Oral Health Education Exam Review
Course Introduction
Oral Health Education is a course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to effectively promote and teach principles of oral health and disease prevention. The course covers fundamental topics such as dental anatomy, oral hygiene techniques, nutritions role in oral health, and the prevention of common dental diseases. Students will also explore strategies for communicating oral health concepts to diverse populations, including children, adults, and at-risk groups. Emphasis is placed on developing educational materials, using motivational interviewing, and understanding cultural and behavioral factors that influence oral health practices. The course prepares students for roles in community outreach, patient education, and advocacy within clinical and public health settings.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) The three responsibilities of the dental hygiene clinician are:
A) preventive, therapeutic, educational.
B) manager, educator, researcher.
C) planner, organization of appointments, billing.
D) communicator, planner, researcher.
Answer: A
Q2) What occurs when individuals with differing strengths and areas of expertise work together as equal partners to achieve better outcomes than each would achieve working alone?
A) Implementation
B) Collaboration
C) Determination
D) Concentration
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the seven roles of a dental hygienist?
A) Clinician
B) Public Health
C) Interpreter
D) Researcher
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23020
Sample Questions
Q1) From the following list, select those that should be part of documentation of the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have a deficit in the need for a wholesome facial image.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to care
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
H) All of the above
Answer: H
Q2) Examples of human needs related to dental hygiene care include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Freedom from fear and stress
B) Protection from health risks
C) Freedom from head and neck pain
D) Love and belong needs
E) Wholesome facial image
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23021
Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of evidence-based decision-making (EBDM) is to:
A) emphasize new research findings.
B) close the gap between research and practice.
C) defer to clients' wishes.
D) use expert opinions.
E) do none of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the PubMed clinical queries options finds citations such as systematic reviews, meta-analyses, reviews of clinical trials, and consensus development conferences?
A) Clinical study categories: Therapy and Narrow scope
B) Clinical study categories: Therapy and Broad scope
C) Systemic reviews
D) Medical genetics searches
E) Both a and b
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23022
Sample Questions
Q1) John's idea to hold a public forum is an example of which dental hygiene role?
A) Consumer advocate
B) Therapist
C) Policy analyst
D) Clinician
E) Manager
Q2) Health promotion strategies include which of the following?
A) Placing tobacco products at a store checkout
B) Focusing on the individual client's oral health outcomes
C) Referring a client to a self-help agency
D) Choosing to refrain from voting on a referendum
E) Limiting dental hygiene practice to individual client care
Q3) The health promotion movement calls health professionals to become involved in the following actions except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Building public policy
B) Strengthening community action
C) Empowering communities
D) Emphasizing disease treatment
E) Developing personal skills
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23023
Sample Questions
Q1) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q2) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q3) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q4) Motivational interviewing is a philosophic approach to client-centered education that emphasizes__________________, ____________________, and ___________________.
Q5) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message. A)True
B)False
Q6) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q7) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q8) Oral health and education may not be highly valued when food, shelter, and clothing are not readily available.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
Q9) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23024
Sample Questions
Q1) A client from a collectivist environment:
A) makes decisions about the proposed treatment on his or her own.
B) likes to discuss the treatment options with the healthcare provider alone.
C) prefers a "doctor-centered" approach.
D) might not display the characteristics of the group and therefore might make a decision on his or her own.
Q2) Cultural competence starts with:
A) awareness of the client's background and cultural beliefs and values.
B) understanding the client's perspective and social context.
C) applying a variety of communication skills to appeal to the client's identity.
D) awareness of one's own cultural beliefs and practices.
Q3) Statement 1: Ethnic identity describes the common cultural, historic, and geographic experiences of a group. Statement 2: Individuals of a group who share an ethnic identity also share the same attitude, interests, and dialects.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23025
Sample Questions
Q1) A portfolio required by a state licensing board would most likely be a:
A) working portfolio.
B) best work portfolio.
C) professional development portfolio.
D) curriculum vitae.
Q2) The primary purpose of reflection in a student portfolio is to demonstrate:
A) the student's ability to recall a clinical event or activity.
B) veracity as an admirable trait in the student hygienist.
C) critical thinking and problem-solving skills.
D) the clinical skill level of the student hygienist.
Q3) A recent dental hygiene graduate is preparing to apply for jobs and wants to use her portfolio as part of the interview process. She has heard that the dentist is looking for a dental hygienist with experience with a very diverse client population. The student decides to amend her charts of client experiences to show a greater number of clients seen than she actually cared for during her dental hygiene education. Which ethical principal did the student violate?
A) Autonomy
B) Veracity
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Beneficence
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Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23026
Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic processors with a daylight loader require a dark room and a safelight 4 feet away.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) Digital radiography provides instant feedback for diagnosis, allows for client education, and involves less radiation exposure. All of the following are the current sensor sizes available except size:
A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 0.
