Operations Strategy
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Operations Strategy is a comprehensive course that explores how organizations can develop and implement effective strategies to enhance their operational capabilities and gain competitive advantage. Topics include the alignment of operations with business objectives, the design and management of supply chains, capacity planning, process innovation, and performance measurement. Through case studies and analytical frameworks, students learn to critically evaluate and formulate operations strategies that respond to dynamic market conditions, technological advances, and global pressures, preparing them to make informed decisions that drive organizational success.
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Chapter 1: Managing Your Legal Affairs
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48802
Sample Questions
Q1) If a complaint regarding a lawyer's conduct cannot otherwise be resolved,and the law society decides the complaint is valid,then the lawyer will face automatic disbarment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) How has the lawyer-client relationship been affected by computers and the Internet?
Answer: There is now an abundance of legal information accessible to non-lawyers,making it possible for non-lawyers to conduct some legal research without the assistance of a lawyer.
Q3) What is the main role of a lawyer?
Answer: To provide legal advice relevant to a client's situation.
Q4) Why should a code of business conduct be used by a small business?
Answer: An effective code of conduct is one of the best ways to ensure the long-term adoption of ethical behaviour by employees.
Q5) What term can be used to describe someone who understands the role of a lawyer,when and how to retain one,and how to manage the lawyer-client relationship?
Answer: A sophisticated client.
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Chapter 2: Introduction to the Legal System
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162 Verified Questions
162 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the relationship between statutes,equity,and common law in our legal system,including a brief discussion on the historical development of these three major aspects of our law.
Answer: Students should explain how equity and common law are judge-made law and that statutes are made by parliament or by the provincial legislatures.They should also explain that equity was created as a supplement to the common law to overcome its harshness and rigidity.Since parliament is supreme,its acts override judge-made law,and therefore statutes override common law and equity.If there is no overriding statute,a judge will apply either equity or common law,depending on the subject matter and what is asked for in a given case.The constitutional authority of the body passing the statute with reference to the Constitution Act,1867 and the Charter will determine its validity.The statute will normally only override judge-made law if its provisions are specific and unambiguous.
Q2) Stare decisis can contribute to stagnation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The body of law developed by the Courts of Chancery is called ________.
Answer: equity
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Resolution of Disputes: The Courts and Alternatives to Litigation
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221 Verified Questions
221 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does arbitration require in order to be effective?
Answer: The parties must disclose their positions and evidence to each other.
Q2) How is the procedure in small claims court different from that followed in superior trial court?
Answer: It is simplified and shortened procedurally.
Q3) Under what circumstances can a creditor take steps even before judgment to seize property or attach funds?
Answer: Rarely will this be allowed.Usually a person has to go through the process of obtaining judgment before he obtains such rights.However,if there is some sort of indication that the funds or property might be lost,the court will in rare circumstances allow the attachment of those funds (garnishment)or chattels (seizure).They are usually limited to bank accounts or other forms of deposit or debts,not wages.
Q4) Indicate the jurisdiction of the Federal Court.
Answer: The Federal Court deals with disputes between the federal government and individuals or deals with matters that fall exclusively within federal jurisdiction,such as copyrights,patent trademarks,and admiralty matters.
Q5) What is the standard of proof used in a criminal matter?
Answer: Beyond a reasonable doubt.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Intentional Torts and Torts Impacting Business
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152 Verified Questions
152 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following actions would result in a successful tort action by the person or persons wronged? Assume that all the persons involved learn these facts.
A)Mr.Meen wrote a letter to the editor of the Vancouver Sun in which he criticized the mayor of Vancouver.
B)When Jed accidentally dropped a board and broke Al's glasses,Al threw a cup at Jed,but Jed saw it coming and moved away in time to avoid being hit.
C)A store detective stopped Joan after she left the shop because he saw her leave with candy she didn't pay for.She had slipped the unpaid-for candy into her pocket.He detained her for 20 minutes until the police came.
D)An accountant accurately prepared the financial statements of a corporation that he knew would be used by a potential investor,Mr.Lam.Lam,relying on the statements,invested $10 000 and lost it all.
E)Ed became sick from consuming too much alcohol that he had purchased from the store.
Q2) Malicious prosecution requires a criminal conviction to have taken place.
A)True B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Negligence,Professional Liability,and Insurance
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156 Verified Questions
156 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe three different types of insurance that a business person might obtain in relationship to his business.
Q2) Often,a business suffering a loss from a fire will have insurance to cover the property damage,but there will be nothing to cover the revenue losses the business suffers during the period it is closed down for repairs.What form of insurance will cover the latter issue?
A)liability insurance
B)disability insurance
C)business interruption insurance
D)property insurance
E)professional liability insurance
Q3) With respect to limitation clauses in standard form insurance contracts,on what basis do the courts typically interpret clause ambiguity?
