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Operations Management focuses on the efficient and effective processes involved in the production and delivery of goods and services. This course covers key concepts such as process analysis, supply chain management, quality control, inventory management, and project planning. Students will explore techniques for optimizing operations, managing resources, and improving productivity within organizations. Emphasis is placed on both strategic decision-making and practical tools for managing operations in a variety of industries, preparing students to tackle real-world challenges in operations environments.
Recommended Textbook Management 8th Edition by Richard L. Daft
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21 Chapters
3481 Verified Questions
3481 Flashcards
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174 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List five of Mintzberg's ten managerial roles.
Answer: Any five of the following -- monitor, spokesperson, disseminator, figurehead, leader, liaison, entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and negotiator.
Q2) Matt Richards is the office manager of a local accounting firm. His level in the management hierarchy is that of a(n)
A) first-line manager.
B) middle manager.
C) top manager.
D) consultant.
E) operative.
Answer: A
Q3) Of all management duties, one of the things managers like the least is:
A) financial planning
B) controlling activities
C) planning for future decisions
D) handling paperwork
E) networking
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) To survive, closed systems must interact with the environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Although team leadership is critical, in learning organizations the traditional boss is practically eliminated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Outputs, from a systems theory viewpoint, are the material, human, financial, or information resources used to produce goods and services.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The ____________________ view of management is an integration of the case and universalist viewpoints.
Answer: contingency
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Sample Questions
Q1) A culture that is a results-oriented that values competitiveness, aggressiveness, personal initiative, and willingness to work long and hard to achieve results is called
Answer: achievement culture
Q2) When Miami Herald launches a Spanish-language newspaper, El Nuevo Herald, with articles emphasizing Hispanic, Cuban, and Latin American news and sports, it is responding to changes in __________ environment.
A) sociocultural
B) technological
C) economic
D) competitors
E) suppliers
Answer: A
Q3) When environmental factors change rapidly, the organization experiences _________________________ uncertainty.
Answer: very high
Q4) The ____________________ environment includes the sectors that conduct day-to-day transactions within the organization.
Answer: Task
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________________ refers to the frustration and anxiety that result from constantly being subjected to strange and unfamiliar cues about what to do and how to do it.
Q2) When organization managers have a __________ attitude, they treat employees as resources to be used.
A) ethnocentric
B) humanistic
C) instrumental
D) pluralistic
E) performance
Q3) __________ reflects a cultural preference for cooperation, group decision making, and quality of life.
A) Individualism
B) Collectivism
C) Masculinity
D) Femininity
E) Power distance
Q4) A preference for a tightly knit social framework in which individuals look after one another and organizations protect their members' interests refers to
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is considered a decision that enables an individual or company to benefit at society's expense?
A) A legal behavior
B) An unethical behavior
C) An economic responsibility
D) A discretionary responsibility
E) A responsible behavior
Q2) When Earth Day was first celebrated in 1980, environmentalists were considered by most business leaders to be an extremist fringe group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When values and standards are written into the legal system, it is referred to as
Q4) Individuals, at the preconventional level, are concerned with external rewards and punishments and obey authority to avoid detrimental personal consequences.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe each of the three pillars of an ethical organization.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Good Tire Company is at the stage where if financing is available and it is properly managed, rapid growth can occur. What stage is the Good Tire Company experiencing?
A) Resource maturity
B) Takeoff
C) Survival
D) Success
E) Start-up
Q2) According to the Small Business Administration, small businesses employ more than 90 percent of the private workforce in the United States and are responsible for 85 percent of all business innovations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the survival stage of growth, the main problems are producing the product or service and obtaining customers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) ____________________ is an unincorporated business owned by two or more people.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the containment stage of crisis management, the organization should "get the awful truth out" to employees only as soon as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________________ planning done by a few individuals in a complex and competitive business environment no longer works.
Q3) MBO refers to managing by opportunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________________________ and plans are the responsibilities of middle managers.
Q5) According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 7, effective policies governing the use of e-mail include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) make clear that all e-mail and its content are the property of the company.
B) tie the policy to the company's sexual harassment policy.
C) establish guidelines for deleting or retaining messages.