D) 1.
Q3) Most treatment areas have which of the following pieces of equipment:
A) storage cabinets
B) computers for scheduling
C) sink
D) alcohol hand rub
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23027
Sample Questions
Q1) Today, effective vaccines are available to prevent which of the following infections?
A) HIV
B) Hepatitis C
C) Hepatitis B
D) Hepatitis A
E) Hepatitis B and A
Q2) Which of the following is (are) true regarding infection-control program evaluation?
A) A method used to ensure a safe working environment should be in place to reduce the risk of health care-associated infections among clients and occupational injuries and illnesses among dental health care personnel.
B) Evaluation of a program should include documenting periodic observational assessments, reviewing completed checklists, and reviewing occupational exposures.
C) An evaluation program does not improve an infection-control program.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both a and c are true.
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Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23028
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical emergencies would be characterized by flushed skin, nausea, rapid heart rate, and pallor?
A) Syncope
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Uncontrolled angina
D) Cerebrovascular incident
E) Seizure
Q2) What is the recommended rate of rescue for a child who has a pulse but is unresponsive?
A) One breath every 5 to 6 seconds
B) Two breaths every 15 seconds
C) One breath every 30 seconds
D) Two breaths every 5 to 6 seconds
E) One breath every 3 seconds
Q3) What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an adult?
A) 1 1/2 inches
B) 1 1/2 to 2 inches
C) At least 2 inches
D) 2 to 2 1/2 inches
E) At least 2 1/2 inches
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23029
Sample Questions
Q1) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q3) Which nerve is affected when Guyon's canal syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q4) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q6) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23030
Sample Questions
Q1) When the health history reveals the client has had a prior unpleasant dental experience that has caused dental phobia, what is the most likely potential emergency situation?
A) Asthmatic attack
B) Seizure
C) Vasovagal syncope
Q2) Physician consultation can be completed by all the following methods except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Telephone contact
B) By faxing documents
C) Asking client what information was provided by physician
D) Written request for information
Q3) For the client undergoing cancer chemotherapy, medical consultation can provide which of the following?
A) Need for antibiotic prophylaxis
B) Risk for complications after oral procedures
C) Prognosis for medical condition
D) All of the above
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15
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23031
Sample Questions
Q1) If you have taken the client's blood pressure and the reading is abnormal, you should:
A) tell the client that they need to take medication for their high blood pressure.
B) ask the client about environmental factors.
C) take the blood pressure again.
D) do nothing.
Q2) Which of the following is the normal respiration rate for adults?
A) 6 to 8 breaths/min
B) 12 to 20 breaths/min
C) 15 to 22 breaths/min
D) 20 to 30 breaths/min
Q3) When taking blood pressure, the systolic blood pressure measures which of the following?
A) The minimum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels
B) The maximum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23032
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most important factor for consideration when determining whether to proceed with dental hygiene treatment for a medicated client?
A) Presence of environmental safety hazards
B) Risk for compromising the client's health
C) Availability of supportive emergency equipment
D) Use of personal protective equipment
Q2) Which of the following best describes the manufacturer's recommendations for pediatric drug dosing?
A) Equivalent dosing to the adult dose
B) Half of the adult dose
C) One quarter of the adult dose
D) Twice the adult dose
Q3) What is the most common etiology for angular cheilitis?
A) Vitamin deficiency
B) Fungal infection
C) Allergic reaction
D) Localized dermatitis
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23033
Sample Questions
Q1) If a lesion is considered a macule with the oral cavity, it is usually due to:
A) hyperplasia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) pigmentation.
D) unchanged vascularity.
Q2) Regarding oral lesions, which of the following is usually true?
A) Unilateral structures are most likely a normal anatomic structure.
B) The majority of lesions occur as multiple lesions.
C) Benign lesions have well-defined borders.
D) Fixed lesions on both overlying and underlying tissues are benign.
Q3) How should the client best move his or her head to allow for the increased prominence of the large strap muscle that divides the neck into regions?
A) Moving head up and down
B) Laying supine in the chair
C) Moving head side to side
D) Pointing the chin down
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23034
Sample Questions
Q1) How many teeth should be visible in the mouth of a 3-year-old?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 20
D) 28
Q2) What is the critical pH for enamel dissolution?
A) 6.2 to 7.0
B) 4.5 to 6.7
C) 4.5 to 5.5
D) 5.7 to 6.0
Q3) Which of the following teeth is the least frequently absent?
A) First permanent molar
B) Third permanent molar
C) Maxillary lateral incisors
D) Mandibular premolars
Q4) How is the term dilaceration defined?
