Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology Exam Preparation Guide - 556 Verified Questions

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Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology Exam Preparation

Guide

Course Introduction

Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology is a specialized course that explores the nature, causes, and effects of diseases affecting the oral cavity, jaws, and associated structures. The course covers the identification and microscopic features of pathological conditions, including developmental disorders, inflammatory diseases, cysts, benign and malignant tumors, and systemic diseases with oral manifestations. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical, radiological, and histopathological findings to facilitate accurate diagnosis and management. Students develop a foundation in pathological terminology, diagnostic procedures, and the implications of disease processes on oral health, preparing them for clinical decision-making and interdisciplinary collaboration in dental practice.

Recommended Textbook

Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlations 6th edition by joseph a. regezi

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16 Chapters

556 Verified Questions

556 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Vesiculobullous Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following herpesviruses is most frequently the cause of recurrent oral and perioral vesicular eruptions?

A)VZV (varicella-zoster)

B)EBV (Epstein-Barr)

C)CMV (cytomegalovirus)

D)HSV (herpes simplex), type 1

E)HSV (herpes simplex), type 2

Answer: D

Q2) Unilateral distribution of cutaneous or mucosal ulcers followed by prolonged post-lesional pain would be associated with which of the following?

A)Primary herpes simplex infection

B)Secondary herpes simplex infections

C)Secondary syphilis

D)Zoster

E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: Ulcerative Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The symptom of pain is a consistent feature of all the following except:

A)Squamous cell carcinoma

B)Secondary herpes

C)Zoster

D)Minor aphthae

E)Acute traumatic mucosal ulcer

Answer: A

Q2) The dentist or hygienist, through careless physical contact, could contract all the following from a diseased patient (with oral lesions) except:

A)Syphilis

B)Tuberculosis

C)Squamous cell carcinoma

D)Histoplasmosis

E)San Joaquin valley fever

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: White Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Appropriate management of geographic tongue is:

A)Observation

B)Excisional biopsy

C)Incisional biopsy

D)Nystatin therapy

E)Antidepressant medication

Answer: A

Q2) Circulating autoantibodies can be demonstrated in which of the following diseases?

A)Minor aphthae

B)Major aphthae

C)Systemic lupus erythematosus

D)Discoid lupus erythematosus

E)Recurrent herpes simplex

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Red-Blue Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following signs and symptoms are consistent with the diagnosis of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A)Arthritis, xerostomia, geographic tongue

B)Atrophic mucosa, dysphagia, anemia

C)Oral aphthae, conjunctivitis, urethritis

D)Telangiectasias, epistaxis, gingival hypertrophy

E)Mucosal pigmentation (lips), intestinal polyps

Q2) Trauma or irritation is believed to be an initiating event for which of the following?

A)Neurofibroma

B)Verruca vulgaris

C)Fibromatosis

D)Pyogenic granuloma

E)All the above

Q3) HIV-associated Kaposi's sarcoma:

A)Is typically seen in men over the age of 60 years

B)Occurs most commonly in the buccal mucosa intraorally

C)Is associated with one of the herpesviruses

D)Has an excellent prognosis

E)Presents as a painful nonhealing ulcer

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Chapter 5: Pigmented Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Oral mucosal lesions may exhibit a red to blue to black color for one of several reasons. These would include all the following except:

A)Increased number of submucosal vessels

B)Submucosal extravasation of blood

C)Deposition of foreign material

D)Increased thickness of epithelium

E)Hyperemia (vascular congestion)

Q2) In addition to multiple neurofibromas, what other lesions are seen as part of the syndrome neurofibromatosis?

A)Traumatic neuromas

B)Mucosal vascular malformations

C)Intestinal polyps

D)Cutaneous pigmented patches

E)Odontogenic keratocysts

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Chapter 6: Verrucal-Papillary Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Oral verrucous carcinoma:

A)Is usually treated with surgery

B)May be related to the use of smokeless tobacco

C)Is microscopically well differentiated

D)Rarely metastasizes to the lung

E)All the above

Q2) A firm asymptomatic submucosal lump, measuring 1 ´ 1 cm, appeared in the posterior hard palate of a 27-year-old man. The duration of the lesion was believed to be approximately 1 month. Clinical differential diagnosis should include all of the following except:

A)Lymphoma

B)Mucocele

C)Malignant salivary gland tumor

D)Benign salivary gland tumor

E)Squamous papilloma

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Chapter 7: Connective Tissue Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Acute leukemias, especially monocytic leukemias, may cause oral manifestations of bleeding and:

A)Generalized gingival hyperplasia

B)Mucous extravasation

C)Focal lymphoid hyperplasia

D)Melanosis

E)All the above

Q2) Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia is a frequent microscopic finding of a neural-derived benign tumor in which granular cells expand submucosa. This lesion is known as:

A)Traumatic neuroma

B)Neurofibroma

C)Neurilemmoma

D)Leiomyoma

E)None of the above

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9

Chapter 8: Salivary Gland Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 16-year-old patient complained of a 1 ´ 1 cm nontender mass in his upper lip. The lesion was nonulcerated and was composed of a dilated duct containing a sialolith. This would be which of the following?

A)Focal fibrous hyperplasias

B)Traumatic neuroma

C)Fibromatosis

D)Mucous extravasation phenomenon

E)None of the above

Q2) Trauma is the cause of which of the following?

A)Static (Stafne) bone cyst

B)MEN III-associated mucosal neuroma

C)Mucous extravasation phenomenon

D)Dermoid cyst

E)None of the above

Q3) Necrotizing sialometaplasia:

A)Occurs in the palate

B)May be confused with carcinoma clinically

C)May be confused with carcinoma microscopically

D)Is related to ischemic necrosis

E)All the above

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Chapter 9: Lymphoid Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Oral extranodal lymphomas are most likely to present as ulcerated or nonulcerated masses in which of the following sites?

