Oral Biology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Oral Biology is a comprehensive course that explores the structure, function, and development of the oral and craniofacial tissues. The course covers topics such as tooth development, oral histology, the properties and composition of enamel, dentin, cementum, and oral mucosa, as well as the biology of salivary glands and the periodontal ligament. Students will gain an understanding of the processes involved in mineralization, the oral microbiome, and defense mechanisms within the oral cavity. Emphasis is placed on the clinical relevance of oral tissues in health and disease, laying a foundation for further study in dentistry and related biomedical fields.
Recommended Textbook
Illustrated Dental Embryology Histology and Anatomy 4th Edition by Margaret J. Fehrenbach
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20 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Face and Neck Regions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ region includes the forehead and area above the eyes.
A) infraorbital
B) orbital
C) temporal
D) frontal
Answer: D
Q2) Just inferior to the zygomatic arch and just anterior to the external ear is the:
A) temporomandibular joint.
B) infraorbital region.
C) mental region.
D) parotid gland.
Answer: A
Q3) The lips are outlined from the surrounding skin by a transition area called the: A) philtrum.
B) mucogingival junction.
C) mucocutaneous junction.
D) mandibular symphysis.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Oral Cavity and Pharynx
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Q1) What are the small,elevated structures of specialized mucosa located on the dorsal surfaces of the tongue,some of which are associated with taste buds?
A) Lingual papilla
B) Sulcus terminalis
C) Parotid papilla
D) Foramen cecum
Answer: A
Q2) The structures closest to the lips are termed _____ or labial.
A) lingual
B) facial
C) buccal
D) palatal
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning Fordyce spots is correct?
A) Composed of salivary gland tissue
B) Located on the attached gingiva
C) Composed of sebum from sebaceous tissue
D) Indicate a disease state in the tissue
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) If there is failure of migration of the neural crest cells to the facial region during prenatal development,_____ can develop in the embryo.
A) ectodermal dysplasia
B) fetal alcohol syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) Treacher Collins syndrome
Answer: D
Q2) Found in early prenatal development,the neural tube will form in the future which of the following structures?
A) Heart
B) Spinal cord
C) Face
D) Digestive tract
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Face and Neck Development
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Q1) Which of the following marks the end of the major growth of the lower two thirds of the face?
A) The forehead ceases to grow significantly after age 12.
B) The eruption of the permanent third molars, which occurs at approximately 17 to 21 years of age.
C) The midface and lower face grow more slowly over a prolonged period of time and finally cease to grow late in puberty.
D) The brain ceases its rapid development along with the growth of the upper face.
Q2) The development of the neck parallels the development of the face over time,beginning during the fourth week of prenatal development within the embryonic period and completed during the _____ period.
A) preimplantation
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) both the embryonic and fetal
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Chapter 5: Orofacial Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small paired nasopalatine canals are represented in the mature hard palate by the:
A) median palatine raphe.
B) medial lingual sulcus.
C) incisive foramen.
D) palatal rugae.
Q2) When does the nasal cavity form during prenatal development?
A) During the fourth to eighth week
B) During the fifth to ninth week
C) During the fourth to tenth week
D) During the fifth to twelfth week
Q3) During the sixth week of prenatal development,within the embryonic period,the bilateral maxillary processes give rise to paired:
A) lateral nasal processes.
B) medial nasal processes.
C) palatal shelves.
D) mandibular processes.
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Chapter 6: Tooth Development and Eruption
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Q1) The overlapping period between the primary and permanent dentition is best considered the _____ period.
A) deciduous
B) adult
C) secondary
D) mixed dentition
Q2) Lack of initiation within the dental lamina results in the absence of a single tooth or multiple teeth,producing:
A) supernumerary teeth.
B) anodontia.
C) dens in dente.
D) germination.
Q3) Which part of the tooth germ is the primary source for the periodontal ligament of the tooth?
A) Dental sac
B) Hertwig epithelial root sheath
C) Stratum intermedium
D) Central cells of dental papilla
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8
Chapter 7: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the main hydrolytic enzyme found in lysosomes?
A) Intercellular substance
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Tissue fluid
D) Lysozyme
Q2) How many phases are within mitosis or cell division?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) Organs in the body are know to be able to functioning together as a(n):
A) organ.