A) Is a result of a disturbance of the ameloblasts during matrix formation
B) A large tooth resulting from the splitting of a single tooth germ
C) Abnormal distortion of a crown or root caused by trauma during formation
D) Tooth within a tooth, caused by invagination of the enamel during formation
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly used disclosing ingredient is:
A) methylene blue.
B) erythrosine dye.
C) formaldehyde.
D) fluorescein dye.
Q2) Oral biofilm in a healthy mouth is located mainly supragingivally but grows subgingivally in plaque-induced gingival disease. In the presence of mature bacterial plaque, the host immune response is activated.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) The best time to apply a disclosant is:
A) after the periodontal assessment.
B) after the oral prophylaxis.
C) before the oral assessment.
D) before the client sees the oral findings.
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23036
Sample Questions
Q1) For high-risk and extremely high-risk individuals, chlorhexidine is recommended because it can be more effective than fluoride when there is high bacterial challenge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Placement of restorations reduces the bacterial challenge. Bacterial challenge can be reduced by antibacterial therapy.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following statements are true regarding xylitol except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Xylitol enhances remineralization.
B) Xylitol inhibits the transfer of bacteria from person to person.
C) Xylitol inhibits future recolonization.
D) Xylitol use is recommended twice daily.
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23037
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following risk factors is considered the most significant for periodontal disease progression?
A) Smoking
B) Stress
C) Diet
D) Income
Q2) The client exhibits a periodontal pocket of 6 mm. The amount of recession is 3 mm and the distance from the gingival margin to the mucogingival junction is 9 mm. What is the amount of attached gingiva present?
A) 2 mm
B) 3 mm
C) 4 mm
D) 8 mm
Q3) Which of the following medications has a beneficial effect on the periodontium?
A) Phenytoin
B) Nifedipine
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tetracycline
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22
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspiration pneumonias may develop when:
A) oral fluids containing large numbers of microorganisms are aspirated into the bronchial tree and lungs.
B) periodontal infections alter the local intraoral environment in such a way that the mouth becomes colonized with elevated numbers of respiratory pathogens.
C) the metabolic control of blood sugar levels is hampered by the presence of periodontal infections.
D) both a and b occur.
Q2) Aspiration pneumonias occur most often in persons that:
A) have impaired gag and swallowing reflexes. B) reside in nursing homes.
C) have dysphagia from a stroke, Parkinson's disease, or other neurologic problems.
D) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23039
Sample Questions
Q1) In a dental hygiene diagnosis statement, the dental hygienist must avoid which of the following?
A) Cause
B) Signs and symptoms
C) Value judgments
D) None of the above
Q2) The dental hygiene diagnosis is made after which process of care phase?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Q3) If a 3-year-old child has objective signs of early childhood caries and a history of still using a bottle with milk at night to go to sleep, what human need deficit does this child most likely have?
A) Biologically sound and functional dentition
B) Freedom from fear and stress
C) Freedom from pain
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck
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24
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select four characteristics of a well-written dental hygiene care plan.
A) Reflects current standards of evidence-based care
B) Identifies a relationship between the dental hygiene diagnoses, client goals, and intervention strategies
C) Is independent of the dental treatment plan
D) Reflects goals of care to prevent oral disease using primary, secondary, and tertiary preventive interventions
E) Identifies recommendation for continued care interval
F) Identifies the prognosis of care
G) Reflects goals of care to develop and maintain the individual's behaviors essential to oral health and the mastery of self-care and the environment
Q2) The following are factors that the dental hygienist will consider before recommending a continued care interval to the client except:
A) overall appraisal of goal attainment.
B) client's continued adherence to recommended oral self-care.
C) level of optimum health achieved.
D) restorative care needed.
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reasons for recommending a power toothbrush to a client include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) They are safe when used as instructed.
B) They are effective for plaque removal.
C) They are suitable for any client.
D) They have a high level of client acceptance.
E) They are more effective than manual toothbrushes.
Q2) Dental hygienists should recommend replacement of toothbrushes at 2 to 3 month intervals because toothbrush bristles that are worn have been shown to remove less plaque than bristles that are not worn.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old female patient has tight contacts and several crowns. She indicates that she has difficulty flossing and that the floss often breaks during use. Which of the following is an alternative to floss for this client?
A) Interdental brushes
B) Dental water jet
C) Triangular toothpick
D) Tufted dental floss
Q2) All of the following are things to consider when selecting a dental floss except one. Which one is the exception?
A) gingival attachement levels
B) the tightness of the contact area
C) the contour of the gingival tissue
D) the roughness of the interproximal surface
E) client's manual dexterity and preference
Q3) Which of the following devices is not recommended for use with dental implants?
A) Braided floss
B) Brush with foam tip
C) Clasp brush
D) Dental water jet
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client suffering from dental hypersensitivity must use dentifrice containing:
A) SnF2.