Q4) Strict liability means that liability can be established even when there is no fault.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Give three examples where tort standards have been modified by legislation.
Q6) What is the remoteness test used for?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Elements of a Contract: Consensus and Consideration
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184 Verified Questions
184 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an agreement is one-sided,and only one of the parties is getting something from the deal,it is called a gratuitous promise and the courts will not enforce it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true with respect to the application of contract law to the Internet?
A)If the basic requirements of acceptance are not met,an offer accepted by e-mail is binding on both parties.
B)Clicking an "I Accept" button on a website is considered the equivalent of achieving the consensus element of a binding contract.
C)Online communications are governed by the postbox rule.
D)No jurisdictions have passed any legislation making electronic communications the equivalent of written documents for legal purposes.
E)Internet contracts are governed by the federal Uniform Electronic Commerce Act,in effect throughout Canada.
Q3) List the five ingredients necessary to form a contract.
Q4) Explain the postbox rule and discuss its relevancy in the modern business world.
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Chapter 7: The Elements of a Contract: Capacity, Legality, and Intention
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162 Verified Questions
162 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of contracts would not be considered illegal?
A)Contracts that reasonably restraint trade
B)Contracts to commit a tort
C)Contracts preventing someone from marrying
D)Contracts that obstruct justice
E)Contracts that promote litigation
Q2) Indicate what types of contracts are binding on infants.
Q3) Just what has to be in writing to satisfy the requirements of the Statute of Frauds?
Q4) If the relationship between the contracting parties is primarily commercial in nature,what do the courts presume?
Q5) Indicate the distinction between a guarantee and an indemnity.
Q6) What does the decision in Bayview Credit Union Ltd.v.Daigle illustrate?
A)Businesspeople are at a risk when dealing with minors as if they are adults.
B)Parents are responsible for contracts made by their children.
C)Contracts made by children are void.
D)When a minor enters into a contract,there is no consideration.
E)A person under the age of majority cannot intend to enter into a contract.
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Q7) "A verbal contract is every bit as binding as a written one." Discuss the validity of that statement.
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Chapter 8: Factors Affecting the Contractual Relationship
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182 Verified Questions
182 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the significance of an assignment being "statutory" rather than merely an "equitable" assignment?
Q2) Explain what is meant by "privity of contract."
Q3) The principle that courts will not permit outside evidence to contradict clear wording of a contract is known as ________.
Q4) Explain what remedies are available to the victim where misrepresentation becomes a term of the contract.
Q5) Explain what is meant by unjust enrichment.
Q6) Indicate under which circumstances the remedy of rescission might not be available.
Q7) In order to succeed in suing for a misrepresentation,the misrepresentation must have been in writing.
A)True
B)False
Q8) An assignee is "subject to the equities," means that a negotiable instrument can never convey more than existed between the original parties.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: The End of the Contractual Relationship
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173 Verified Questions
173 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person informs you before performance is due that he is not going to perform the contract,you don't have to wait to see if he does perform.You can make other arrangements and sue right away.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the result of a repudiation?
Q3) "For a contract to be frustrated,performance of the contractual obligation must be impossible." Discuss the accuracy of that statement.
Q4) Specific performance involves a court order to do something (to perform the contract),whereas a(n)________ usually involves an order to refrain from some offensive conduct.
A)injunction
B)damages award
C)equitable remedy
D)quantum meruit award
E)limitation period
Q5) Discuss how and why promissory estoppel might come into play when a contract is being discharged or changed by agreement.
Q6) Explain how a fundamental breach affects the application of an exemption clause.
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Chapter 10: Agency and Partnership
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214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A principal whose identity is concealed from the third parties with whom the agent is dealing is known as ________.
Q2) When an agent has been dealing with a third party for an undisclosed principal and there is a default,what rights are available to the third party?
Q3) Societies are separate legal entities,separate and apart from the members who make them up.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain when a group of people would create a society.
Q5) When the object of the agency relationship becomes illegal,the agency agreement is frustrated and any authority terminated.
A)True
B)False
Q6) "Partners must make clear in their partnership agreement any limitations on authority they wish to impose on each other when entering into contracts with outsiders." Discuss the accuracy of this statement.
Q7) Explain what must be done to create a limited partnership.
Q8) Explain how the principle of fiduciary duty works in a partnership relationship.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Corporations
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150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joe is an environmental activist and he acquired shares in Big Forestry Ltd.(a forestry corporation),only for the purpose of undermining Big Forestry Ltd.by speaking against their practices at annual shareholders' meetings and getting access to confidential information.Joe spoke against Big Forestry Ltd.at every opportunity.Explain his legal obligations to the corporation under these circumstances.
Q2) A share interest in the indebtedness of a corporation that can be secured against specific assets is known as a ________.