B) tissue.
C) cell.
D) system.
Q4) A collection of similarly specialized cells in the body is termed a(n): A) organ.
B) tissue.
C) cell.
D) system.
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Chapter 8: Basic Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following structures separates the epithelium from the connective tissue?
A) Submucosa
B) Basement membrane
C) Periosteum
D) Endosteum
Q2) The macrophages found in the connective tissue are derived from:
A) neutrophils.
B) monocytes.
C) basophils.
D) mast cells.
Q3) By weight,which of the following is considered the most abundant type of basic tissue in body?
A) Nerve tissue
B) Connective tissue
C) Muscle tissue
D) Epithelial tissue
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Chapter 9: Oral Mucosa
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mucogingival junction is absent from which of the following oral surfaces?
A) Buccal surface of the maxillary arch
B) Palatal surface of the maxillary arch
C) Facial surface of the mandibular arch
D) Lingual surface of the mandibular arch
Q2) Which of the following is considered correct regarding hyperkeratinization of the oral mucosa?
A) It commonly occurs on buccal mucosa with the linea alba.
B) It is associated with chronic freezing of the tissue.
C) It is a response to frictional but not chemical trauma.
D) Changes are reversible even if the source of the injury is not removed.
Q3) Melanin pigment for the oral cavity is synthesized in which of the following cells?
A) Melanocytes
B) Melanosomes
C) Keratinocytes
D) Nonkeratinocytes
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11
Chapter 10: Gingival and Dentogingival Junctional Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following occurs with the true apical migration of the epithelial attachment from advanced periodontal disease?
A) Shallower gingival sulcus
B) Formation of a periodontal pocket
C) Association with junctional epithelium lining
D) Tightly covered tooth roots
Q2) Given the turnover time of junctional epithelium,the evaluation of periodontal therapy should occur after _____ days.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
Q3) Which of the following has the highest rate of turnover?
A) Oral epithelium
B) Sulcular epithelium
C) Junctional epithelium
D) All have an equally high rate
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12
Chapter 11: Head and Neck Structures
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Q1) From what structure does the lymph flow out of the lymph node?
A) Afferent vessel
B) Hilus
C) Efferent vessel
D) Lymphatic nodule
Q2) When the pharyngeal tonsils become enlarged as is common in children,they are considered the:
A) lymphatic nodules.
B) follicles.
C) germinal centers.
D) adenoids.
Q3) Which of the following salivary glands is unencapsulated?
A) Submandibular gland
B) Parotid gland
C) Sublingual gland
D) Both parotid and sublingual glands
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Chapter 12: Enamel
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Q1) Which of the following is not a usual way for erosion of enamel to occur?
A) Bulimia
B) Gastric reflux
C) Drinking carbonated drinks
D) Acid production by cariogenic bacteria
Q2) Which of the following are noted as small,dark brushes with their bases near the dentinoenamel junction within mature enamel?
A) Enamel tufts
B) Enamel lamellae
C) Enamel spindles
D) Enamel rods
Q3) Which of the following occurs with the deposition of minerals into mature enamel?
A) Demineralization
B) Erosion
C) Remineralization
D) Abfraction
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Chapter 13: Dentin and Pulp
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Sample Questions
Q1) During cavity preparation of a tooth,care must be taken to preserve the:
A) enamel rod fluid.
B) support of the dentinal tubules.
C) cemental vascularity.
D) vitality of the pulp.
Q2) In what direction do the imbrication lines of von Ebner run?
A) At 45 degrees to the dentinoenamel junction
B) At 90 degrees to the dentinal tubules
C) At 45 degrees to the inner pulpal wall
D) At 90 degrees to the periodontal ligament
Q3) Which zone in the pulp contains a nerve and capillary plexus?
A) Odontoblastic layer
B) Cell-rich zone
C) Pulpal core
D) Cell-free zone
Q4) Which of the following is not associated with dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) Enamel and cementum do not meet
B) Dentin exposed due to caries process
C) Blocking dentinal tubules
D) Branching of dentinal tubules
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Periodontium: Cementum, Alveolar Process, and Periodontal Ligament
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Q1) Which of the following types of dental tissue provides the vascular nutrition for the tooth's cementum?