B) NaF.
C) sodium hexametaphosphate.
D) potassium nitrate.
Q2) Which of the following two products are incompatible?
A) Sorbitol and vegetable oils
B) Essential oils and mint oils
C) Sodium lauryl sulfate and chlorhexidine
D) Triclosan and pyrophosphate
Q3) For a client with an abundant amount of biofilm, one should choose a dentifrice:
A) which tastes good.
B) with a higher level of abrasiveness.
C) which contains antitartar.
D) which contains a desensitizing agent.
Q4) The dental hygienist recommends a dentifrice in a safe manner when she:
A) takes time to collect data.
B) proposes a dentifrice adapted to her client's needs.
C) constantly updates her knowledge.
D) inquires about her client's oral habits.
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage(s) of a standing position while scaling the mandibular arch are which of the following?
A) Leverage for applying pressure in calculus removal
B) Enhanced access to reaching to deep periodontally involved areas
C) Diminished static sitting positions
D) All of the above
Q2) The pressure applied during periodontal assessment and treatment varies depending on the purpose of the instrumentation. To explore for calculus deposits, the stroke must have _____ pressure.
A) light
B) light to moderate
C) moderate to firm
D) firm
Q3) Fulcrums that move further away from the area being scaled may result in:
A) loss of control.
B) diminishing one's ability to scale the area.
C) enhancing access to deep periodontal pockets.
D) diminishing access to interproximal regions.
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about activation of ultrasonic instruments except:
A) the working end is in motion at all times.
B) overlapping and multidirectional strokes are used.
C) excessive lateral pressure is used.
D) immediate clinical outcome from instrumentation is evaluated using the dental light, air, and a periodontal explorer.
E) movement on the tooth is in an elliptical pattern.
Q2) What parts of the working end surfaces of a magnetostrictive ultrasonic insert are adapted to the root of the tooth for debridement?
A) Back and point
B) Point and lateral surfaces
C) Back and lateral surfaces
D) Concave surface and back
E) Concave surface and point
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Access to and instrumentation on the lingual aspect of No. 30 and No. 31 is complicated by what anatomic feature?
A) Mandibular posterior crowns are inclined more toward the lingual than the roots, making access more difficult.
B) Mandibular posterior crowns are inclined more toward the facial than the roots making access more difficult.
C) The mandibular first molar mesial furcal concavity makes access more difficult.
D) The mandibular second molar mesial concavity makes access more difficult.
Q2) Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a furcal concavity?
A) Maxillary first molar
B) Mandibular first molar
C) Maxillary second molar
D) Mandibular second molar
Q3) The root trunk on which aspect of a maxillary first molar is the longest?
A) Mesial
B) Facial
C) Distal
D) Lingual
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason for using intermittent pressure when polishing is to do which of the following?
A) Allow proper adaptation of the rubber cup.
B) Increase extrinsic stain removal potential.
C) Enhance polishability of the paste.
D) Reduce frictional heat.
E) Reduce operator fatigue.
Q2) Aerosols are generated with sonic and ultrasonic instrumentations. Aerosols can be effectively minimized with the use of a saliva ejector.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following systemic client conditions contraindicate the use of air polishing except:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) emphysema.
C) active tuberculosis.
D) asthma.
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) Periodontal surgery should be considered in all of the following cases except:
A) access for removal of disease causative factors is needed.
B) furcations are present.
C) persistence of diseased sites with deep periodontal pockets are evident.
D) regeneration or reconstruction of the periodontal tissues is indicated.
E) gain in clinical attachment level is not detected.
Q2) All of the following are goals of periodontal maintenance except one. Which one is the exception?
A) To prevent or minimize the recurrence and progression of periodontal disease among clients who have been treated for gingivitis, periodontitis, and peri-implantitis
B) To prevent or reduce the incidence of tooth loss
C) Bone surrounding the apical third of the tooth
D) A decrease in periodontal probing depths
E) To increase the probability of locating and treating other diseases and conditions
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33
Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) Oral chemotherapeutics are used to control plaque and prevent dental and periodontal diseases. Which of the following is the least true regarding the typical use of oral chemotherapeutics?
A) Replaces traditional mechanical plaque control measures
B) Describes the incorporation of an active ingredient within a delivery system
C) Capable of reducing the overall quantity of bacterial pathogens
D) Ability to alter pathogenic microorganisms reducing pathogenicity
Q2) All of the following statements are true regarding the systemic delivery of antibiotics except:
A) ingested and then delivered via the bloodstream.
B) access the subgingival microflora via gingival crevicular fluid.
C) demonstrated efficacy on periodontal parameters.
D) delivers high concentrations to periodontitis sites compared with locally delivered methods.
Q3) Which of the following is not a condition associated with systemic antibiotic therapy?