Q3) Shareholders do not owe a duty to the corporation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shareholders are participants in the corporation,whereas ________ are simply creditors.
A)receivers
B)trustees
C)bondholders
D)preferred shareholders
E)directors
Q5) What is a share?
Q6) To what does the term "due diligence" refer?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Employment
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164 Verified Questions
164 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is certification obtained?
Q2) A lockout involves picketing employees prohibiting both management and other employees from crossing the picket line.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about the employer-employee relationship?
A)The critical factor in this relationship is control.That is,the employer tells the employee not only what to do but also how to do it.
B)An employee for a company could not also be an agent at the same time for the company.
C)One responsibility of an employer is to provide the employee with lifetime work availability.
D)An employee does not owe a fiduciary duty to his or her employer.
E)If an employer contracts to paint Mr.Shore's barn and sends the employee out to do the painting,if the employee is not paid he can sue his employer or Mr.Shore for his wage.
Q4) What is meant by secondary picketing?
Q5) What is the significance of a union becoming certified?
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Chapter 13: Intellectual Property
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joe wanted to start up a restaurant business.He did some research and found out McDonald's had not properly registered its trademark,the golden arches,in his particular area.Joe used a similar pair of arches over his restaurant and started business.Explain any danger he might face.
Q2) What qualifications must be met in order for something to be patentable?
Q3) "If a Trademark confuses the public it may be an infringement." Discuss what factors the court considers when determining if an infringement has occurred.
Q4) What is the period of protection associated with patent law?
Q5) Which international agreements and treaties influenced the 2012 amendments to the Copyright Act?
Q6) Which of the following is not a remedy for a copyright infringement?
A)Interlocutory injunction
B)Anton Piller order
C)Permanent injunction
D)Certiorari
E)Damages
Q7) Indicate the kinds of things that are covered by trademark legislation.
Q8) What period of protection is granted under industrial design legislation?
Q9) What is an interlocutory injunction?
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Chapter 14: Real and Personal Property and Protection of the Environment
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The will read,"To my beloved wife,I leave our matrimonial home for life,remainder to our son,Ivan." Ivan,the adult son,no longer lived in Manitoba.Upon the husband's death,his wife remarried and moved out of the matrimonial home,but she allowed her friend Tilly to live there.Upon learning that his mother had moved out,Ivan considered moving back to the home.Which one of the following is true?
A)Ivan has the legal right to return to the home because,as a blood relative,he has a better right to live there than Tilly does.
B)Ivan has the legal right to return to the home because,as the remainderman,he has a better right to live there than Tilly does.
C)Ivan's legal right to return to the home does not arise until the death of his mother.
D)If the wife willed the home to her new husband,upon her death the new husband would inherit the home.
E)If the wife sold her interest to Tilly,Tilly could stay in the home until she (Tilly)dies regardless of when the wife dies.
Q2) Indicate how the obligation on innkeepers has been modified by statute.
Q3) Explain what is meant by a landlord's obligation to provide quiet enjoyment.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Priority of Creditors
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111 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Real and personal property can be used to secure a loan.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A company named Printers World Ltd.bought a $9000 plotter secured by a Security Agreement and,because of business reverses,is unable to make the payments.Which of the following is accurate with respect to the legal position of the parties?
A)The seller could seize the goods only if it obtained a court order.
B)The seller could seize the goods without a court order only if it had properly registered the conditional sale contract.
C)The seller could seize the goods but,before resale can take place,the debtor must be given notice and an opportunity to redeem.
D)The seller could only seize the goods and could not instead opt to sue the company.
E)The seller could seize and sell the same day because it had already waited three months after default before taking any action.
Q3) Where,in the face of default,goods are repossessed and resold,but the amount recovered is not enough to cover what is owing,what are the rights of the creditor?
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Sales and Consumer Protection
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153 Verified Questions
153 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sam went to Joe's garden shop and agreed to purchase a particular bin of bark mulch.The seller,Joe,agreed and said that he would just weigh it,figure out the price,and deliver it tomorrow.In the meantime,who has title to the bark mulch?
Q2) Explain the importance of the provisions of the Sale of Goods Act relating to fitness and quality of the goods.
Q3) Distinguish between a cheque and a bill of exchange.
Q4) With F.O.B.contracts,title and risk always transfer at the seller's place of business.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To which one of the following would the Sale of Goods Act not apply?
A)A meal in a restaurant
B)A contract for the vacant sale of a ranch
C)A contract for future goods when title will pass in the future
D)A contract for the purchase of a car
E)A contract for the sale of tangible personal property
Q6) Discuss the function of the federal Competition Act and the role it plays in consumer protection.
Q7) Distinguish between conditions and warranties in a sale of goods contract.
Page 18
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