D) consider having policies pop up on users' screen when they log on.
E) all of these are recommended.
Q6) List the five characteristics of effective goals.
Q7) List the four major activities that must occur in order for MBO to succeed.
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Q1) Effective implementation is not a necessity if the strategies are truly creative.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these refers to the modification of product design and advertising strategies to suit the specific needs of individual countries?
A) Domestic strategy
B) Global strategy
C) Transnational strategy
D) Multidomestic strategy
E) Market design strategy
Q3) Strategic planning has taken on new importance in today's world of globalization, deregulation, advancing technology, and changing demographics and lifestyles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the three levels of strategy in an organization.
Q5) The question How do we support the business-level competitive strategy? concerns _________________________ strategy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonprogrammed decisions are made in response to situations that are A) unique.
B) unstructured.
C) important to the organization.
D) all of these
E) unique and important to the organization.
Q2) Freddie is a manager at Monster Catchers. Monster Catchers is currently operating in an environment of high uncertainty. As a result, Freddie will A) likely be making programmed decisions.
B) probably have an easy time generating alternatives.
C) probably have a difficult time generating alternatives.
D) likely rely on the classical model of decision making.
E) wait until environment becomes certain.
Q3) ____________________ means that a decision has clear-cut goals and that good information is available, but the future outcomes associated with each alternative are subject to chance.
Q4) Coalition building is the process of forming alliances among managers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is an incorrect fit in a stable organizational environment?
A) A tight structure
B) A rigid structure
C) A functional structure
D) A horizontal structure
E) A vertical structure
Q2) Which department performs tasks that reflect the organization's primary goals and mission?
A) Line
B) Staff
C) Primary
D) Functional
E) Strategic planning
Q3) A loose, horizontal structure in a stable environment is inefficient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ______________________________ is an unbroken line of authority that links all persons in an organization and shows who reports to whom.
Q5) What is(are) the difference(s) between cross-functional and permanent teams?
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Q1) Culture change refers to a major shift in the norms, values, attitudes, and mindset of the entire organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When users have power to resist, coercion tactic should be used for overcoming resistance to change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mergers/acquisitions, organizational decline, and conflict management are the three types of current problems that organizational development managers face.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ symbolizes to all employees that the change is important for the organization.
A) Education
B) Coercion
C) Participation
D) Negotiation
E) Top management support
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Q1) The process of observing and evaluating an employee's performance, recording the assessment, and providing feedback to the employee is referred to as
A) orientation training.
B) classroom training.
C) a paper-and-pencil test.
D) performance appraisal.
E) none of these.
Q2) Which Health/Safety law requires continued health insurance coverage (paid by employee) following termination?
A) Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
B) Health Maintenance Organization Act
C) Occupational Safety and Health Act
D) Family and Medical Leave Act
E) None of these
Q3) Human resource management is the set of activities that are undertaken to attract, develop and maintain an effective work force.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the most frequently used selection devices.
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Q1) Age, race, and ethnicity are included in the primary dimension of diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ means the hiring and inclusion of people with different human qualities or who belong to various culture groups.
A) Workforce ethnocentrism
B) Workforce diversity
C) Geographic diversity
D) Geographic monoculture
E) Pluralism
Q3) In which stage of diversity awareness is an individual able to perceive threat against one's comfortable worldview?
A) Denial
B) Adaptation
C) Acceptance
D) Minimizing of differences
E) Defense
Q4) ____________________ is the belief that groups and subcultures are inherently equal.
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Q1) The ______________________________ process occurs when individuals screen and select the various stimuli that vie for their attention.
Q2) Karla can best be described using which of these Big Five personality factors?
A) Agreeableness
B) Openness to experience
C) Conscientiousness
D) Extroversion
E) Emotional stability
Q3) The ______________________________ refers to the extent to which a person's ability and personality match the requirement of a job.
Q4) __________ type people, according to Jung, would rather work with known facts and hard data and prefer routine and order in gathering information.
A) Feeling
B) Gut-feel
C) Intuitive
D) Sensation
E) Affective
Q5) Describe the different components of attitude using an example.