A) Increase in photosensitivity
B) Decreased effectiveness of oral contraceptives
C) Depressed prothrombin activity
D) Intrinsic staining in erupted permanent teeth
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is most important in the emergency management of an avulsed tooth?
A) Handle only by the crown and do not dry the tooth
B) Store in tap water
C) Dental hygienist treatment
D) Dry the tooth
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
A) Pericoronitis is spread by physical contact.
B) The most commonly affected teeth are the incisors.
C) Pericoronitis is soft-tissue inflammation associated with a partially erupted tooth.
D) Pericoronitis appears along the lateral aspects of the root and in furcation areas of multirooted teeth.
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A) The ulcers have red, elevated, "halolike" margin with depressed yellow or gray central area
B) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms
C) The most commonly affected teeth are incisors
D) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
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Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acidulated fluorides are fluoride products that contain hydrofluoric acid and have a pH of approximately 4. Acidulated fluorides enhance the uptake of fluoride into the hydroxyapatite of tooth structure.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Randomized controlled clinical trials are the gold standard to test therapeutic interventions. The American Dental Association periodically releases recommendations gleaned only from evidence-based research.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sealants are designed to accomplish which of the following?
A) Enhance the strength of enamel
B) Prevent caries on the proximal tooth surfaces
C) Prevent caries primarily on the occlusal surfaces of teeth
D) All of the above
Q2) Criteria for selecting teeth for sealant placement is based on which of the following?
A) Deep occlusal fissure; fossa or lingual pit
B) Large occlusal restoration
C) Should be placed on adult teeth where there is evidence of caries susceptibility
D) Both a and c
Q3) Which population should have sealants placed on their teeth?
A) Children with newly erupted molars
B) Adolescents with deep pit and fissures on their posterior teeth
C) Adults with noncavitated lesions
D) All of the above
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the oral assessment of a 46-year-old male client, the dental hygienist notes that the client's gums are swollen, spongy, and bleeding. Which of the following nutrients might be deficient in the client's diet?
A) Vitamin B
B) Folacin
C) Vitamin C
D) Riboflavin
Q2) Which of the following is not a good choice for dietary counseling in the dental setting?
A) An individual who has recurrent decay
B) An individual who will be having periodontal surgery in a couple of weeks
C) An individual with a chronic disease condition
D) An older person who has newly fitted dentures
Q3) The focus of nutritional counseling for children in the dental setting should be on:
A) proper toothbrushing technique.
B) importance of adequate calorie intake.
C) caries control.
D) minimizing fat in diet.
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physical aspects of nicotine addiction include reinforcing effects, tolerance, and physical dependence. Nicotine causes the brain to release chemicals such as dopamine, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, vasopressin, serotonin, and beta-endorphins.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) A mechanism for coping with cravings is realizing that cravings last only 3 to 5 minutes and trying to wait them out. The human need for freedom from fear and stress is usually unmet in clients seeking dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Silicone alginate-alternative impression materials are especially helpful when:
A) setting time is a concern.
B) elasticity is a concern.
C) dimensional stability is a concern.
D) multiple molds may be needed.
E) Both c and d are correct.
Q2) A rope of utility or beading wax may be placed on the periphery of the stock tray to: A) lengthen the tray.
B) help direct the impression materials into a high palatal vault.
C) prevent material from flowing out of the tray.
D) do all of the above.
Q3) The best factor in controlling the setting time of alginate impression materials is the: A) temperature of the water.
B) water-powder ratio.
C) length of spatulation.
D) All of the above are factors.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of matrix bands?
A) Prevents overhangs
B) Provides a framework for reconstruction of missing anatomy
C) Supports establishment of proximal contacts
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following components act as a "coating" for the filler particles in composite material?
A) Adhesives
B) Polymers
C) Matrix
D) Silane coupling agent
Q3) Which of the following polishing agents is used to polish amalgam restorations to a shiny surface?
A) Zirconium silicate
B) Aluminum oxide
C) Garnet
D) Tin oxide
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) For dentinal hypersensitivity to occur, all of the following conditions must exist except which one?
A) Dentin must be exposed.
B) A smear layer must cover the opening of the dentinal tubules.
C) Dentinal tubules must be open.
D) Vital pulp must be present.
Q2) All of the following factors from the client's assessment data might be the cause of gingival recession except which one?
A) Presence of carious lesions
B) Use of a hard toothbrush
C) Presence of abfraction
D) Presence of occlusal trauma
Q3) Which of the following occurs most of the time with regard to the relationship between cementum and enamel?
A) Cementum overlaps enamel.
B) Cementum and enamel meet (no overlap).
C) Enamel overlaps cementum.
D) Enamel and cementum do not meet.
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms of epinephrine overdose include all of the following except:
A) dizziness.
