
B) A complete set of DNA is called an organism's genome.
C) Virtually every disease has some basis in the individual's genes.
D) Genomics is the scientific mapping, sequencing, and analyzing of the genome.
E) The study of how foods interact with genes is called nutrigenomics.
Q2) Affects most individuals taking five or more medicines
A)Obesity
B)Hypogeusia
C)Anosmia
D)Xerostomia
E)Edentulism
F)Atrophic gastritis
Q3) Dehydration can cause: (Select all that apply.)
A) loose-fitting dentures.
B) increased dental caries.
C) decreased efficiency of homeostatic mechanisms.
D) edema.
E) confusion.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food Factors Affecting Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consumers state each of the following reasons for choosing organic foods except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Environmental reasons
B) Better taste
C) Fresher food
D) More humane treatment of animals
E) Decomposition of topsoil
Q2) Binding and elimination of heavy metals from the body
A)Food patterns
B)Habit
C)Food fad
D)Food quackery
E)Detoxification
F)Colonic
G)Chelation therapy
H)Cortisol
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Effects of Systemic Disease on Nutritional
Status and Oral Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood pressure consistently 140/90 mm Hg or higher is stage 1 hypertension. Diuretics are frequently prescribed for patients with hyperlipidemia.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Which statement most accurately reflects current thinking on prescription of bisphosphonates as they relate to osteonecrosis?
A) All patients taking bisphosphonates develop osteonecrosis.
B) The risk of osteonecrosis in patients taking bisphosphonates is negligible.
C) Patients at risk for osteonecrosis have a history of large doses of intravenous bisphosphonates.
D) Osteonecrosis occurs in 1 of 10 people taking bisphosphonates.
Q3) The type of medication most likely to induce xerostomia is:
A) antibiotics.
B) diuretics.
C) local anesthetics.
D) anticholinergic.
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Chapter 18: Nutritional Aspects of Dental Caries: Causes,
Prevention, and Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cariogenic snacks before bedtime are advised if they are within 2 hours of a meal because salivary flow is reduced when sleeping and clearance of plaque acids is limited.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Demineralization of enamel occurs when the critical pH of 5.5 is reached. In interproximal areas or in deep pits and fissures, the pH can decrease to 5 and remain at that pH for 30 minutes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Salivary flow is stimulated the most by foods rich in: A) calcium.
B) vitamin D.
C) protein.
D) fiber.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Aspects of Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) During initial assessment, a dental hygienist documents purplish red gingival tissues, pockets of 4 mm or more, and pain. Which of the following are appropriate dental hygiene interventions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oral debridement to deplaque teeth
B) Recommend an antimicrobial agent
C) Encourage appropriate techniques for optimal oral self-care
D) Prescribe antibiotics
E) Identify and recommend modification of defective restorations
Q2) Gingivitis is usually reversible because there is no loss of connective tissue or bone support.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which of the following is true of gingivitis? (Select all that apply.)
A) It is a progressive inflammatory process.
B) It begins in the interdental papilla and advances to the attached gingiva.
C) It is easily identified by its classic, dark reddish-blue color.
D) Excessive stippling is present.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Nutritional Aspects of Alterations in the Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign migratory glossitis
A)Sialometric test
B)Dentin hypersensitivity
C)Erosion
D)Abrasion
E)Cheddar cheese
F)Temporomandibular disorder
G)Tinnitus
H)Crepitus
I)Geographic tongue
J)Phytochemicals
Q2) The dental hygienist's main goal when making dietary recommendations for a patient with a new dental prosthesis is to:
A) promote healing and repair by ensuring an adequate and nutrient-dense diet.
B) promote healing and repair by recommending consumption of only liquids for the first week.
C) promote a balanced diet by recommending a variety of fibrous foods.
D) encourage the patient to become accustomed to prosthesis by eating as usual.
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Chapter 21: Nutritional Assessment and Education for Dental Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The assessment tool designed to elicit information about the patient's use of tobacco and alcohol use, fluoride history, and snacking patterns is the:
A) psychosocial history.
B) dental history.
C) clinical observation.
D) extraoral and intraoral assessment.
Q2) Positive nonverbal communications increase the effectiveness of a message and create a comfortable atmosphere for the patient. Avoiding direct eye contact by frequently studying the patients chart enables the patient to relax and think more clearly.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Overall, the most effective method of obtaining dietary information is with the:
A) diet history.
B) twenty-four-hour-recall.
C) food frequency questionnaire.
D) food diary.
23
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