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Q1) According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 15, charismatic leaders do all of the following EXCEPT
A) give people a sense of mission and overall purpose
B) look for the new product or service opportunities
C) command respect from everyone in the department
D) work alone to accomplish important tasks
E) inspire loyalty to self and the organization
Q2) Shawn recognizes that her power can come from five sources, including all of the following EXCEPT
A) referent power.
B) reward power.
C) coercive power.
D) mechanistic power.
E) All of the sources of power.
Q3) Power that stems from a leader's special knowledge is known as A) reward power.
B) referent power.
C) legitimate power.
D) coercive power.
E) none of these.
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ theories concern the thought processes that influence behavior.
A) Process
B) Reinforcement
C) Content
D) Needs
E) Maslow's
Q2) Compare the five groups of needs in Maslow's theory with the three groups of needs in Alderfer's ERG theory.
Q3) With a(n) _____________________________________________, the reinforcement is administered only after some occurrences of the correct behavior.
Q4) Rakim is a big believer in reinforcement theory. He likes the slot machine analogy, so his schedule of reinforcement is based on a random number of desired behaviors. What type of reinforcement schedule is Rakim using?
A) Fixed-interval
B) Variable-ratio
C) Fixed-ratio
D) Continuous
E) Continuous-interval
Q5) List the three needs proposed by Clayton Alderfer.
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Q1) What percentage of a manager's time is spent in direct communication?
A) 20 percent
B) 100 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 80 percent
E) 40 percent
Q2) Types of organizational barriers to communication are status and power differences, differences across departments in terms of needs and goals, absence of formal channels, and communication flow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Forms of nonverbal communication include blushing, perspiring, glancing, crying, and laughing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The choice of a communication channel can convey a symbolic meaning to the receiver.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the five types of upward communication.
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ teams are created outside the formal organization structure to undertake a project of special importance or creativity.
A) Vertical
B) Command
C) Special-purpose
D) Cross-functional
E) Functional
Q2) The storming stage of team development is marked by conflict and disagreement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____________________ style to handle conflict involves a low degree of assertiveness and a low degree of cooperation.
Q4) ________________________ teams typically consist of 5 to 20 multiskilled workers who rotate jobs to produce an entire product or service or at least one complete aspect or portion of a product or service.
Q5) Discuss the differences between groups and teams.
Q6) As teams increase in size, the number of free riders decreases. A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________________________ involves monitoring and influencing employee behavior through extensive use of rules, policies, hierarchy of authority, written documentation, reward systems, and other formal mechanisms.
Q2) Xavier likes to roam through his department to make sure everyone is staying on task. This is an example of a
A) feedback control.
B) concurrent control.
C) feedforward control.
D) behavioral control.
E) non-trusting control.
Q3) The continuous process of measuring products, services, and practices against major competitors or industry leaders is called ____________________.
Q4) _________ is based on a set of international standards for quality.
A) Quality circle
B) Corporate governance
C) ISO certification
D) Open-book management
E) Balance scorecard
Q5) ____________________ can focus on events before, during, or after the process.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss how organizations can blend their traditional operations with an Internet initiative.
Q2) Which of these is NOT an implication of information technology, according to your text?
A) Empowered employees
B) Increased employee turnover
C) Information overload
D) Enhanced collaborations
E) Improved employee effectiveness
Q3) The __________ is a global collection of computer networks linked together for the exchange of data and information.
A) EIS
B) WWW
C) Internet
D) TPSs
E) information-reporting system
Q4) ____________________ networking is online interaction in a community format where people share personal information and photos, produce and share all sorts of information and opinions, or unify activists and raise funds.
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Q1) __________ are designed to reduce an organization's inventories to zero.
A) Just-in-time systems
B) Stockless systems
C) Kanban systems
D) All of these
E) Just-in-time systems and stockless systems
Q2) Flour, sugar, and baking soda are __________ for a bakery.
A) finished-goods
B) raw materials
C) work in process
D) outputs
E) distribution goods
Q3) Partial productivity is the ratio of total outputs to a major category of inputs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A small or medium-sized automated production line that can be adapted to produce more than one product line is known as a(n)
Q5) ____________________ is the moving of finished products out to customers.
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