B) nausea.
C) throbbing headache.
D) fear and anxiety.
E) palpitations.
Q2) Amide local anesthetics undergo biotransformation in the: A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) intestines.
D) nerve cell.
Q3) Referring to the client in question 4 whose medical consult shows no contraindications to its use, what anesthetic would you chose for an appointment that is scheduled for 1 hour?
A) Articaine HCl 4% with epinephrine 1:100,000
B) Lidocaine HCl 2% with epinephrine 1:100,000
C) Mepivacaine HCl 3% with no epinephrine
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immediate treatment for entry into the excitement stage of analgesia is which of the following?
A) Telling the client to breathe through the mouth
B) Immediately increasing the percentage of oxygen to 100%
C) Verbally and physically stimulating the patient
D) Decreasing the nitrous oxide 20% while increasing the oxygen by the same amount
E) Both a and c
Q2) The flowmeters indicate that a client is receiving 4 L of nitrous oxide and 6 L of oxygen. What is the client's tidal volume?
A) 4 L
B) 6 L
C) 10 L
D) 2 L
E) 7 L
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) In order to prevent decubitus ulcers from forming, clients who are paralyzed and use a wheelchair should shift their weight every _____ minutes.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 45
D) 60
Q2) What level of functional limitation would a client who uses adaptive equipment, such as an augmentative and alternative communication device, be classified?
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV
Q3) All of the following should be taken into consideration when treating a patient who is totally blind except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Greet the client by grasping their hand.
B) Allow the client to smell and feel materials that are to be used.
C) Instruct the client to leave the guide dog in the waiting area.
D) Explain to the client the location of the dental operatory.
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients with sustained elevation of blood pressure are at risk for:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) cerebrovascular accident.
C) kidney failure.
D) none of the above.
Q2) The medication of choice to alleviate angina pectoris is:
A) Procardia.
B) nitroglycerin.
C) Vasotec.
D) digitalis.
Q3) Primary hypertension is also known as idiopathic hypertension. It is the result of an existing disease, such as those of the cardiovascular system, renal system, adrenal glands, or neurologic system.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with prediabetes can prevent the onset of diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The six complications of diabetes are caused by which of the following?
A) Medications
B) Absence of insulin
C) Lack of glucose to the brain
D) Hyperglycemia
Q3) What is the most common type of diabetes mellitus?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Prediabetes
Q4) What percentage of persons with type 2 diabetes takes oral hypoglycemic medication to control hyperglycemia?
A) 12%
B) 14%
C) 16%
D) 58%
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered to be a palliative measure for radiation-induced xerostomia except:
A) chlorhexidine rinse (0.12%).
B) saliva substitute.
C) humidified room air.
D) salivary gland stimulant.
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible cause of cancer as stated by the American Cancer Society?
A) Fluoride in the water
B) Cigarette smoking
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Poor nutrition and inactivity
Q3) Individuals who practice good oral hygiene and home care reduce the risk and severity of oral complications associated with cancer therapy. Precancer therapy dental evaluation, medically necessary dental treatment, and good oral hygiene can prevent all oral complications.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the CDC's most recent HIV incidence estimates, which of the following groups has the highest risk for contracting HIV?
A) Injection drug users
B) White MSM
C) Black MSM
D) Hispanic women
E) Black women
Q2) Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between periodontal disease and HIV?
A) HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ cell counts are likely to have more advanced periodontal disease than HIV-negative patients.
B) HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ cell counts are likely to have more accelerated periodontal disease progression than HIV-negative patients.
C) The burden of conventional periodontal disease is similar in the HIV-positive and HIV-negative population.
D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is rare outside of the HIV-positive population.
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of persons receiving phenytoin experience gingival enlargement?
A) 1%
B) Less than 25%
C) 50%
D) More than 75%
E) 100%
Q2) The clinician may be able to control an asymmetric tonic neck reflex of a cerebral palsy patient by doing which of the following?
A) Bringing arms forward
B) Preventing foot from touching floor
C) Stabilizing head in midline position
D) Separating legs
E) Massaging shoulders
Q3) Which of the following may be a problem related to a spinal cord injury?
A) Deficiency of dopamine
B) Blood pressure control
C) Depth perception
D) Facial nerve pain
E) Hearing loss
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Power toothbrushes are recommended for clients who present with biofilm removal challenges. Select the diseases that would contribute to the need for this oral health device.
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Pemphigus vulgaris
D) Scleroderma
E) Pernicious anemia
F) Multiple sclerosis
G) Myasthenia gravis
Q2) Examples of autoimmune diseases include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Adrenal insufficiency
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Pemphigus vulgaris
E) Osteoarthritis
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) ESRD is an acronym for _____ disease.
