Operations Management Test Questions
Course Introduction
Operations Management is a course that explores the fundamental principles and practices involved in managing the processes that produce goods and services. It covers key topics such as process analysis, inventory management, quality control, supply chain coordination, and strategic decision-making. Students will learn how to optimize resources, improve efficiency, and enhance quality within organizations, gaining practical skills through case studies and real-world applications. The course prepares participants to address operational challenges and to contribute to achieving organizational competitiveness and customer satisfaction.
Recommended Textbook Information Technology Project Management 9th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refers to the process in which organizations group and manage projects and programs as a portfolio of investments that contribute to the entire enterprise's success.
Answer: Project portfolio management
Q2) Which characteristic highlights a difference between projects and operations?
A) Projects are undertaken to sustain an organization's business whereas operations are not.
B) Operations are undertaken to create unique products, services, or results whereas projects are not.
C) Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization's operations are ongoing in nature.
D) Operations have well-defined objectives whereas projects do not need to have a unique purpose.
Answer: C
Q3) A project manager's primary role is to provide the funding for a project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Soft skills are also known as _____ skills.
Answer: human relations
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Chapter 2: The Project Management Information
Technology
Context
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Q1) In which product life cycle the scope, schedule, and cost are determined early, and changes to scope are carefully managed?
A) Iterative
B) Incremental
C) Predictive
D) Adaptive
Answer: C
Q2) Most colleges and universities have very strong functional organizations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When you separate business and organizational issues from project management planning, you do a better job of ensuring project success.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The three spheres of systems management are business, organization, and _____. Answer: technology
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Chapter 3: The Project Management Process Groups
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a cross-functional team of five to nine people who organize themselves and the work to produce the desired results for each sprint.
Answer: Scrum team development team
Q2) In the Scrum method, team members work as a self-directed group coached by the ScrumMaster.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What important Scrum artifact is used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process?
A) WBS
B) sprint backlog
C) burndown chart
D) product backlog
Answer: C
Q4) _________ issues often occur during project execution, especially conflicts.
Answer: Human resource
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Chapter 4: Project Integration Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refer to undesirable situations that prevent an organization from achieving its goals.
Q2) Which document recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management?
A) stakeholder register
B) risk register
C) directive
D) project charter
Q3) Which process includes defining project scope, benefits, and constraints?
A) project planning
B) business area analysis
C) resource allocation
D) information technology strategy planning
Q4) An annual discount factor is a multiplier for each year based on the discount rate and year.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) _____ involves analyzing a company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, and is used to aid in strategic planning.
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Chapter 5: Project Scope Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hierarchy is used to show the levels of _____ in the WBS.
Q2) Many information technology projects also require detailed functional and design specifications for developing software, which also should be referenced in the detailed scope statement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which process involves developing a working replica of the system or some aspect of the system?
A) Prototyping
B) Variance
C) Decomposition
D) Use case modeling
Q4) Which output documents how project needs will be analyzed, documented, and managed?
A) requirements traceability matrix
B) requirements management plan
C) WBS
D) project scope statement
Q5) _____ includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what work is or is not included in a project.
7
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Chapter 6: Project Schedule Management
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Q1) Which is true of dummy activities?
A) They have long durations.
B) They show logical relationships between activities.
C) They have a large range of resources.
D) They have limited time periods.
Q2) A backward pass through the network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity sequencing. A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.
Q5) Start-to-finish relationships are the most frequently used dependencies between activities. A)True B)False
Q6) In a Gantt chart, thick black bars represent milestones achieved in a project. A)True B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Project Cost Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an input of the process of controlling costs?
A) cost forecasts
B) work performance data
C) change requests
D) scope baseline
Q2) What is the first step in project cost management?
A) allocate project cost estimates to individual material resources
B) plan how costs will be managed
C) control project costs and monitor cost performance
D) develop several estimates of costs for different types of resources
Q3) The primary output of the planning cost management process is a change request.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which method is used for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project?
A) Critical path analysis
B) Cash flow analysis
C) Present value analysis
D) Requirements analysis
Q5) Describe three tools used in developing a good cost estimate.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Project Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testing as a stage is important only at the end of an information technology product development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is one of Juran's ten steps to quality improvement?
A) An organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals.
B) An organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators.
C) An organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
D) An organization should avoid "keeping score" in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement.
Q3) The purpose of _____ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
Q4) In a(n) _____, the closer data points are to a diagonal line, the more closely the two variables are related.
Q5) List and briefly describe the three project quality management processes.
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Chapter 9: Project Resource Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Legitimate power involves using personal knowledge and expertise to get people to change their behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Managers who believe in McGregor's _____ assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.
Q3) Herzberg called factors that cause job satisfaction _____.
Q4) The _____ is a tool to measure the individual needs of different people using McClelland's categories.
Q5) In the Tuckman model, what occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate?
A) performing
B) norming
C) forming
D) storming
Q6) _____ should receive frequent performance feedback, and although money is not an important motivator to them, it is an effective form of feedback.
Q7) What is a staffing management plan?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Project Communications Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____ forces meeting organizers to plan the meeting and gives potential participants the chance to decide whether they need to attend.
Q2) What is performance reporting? What are some methods used for performance reporting?
Q3) Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ are journals on the Web that allow users to write entries, respond to another poster's comments, create links, upload pictures, and post comments to journal entries.
Q5) The main goal of controlling communications is to ensure the optimal flow of information throughout the entire _____.
Q6) What is e-mail communication is most suited for?
A) assessing commitment to a project
B) building consensus among disputing parties
C) mediating a conflict between multiple parties
D) communicating simple information
Q7) What are the three main processes in project communications management? Briefly describe each process.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Project Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Project teams sometimes use _____, which are unplanned responses to risk events, when they do not have contingency plans in place.
Q2) The lower the earned monetary value calculation for a project, the chances of project success is higher.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?
A) identifying risks
B) planning risk management
C) performing qualitative risk analysis
D) performing quantitative risk analysis
Q5) _____ involves accepting the consequences should a risk occur.
Q6) A(n) _____ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Project Procurement Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____ is also known as a tender or quote, short for quotation.
Q2) What is the first step in project procurement management?
A) closing procurement management.
B) controlling procurements.
C) conducting procurements.
D) planning procurement management.
Q3) A(n) _____ is a contract clause that allows the buyer or supplier to end the contract.
Q4) A(n) _____ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different approaches for meeting buyer needs.
Q5) The fee in a CPFF contract constantly varies even when the scope of a contract remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and briefly describe the main processes of project procurement management.
Q7) A(n) _____ decision is one in which an organization decides if it is in its best interests to make certain products or perform certain services inside the organization, or if it is better to buy them from an outside organization.
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Q8) _____ contracts are a hybrid of fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.
Chapter 13: Project Stakeholder Management
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Q1) The stakeholder register is the output of the _____ stakeholders process of project stakeholder management.
A) identifying B) planning
C) executing D) monitoring
Q2) Stakeholders might change during a project due to employee turnover, partnerships, and other events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Though stakeholders cannot be controlled, their level of engagement can be monitored.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a stakeholder register and what information must be included in it?
Q5) A(n) _____ stakeholder is one who is aware of the project and its potential impacts and actively engaged in helping it succeed.
Q6) A(n) _____ is a tool that is used to document, monitor, and track problems that need resolution.
Page 15
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