A) Dentin
B) Epithelial cells
C) Periodontal ligament
D) Alveolar process
Q2) The anchorage of the tooth to the alveolar process is mediated through which of the following?
A) Interdental ligament
B) Sharpey fibers
C) Oxytalan fibers
D) Both Sharpey and oxytalan fibers
Q3) Which of the following terms correctly describes the alveolar bone proper?
A) Lamina propria
B) Cancellous bone
C) Mucoperiosteum
D) Cribriform plate
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Overview of Dentitions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do the incisors function during mastication?
A) Piercing and tearing food
B) Assisting canines with food
C) Biting and cutting food
D) Grinding food
Q2) How do the molars function during mastication?
A) Piercing and tearing food
B) Assisting canines with food
C) Biting and cutting food
D) Grinding food
Q3) Which tooth designation system is most commonly used during orthodontic therapy?
A) Palmer Notation Method
B) Universal Tooth Designation System
C) International Standards Organization Designation System
D) Either the Palmer or Universal systems
Q4) The tooth surface that is toward the midline of the oral cavity is the:
A) distal.
B) mesial.
C) lingual.
D) buccal.
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Chapter 16: Permanent Anterior Teeth
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Q1) Which of the following is a factor that makes the permanent canines stable teeth within the dentition?
A) Rough crown form
B) Short root overall
C) Lingual root concavities
D) Guideposts during lateral deviation
Q2) The number of cusps present on the masticatory surface of a permanent canine is:
A) one.
B) two.
C) three.
D) four.
Q3) Which of the following is a correct statement concerning permanent maxillary canines?
A) Mesial and distal aspects present an oval outline.
B) They resemble the maxillary incisors but are weaker looking.
C) They may also fail to erupt fully, remaining impacted.
D) The single cusp tip is not as sharp as a mandibular one.
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Chapter 17: Permanent Posterior Teeth
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Q1) Which of the following features helps distinguish the permanent right permanent maxillary second premolar from the left?
A) Mesial marginal groove present
B) Differing position of contact areas
C) Lingual cusp offset to mesial
D) Central groove shorter on its mesial part
Q2) Which of the following can cause patients to have problems performing adequate home care on the permanent mandibular premolars?
A) Narrow lingual surfaces
B) Buccal crown inclination
C) Lingual crown inclination
D) Wide lingual surfaces
Q3) How many pulp horns does the permanent mandibular second molar have?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
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19
Chapter 18: Primary Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following complications are associated with extraction of primary molars?
A) Susceptible to fracture during extraction procedures
B) Concrescence with nearby canines
C) Dilaceration of the root trunk
D) Extra root branches
Q2) Approximately how many years do the primary molars need to function during either the primary or mixed dentition period?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
Q3) Which tooth's crown in the primary dentition does not resemble any other crown of either dentition?
A) Primary maxillary canine
B) Primary mandibular canine
C) Primary maxillary first molar
D) Primary maxillary second molar
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20
Chapter 19: Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) All signs and symptoms related to the temporomandibular disorder should also be noted in the patient record,as should any parafunctional habits and:
A) related systemic diseases.
B) biopsy of the joint tissue.
C) laboratory blood workups.
D) scan of the brain.
Q2) Which part of the joint disc of the temporomandibular joint has both blood vessels and nerves?
A) Central region
B) Peripheral region
C) Outer edge
D) Entire disc has both
Q3) The articular eminence of the temporomandibular joint is a smooth,rounded protuberance on the inferior aspect of the zygomatic process and is positioned _____ to the articular fossa.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) medial
D) lateral
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Occlusion
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) not considered part of the three areas of centric contacts or centric stops?
A) Height of contour
B) Marginal ridges
C) Central fossae
D) Occlusal pits
Q2) Open contacts allow for areas of food impaction from opposing cusps called _____ cusps,which can result in trauma to the interdental gingiva.
A) plunging
B) supernumerary
C) supporting
D) talon
Q3) Which profile is present with a Class II malocclusion,division II,in a permanent dentition?
A) Prognathic
B) Mesognathic
C) Retrognathic
D) Mesognathic or retrognathic
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