A) end-stage respiratory
B) early-stage renal
C) emergency-stage renal
D) end-stage renal
Q2) Peritoneal dialysis is a method of dialysis treatment in which the client's:
A) peritoneum is cleansed.
B) blood is cleansed through the peritoneal cavity.
C) blood is cleansed a few ounces at a time through a special filter.
D) blood is replaced with transfused donated blood.
Q3) When dental hygiene care plans are prepared for pre-solid organ or post-solid organ transplant recipients, there are:
A) clear-cut guidelines based on the American Heart Association guidelines.
B) universal guidelines, depending on which organ is transplanted.
C) no universal guidelines.
D) guidelines based on the cause of the disease.
Q4) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 52
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is considered a severe asthmatic attack that does not respond to treatment?
A) Dyspnea
B) Extrinsic asthma
C) Intrinsic asthma
D) Status asthmaticus
Q2) Which of the following is a common pulmonary test to measure lung function?
A) Bronchoscopy
B) CT scan
C) Sputum cytology
D) Spirometry
Q3) Use of a rubber dam during dental procedures is contraindicated with COPD patients, because it may cause more breathing problems.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malocclusion is rarely corrected in patients with Down syndrome because if a cross-bite is corrected, an earlier tissue breakdown may occur as a result of the underdeveloped maxilla and its relation to basal bone. Lingual movement of mandibular teeth is difficult because of their large, protruding tongues.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) The use of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate mouth rinse is commonly prescribed for clients with disabilities to help control oral biofilm and gingivitis. It can be administered via an oral irrigator, a spray, or a swab.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hallucinogens are abused because of:
A) desired repeated experience.
B) physical need to abuse substance.
C) psychologic need to abuse substance.
D) they cannot be detected in system.
Q2) When treating clients with chemical dependency, the dental hygienist's primary goal is to:
A) identify substance abuse and refer client to appropriate treatment facility.
B) diagnose substance dependence and document in dental record.
C) provide treatment facility options.
D) educate client on need for routine professional oral health care, good self-care, and proper nutrition.
Q3) Substances that slow down the central nervous system (CNS) include:
A) alcohol, codeine, nicotine, and methamphetamine.
B) Adderall, PCP, and LSD.
C) benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and alcohol.
D) nitrous oxide, alcohol, and cocaine.
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following management strategies should be considered when planning treatment care and education for the client with bulimia nervosa except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Provide palliative care for dentinal hypersensitivity.
B) Discuss stain-inducing food products.
C) Apply acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) gel.
D) Rinse with sodium bicarbonate following an oral purge.
E) Avoid diet carbonated beverages.
Q2) The dental hygienist in interprofessional collaboration with a dietitian for a client with an eating disorder can expect the dietitian to do which of the following interventions?
A) Prescribe antianxiolytics.
B) Recommend tobacco as an appetite stimulant.
C) Provide dietary information for dental caries prevention.
D) Counsel on balanced meal planning.
E) Inform about nutrition for periodontal health.
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommends that a child's first dental examination occur when the:
A) first tooth exfoliates or when accidents related to trauma occur.
B) child reports discomfort or by the age of 3.
C) child can sit properly in a dental chair and keep their mouth open.
D) first tooth appears or no later than the first birthday.
Q2) Which of the following would not exacerbate gingival inflammation?
A) Anticonvulsant medications
B) Pubertal hormone changes
C) Ovulation induction
D) Biofilm management
Q3) The American Dental Association (ADA) refers to the disorder related to bone necrosis of the jaw due to taking bisphosphonates and other antiresorptive therapy as:
A) bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ).
B) antiresorptive agent-induced ONJ (ARONJ).
C) bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw (BONJ).
D) bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis (BON).
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Page 57
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic conditions most commonly seen in the elderly include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Arthritis
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes
D) Scurvy
E) Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F) Hepatitis A
G) HIV disease
Q2) All of the following increase the risk for dental decay in older adults except one. Which is the one exception?
A) May perform less effective oral hygiene
B) May have more exposed root surfaces due to past disease
C) Have diminished chewing function
D) Consume fewer vitamins and minerals, specifically Vitamins A and D
Q3) All of the following are expected to decline normally in aging except:
A) vision.
B) hearing.
C) thickness of epithelium.
D) salivary function.
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should dentures not be soaked in sodium hypochlorite for more than 10 minutes?
A) To avoid loss of color in the denture base acrylic
B) To avoid dimensional change to the denture base acrylic
C) To avoid damage to the denture teeth
D) To avoid damage to soft-tissue liners
Q2) The most effective and safe way to maintain denture hygiene for a physically capable person is:
A) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and mild liquid soap and water.
B) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and toothpaste.
C) overnight soaking in a weak sodium hypochlorite solution.
