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Oral Disease Processes Practice Questions - 617 Verified Questions

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Oral Disease Processes

Practice Questions

Course Introduction

Oral Disease Processes explores the fundamental mechanisms underlying the development and progression of diseases affecting the oral cavity. The course covers the etiology, epidemiology, clinical manifestations, and pathogenesis of common oral conditions such as dental caries, periodontal diseases, oral infections, and oral manifestations of systemic diseases. Emphasis is placed on understanding host-pathogen interactions, risk factors, diagnostic techniques, and preventative strategies. Throughout the course, students will engage with case studies and current research to build a comprehensive knowledge base essential for clinical assessment, early detection, and management of oral diseases.

Recommended Textbook

Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 6th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen

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10 Chapters

617 Verified Questions

617 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3635 Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Preliminary Diagnosis of Oral

Lesions

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72276

Sample Questions

Q1) Retrocuspid papillae are located on the: A)palate.

B)floor of the mouth.

C)gingival margin of the lingual aspect of mandibular cuspids.

D)canine eminence.

Answer: C

Q2) Which papillae are elongated in the condition called black hairy tongue?

A)Circumvallate

B)Foliate

C)Filiform

D)Fungiform

Answer: C

Q3) Urticaria is an example of a(n):

A)genetic disorder.

B)developmental disturbance.

C)immediate response to an allergen.

D)immunodeficiency response.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair

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59 Verified Questions

59 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72277

Sample Questions

Q1) The most common site for the pulp polyp is:

A)the occlusal surface of a large open carious tooth.

B)the apex of the tooth.

C)the gingival margin of the tooth.

D)deep in the pulp canal.

Answer: A

Q2) Necrotizing sialometaplasia is thought to result from:

A)lack of blood supply to the affected salivary gland.

B)a sialolith.

C)trauma to the floor of the mouth.

D)pleomorphic adenoma.

Answer: A

Q3) Epulis fissuratum is caused by:

A)Denture adhesive products

B)Poor suction in the palatal vault

C)Poor denture hygiene

D)An ill-fitting denture flange

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 3: Immunity and Immunologic Oral Lesions

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72278

Sample Questions

Q1) A prodromal period begins:

A)one week before the onset of ulcers.

B)one to 2 days before the onset of ulcers.

C)the day the ulcers erupt.

D)seven to 10 days before ulcers erupt.

Answer: B

Q2) The diagnosis of lichen planus is made on the basis of:

A)clinical and radiographic appearance.

B)clinical and histologic appearance.

C)history of the condition.

D)therapeutic medication.

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is a systemic disease associated with aphthous ulcers?

A)Stafne bone cyst

B)Necrotizing sialometaplasia

C)Behçet syndrome

D)Erythema multiforme

Answer: C

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5

Chapter 4: Infectious Diseases

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64 Verified Questions

64 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72279

Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following does not occur as a manifestation of the immune deficiency caused by HIV infection?

A)Candidiasis

B)Hairy leukoplakia

C)Kaposi sarcoma

D)Bilateral parotid atrophy

Q2) Tonsillitis and pharyngitis are caused by group A ß-hemolytic streptococci. These conditions are significant because of their relationship to scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. Which one of the following may be related to heart valve damage?

A)Rheumatic fever

B)Strawberry tongue

C)Scarlet fever

D)Geographic tongue

Q3) In primary syphilis, the oral lesion is called a(n):

A)mucous patch.

B)chancre.

C)gumma.

D)ulcer.

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6

Chapter 5: Developmental Disorders

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72280

Sample Questions

Q1) Deciduous teeth in which bone has fused to cementum and dentin, preventing exfoliation of the deciduous tooth and eruption of the underlying permanent tooth, are:

A)embedded.

B)ankylosed.

C)impacted.

D)erupted.

Q2) Impacted teeth cannot erupt because of:

A)lack of eruptive force.

B)physical obstruction.

C)ankylosis.

D)bone pathology.