A)Buccal mucosa

B)Tongue

C)Palate

D)Floor of the mouth

E)Lower lip

Q2) A 25-year-old woman developed a recurrent mass in her buccal mucosa. On biopsy, the lesion was described as a benign spindle cell proliferation. All the following are consistent with this description except:

A)Fibromatosis

B)Low-grade fibrosarcoma

C)Nodular fasciitis

D)Fibrous histiocytoma

E)Lymphoma

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Chapter 10: Cysts of the Jaws and Neck

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 16-year-old patient was found to have a unicystic radiolucency in the body of the mandible between the roots of vital teeth nos. 28 and 29. Thin parakeratinized epithelium was found lining the cystic space on biopsy. This is a(n):

A)Lateral root cyst

B)Traumatic bone cyst

C)Odontogenic keratocyst

D)Laterally positioned periapical cyst

E)Cyst of dental lamina

Q2) The static bone cyst, if biopsied, exhibits which of the following microscopic features?

A)Virtually nothing, as it represents a dead space

B)Hematopoietic tissue

C)Fibrous tissue lined by respiratory-type epithelium

D)Salivary gland and other soft tissues that normally reside in the area

E)Granulation tissue and giant cells

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Chapter 11: Odontogenic Tumors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A radiolucent odontogenic tumor was composed completely of loose connective tissue. It had an appearance that had some resemblance to dental pulp. This is a(n):

A)Ameloblastoma

B)Ameloblastic fibroma

C)Odontogenic myxoma

D)Complex odontoma

E)Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Q2) Lung metastasis is a well-documented complication after surgical treatment of which of the following?

A)Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

B)Odontogenic keratocyst

C)Odontogenic myxoma

D)Cementoblastoma

E)None of the above

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Chapter 12: Benign Nonodontogenic Tumors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following could be classified as a benign fibro-osseous lesion?

A)Fibrous dysplasia

B)Idiopathic histiocytosis

C)Ewing's tumor

D)Odontogenic myxoma

E)Hematopoietic bone marrow defect

Q2) Patients with central giant cell granulomas typically have which of the following abnormal laboratory findings?

A)Elevated immunoglobulins

B)Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase

C)Elevated serum acid phosphatase

D)Elevated serum calcium

E)None of the above

Q3) The ossifying fibroma is characterized clinically by:

A)Slow growth

B)Well-defined borders

C)Benign fibro-osseous microscopic appearance

D)Appearance in young adults

E)All the above

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14

Chapter 13: Inflammatory Jaw Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jaw pain is a feature most often associated with:

A)Periapical granuloma

B)Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

C)Periapical abscess

D)Odontogenic keratocyst

E)Dentigerous cyst

Q2) A periosteal reaction consisting of concentric layering of expanding cortical bone known as "onion skin" is most often associated with which of the following?

A)Hyperparathyroidism

B)Burkitt's lymphoma

C)Garré's osteomyelitis

D)Ameloblastoma

E)Odontogenic keratocyst

Q3) Garré's osteomyelitis is usually associated with which of the following?

A)Trauma to the jaws

B)Immune dysfunction

C)Gingivitis

D)Actinomycotic infection

E)Decayed mandibular molar

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Malignancies of the Jaws

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are signs or symptoms that are associated with malignancy in the jaw except:

A)Uniformly widened periodontal membrane space around a tooth (teeth)

B)Vertical tooth mobility

C)Hypercementosis

D)Premature loss of deciduous teeth

E)Acquired malocclusion

Q2) The Epstein-Barr virus may be associated with the etiology and pathogenesis of which of the following jaw lesions?

A)Garré's disease

B)Ewing's tumor

C)Burkitt's lymphoma

D)Central giant cell granuloma

E)Osteogenesis imperfecta

Q3) Osteosarcoma is known to be complication of which of the following?

A)Neurofibromatosis

B)MEN III

C)Paget's disease

D)Gardner's syndrome

E)All the above

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Chapter 15: Metabolic and Genetic Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Impacted and supernumerary teeth are characteristically seen in which of the following?

A)McCune-Albright syndrome

B)Cleidocranial dysplasia

C)Gardner's syndrome

D)Ectodermal dysplasia

E)Regional odontodysplasia

Q2) Paget's disease:

A)Typically occurs in teenagers

B)Is caused by excessive production of growth hormone

C)Results in premature loss of teeth

D)Predisposes the patient to bone fracture and infection

E)All the above

Q3) The rare genetic disorder that results in generalized bony sclerosis is known as:

A)Cherubism

B)Plasma cell myeloma

C)von Recklinghausen's disease

D)Fibrous dysplasia

E)Albers-Schonberg disease

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Chapter 16: Abnormalities of Teeth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is typically associated with pulpitis and periapical inflammation following wear of a supernumerary cusp?

A)Amelogenesis imperfecta

B)Regional odontodysplasia

C)Turner's tooth

D)Dens evaginatus

E)Dens invaginatus

Q2) Serum calcium would be significantly elevated in which of the following?

A)Central giant cell granuloma

B)Cherubism

C)Ameloblastoma

D)Langerhans cell disease (idiopathic histiocytosis) of the mandible

E)None of the above

Q3) Tooth extraction is made more difficult by all the following except:

A)Paget's disease

B)Pulp stones

C)Dilaceration

D)Concrescence

E)Albers-Schonberg disease

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