D) immersion in a chemical cleanser.
Q3) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:
A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
C) food habits are broken.
D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.
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Page 59
Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical treatment of a fractured jaw that involves wiring the mandibular and maxillary arches usually lasts _____ week(s).
A) less than 1
B) 1 to 3
C) 4 to 8
D) 9 to 11
Q2) An individual suffering from a fractured jaw and subsequent surgery will experience what percentage loss of body weight?
A) 2%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Q3) An individual suffers a blow to the head, specifically the mandible, during an altercation with another person, and is rendered unconscious. What should be the initial response?
A) Call 911 for emergency personnel.
B) Secure the airway, breathing, and circulation.
C) Transport the individual to a healthcare facility.
D) Contact their physician or dentist.
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Page 60
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Q1) The removable superstructures should be disassembled for evaluation by the dentist who placed the implant and cleaned annually. Radiographs of the implant should be taken and evaluated by the dentist every 1 to 2 years.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Power rotary brushes may be prescribed for clients to thoroughly clean around the abutments and interproximal areas under the prosthetic appliance attached to the implant. A high-speed power is indicated to effectively control highly resistant oral biofilm.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) All of the following are reasons for dental implant failure except:
A) noncompliance with oral self-care.
B) systemic diseases.
C) fluoride varnish.
D) peri-implantitis.
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Q1) A skeletal malocclusion is treated by which of the following?
A) Camouflage of the discrepancy
B) Growth modification to the jaws to correct the malocclusion
C) Surgical therapy to correct the discrepancies in the jaws
D) All of the above, depending on the age of the client and the severity of the malocclusion
Q2) Two types of spacing that are desirable in the primary dentition are:
A) posterior and distal spacing.
B) anterior and eruptive spacing.
C) primate and developmental spacing.
D) none of the above.
Q3) If a client experiences significant pain after orthodontic appointments, when is it best to schedule supportive periodontal therapy appointments?
A) Before orthodontic adjustment appointments
B) Immediately after orthodontic adjustment appointments
C) Every 8 months
D) Shortly after the client has taken an over-the-counter analgesic
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Human trafficking victims:
A) should be reported to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Department of Homeland Security.
B) often speak the language of the country they are transported and trafficked to.
C) will often have a dental home.
D) usually carry large amounts of cash to pay for their own dental treatment.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Failure of dental hygienists and dentists to report suspected cases of child maltreatment has led in some cases to:
A) death of the child.
B) repeated maltreatment of the child.
C) loss of the dental professional's license.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding perpetrators of domestic violence?
A) They are often strangers to the victim.
B) They are often intimate partners of the victim.
C) They are often driven by the power and control they hold over the victim.
D) They are likely to repeat the abuse if the victim stays in the household.
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63
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) What is the term for the period of time during which an individual copes with declining health from a terminal illness or from the frailties associated with advanced age, even if death is not clearly imminent?
A) Hospice
B) End-of-life
C) Long-term care
D) Acute care
Q2) What organism is a natural inhabitant of the oral cavity and responsible for most cases of candidiasis?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q3) Select four oral complications found among patients in palliative care.
A) Crossbite
B) Mucositis
C) Candidiasis
D) Overjet
E) Xerostomia
F) Ulcers
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Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) To effectively establish a positive relationship with the client, the provider should understand _____ needs.
A) physical
B) psychologic
C) spiritual
D) emotional
E) None of the above are correct.
F) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Office policies are a great communication tool for both clients and staff, because it is a way of stating the office philosophies and expectations for all parties involved.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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65
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) Sources for a professional mentor include:
A) former professors or instructors.
B) a past or present employer or supervisor.
C) close colleagues with whom one works.
D) members of a professional organization.
E) all of the above.
Q2) A guaranteed fixed wage that is paid for hourly, daily, weekly, or monthly employment is termed:
A) daily compensation.
B) a fixed salary.
C) fringe benefits.
D) independent contractor.
E) salary plus commission.
Q3) Which of the following would be the best way to learn about a dental office's daily schedule and routine?
A) Complete an online search.
B) Read online reviews about the office.
C) Complete an office observation and interview.
D) Ask clients about the practice.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) The dental hygiene care plan is presented to the client by the dental hygienist. The specific procedures to be provided are described, including the rationale for care and the risks and benefits of the procedures. The client asks some specific questions, and the questions are clearly answered by the dental hygienist. The client then agrees to the care prescribed in the care plan. Which of the following ethical principles is the practitioner upholding?
A) Beneficence
B) Autonomy
C) Justice
D) Veracity
Q2) In the scenario described, if a civil lawsuit were filed and a trial occurred, which of the following levels of proof would the jury or judge use in determining if the dental hygienist was guilty of negligence?
A) Substantial proof
B) Beyond a reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof of intent
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