Q3) The only hypoplastic defect in a patient's dentition is located on the facial surface of a permanent maxillary central incisor. The most likely cause of this defect is:

A)a dietary deficiency during tooth formation.

B)absence of the primary mandibular central incisor.

C)physical injury of the primary maxillary central incisor.

D)neonatal hypoplasia of the primary anterior teeth.

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Chapter 6: Genetics

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87 Verified Questions

87 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cri du chat

A)Characterized by multiple abnormalities in various organs

B)Down syndrome as a result of nondisjunction

C)Nondisjunction of the X chromosome in the paternal gamete

D)Deletion on the short arm of chromosome 5

E)Fertilized ovum has two X chromosomes plus a Y chromosome

Q2) Permanent change in the arrangement of genetic material

A)Autosomes

B)Gamete

C)Locus

D)Mutation

E)Phenotype

F)Syndrome

Q3) Oral manifestations of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome consist of multiple cysts of the jaws that are:

A)central giant cell granulomas.

B)peripheral giant cell granulomas.

C)odontogenic keratocysts.

D)calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumors.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Neoplasia

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99 Verified Questions

99 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following salivary gland tumors has a "Swiss cheese" appearance under the microscope?

A)Pleomorphic adenoma

B)Monomorphic adenoma

C)Adenoid cystic carcinoma

D)Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Q2) A basal cell carcinoma will _____ metastasize.

A)never

B)rarely

C)often

D)always

Q3) Hyperchromatic

A)Complete surgical removal without cutting into the lesion

B)Deviating from the usual or natural type

C)Confined to the site of origin without an invasion of neighboring tissues

D)Tooth forming

E)Occurring within bone

F)Occurring in various forms

G)Microscopic staining that is more intense than normal

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Nonneoplastic Diseases of Bone

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72283

Sample Questions

Q1) For which of the following diseases of bone is surgical recontouring most often recommended as its treatment modality?

A)Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

B)Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia

C)Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

D)Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia

Q2) Giant cell granulomas located in the gingiva or alveolar mucosa are referred to as central. Giant cell granulomas located within the maxilla or mandible are referred to as peripheral.

A)Both statements are true.

B)Both statements are false.

C)The first statement is true; the second is false.

D)The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q3) The most common type of fibrous dysplasia, characterized by involvement of a single bone, is referred to as:

A)Paget disease.

B)polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.

C)monostotic fibrous dysplasia.

D)central giant cell granuloma.

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases

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72 Verified Questions

72 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72284

Sample Questions

Q1) Hyperparathyroidism may result in bone lesions that appear microscopically to be indistinguishable from a(n):

A)osteogenic sarcoma.

B)osteoma.

C)cemento-osseous dysplasia.

D)central giant cell granuloma.

Q2) A "hair-on-end" pattern may be noted on skull radiographs of a patient with:

A)polycythemia.

B)aplastic anemia.

C)sickle cell anemia.

D)thalassemia.

Q3) Which of the following drugs may be taken during the course of radiation treatment to reduce the severity of radiation-induced xerostomia?

A)Prednisone

B)Pilocarpine hydrochloride

C)Aspirin

D)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

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11

Chapter 10: Diseases Affecting the Temporomandibular

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72285

Sample Questions

Q1) Arthroscopy

A)Method for evaluating and manipulating a joint via the insertion of a camera and instruments

B)Dry, crackling sound

C)Surgical puncture of a joint followed by lavage of joint space

D)Physical examination using pressure of the hand or fingers

E)Inability to fully open the mouth

F)Radiography of a joint after injection of opaque contrast material

G)Noninvasive diagnostic technique that uses radio waves to produce computerized images of internal body tissues

H)Listening to sounds within the body, using a stethoscope

I)Subjective evidence of disease or a physical disorder that is observed by the patient

J)Objective evidence of disease that can be observed by a health care provider rather than by the patient

K)Joint

L)Induced inadvertently by a medical or dental care provider or by medical treatment or a diagnostic procedure

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