Operating Systems
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and principles of operating systems. Topics include process management, memory management, file systems, input/output systems, and system security. Students will explore modern operating system architectures, learn about concurrency and synchronization, and examine resource allocation strategies. The course also covers practical aspects, such as system calls and kernel programming, preparing students to understand how operating systems work and how they interact with computer hardware and software.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Operating Systems 5th Edition by Ann McHoes
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16 Chapters
800 Verified Questions
800 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introducing Operating Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The operating system manages each and every piece of hardware and software.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The most common mechanism for implementing multiprogramming was the introduction of the ____ concept, which is when the CPU is notified of events needing operating systems services.
A) paging
B) sharing
C) messaging
D) interrupt
Answer: D
Q3) Onboard systems are computers placed inside other products to add features and capabilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Memory Management: Early Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best-fit free list scheme uses memory more efficiently than the first-fit free scheme but it is slower to implement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The first step in loading a job in a single-user system is storing the first memory location of program into the base register (for memory protection).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The fixed partition scheme does not require that the entire program be stored contiguously and in memory from the beginning to the end of its execution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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4
Chapter 3: Memory Management: Virtual Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the second generation, programmers started dividing their programs into sections that resembled working sets, really segments, originally called roll in/roll out and now called ____.
A) undermaps
B) overmaps
C) underlays
D) overlays
Answer: D
Q2) A variation of the LRU page replacement algorithm is known as the clock page replacement policy because it is implemented with a circular queue and uses a pointer to step through the reference bits of the active pages, simulating a clockwise motion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Within the Memory Manager the Segment Link Table lists details about each segment (one for each job).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Processor Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a job moves through the system it is always in one of five states (or at least three); these are called the job status or the process status.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the job is accepted by the system, it's put on ____ and placed in a queue.
A) HOLD
B) RUNNING
C) WAITING
D) READY
Q3) The Job Scheduler seeks to ___ , when scheduling jobs.
A) Run all CPU intensive jobs first.
B) Run all I/O intensive jobs first.
C) Balance CPU and I/O intensive jobs.
D) Run the quickest jobs first.
Q4) Shortest job next (SJN) is a nonpreemptive scheduling algorithm (also known as shortest job first, or SJF) that handles jobs based on the length of their CPU cycle time.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Process Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ occurs when two processes do not release control of resources they are using.
A) No preemption
B) Circular wait
C) Resource holding
D) Mutual exclusion
Q2) ____ is when each process involved in the impasse is waiting for another to voluntarily release the resource so that at least one will be able to continue on.
A) Mutual exclusion
B) Resource holding
C) Circular wait
D) No preemption
Q3) ____ showed how the four conditions can be modeled using directed graphs.
A) Havender
B) Holt
C) Dijkstra
D) Lane & Mooney
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Chapter 6: Concurrent Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Implied parallelism includes automatic detection by the compiler of instructions that can be performed in parallel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thread Information Blocks contain basic information about a thread such as its ID, state, and a pointer to the process that created it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For many computational purposes, serial processing is sufficient; it's easy to implement and fast enough for most users.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parallel processing is also called ____.
A) uniprocessing
B) multiprocessing
C) shared processing
D) divided processing
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8
Chapter 7: Device Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) On an optical disc, all sectors are ____.
A) of varying sizes depending upon where you are on the disc
B) larger as you move to the edge
C) smaller as you move to the edge
D) of the same size throughout the disc
Q2) The I/O ____ allocates the devices, control units, and channels.
A) scheduler
B) traffic controller
C) device handler
D) director
Q3) The SCAN algorithm moves the arm methodically from the inner to the outer track, servicing every request in its path.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Data recorded on DASDs may or may not be blocked at the discretion of the ____.
A) end user
B) application programmer
C) operator
D) database programmer
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Chapter 8: File Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each volume can only contain a single file.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The File Manager uses the address of the ____ to access the next sequential record.
A) first byte read
B) last byte read
C) first byte in the file
D) index record
Q3) The File Manager keeps track of the empty storage areas by treating them as files.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using indexed sequential record organization, each entry in the index file contains the ____ and the physical location of the data block where this record, and the records with smaller keys, are stored.
A) last record name
B) highest record key
C) lowest record key
D) first record name
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Network Organization Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Addressing protocols are normally unrelated to the network topology and geographic location of each site.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The maximum circumference for a MAN is ____.
A) 10 miles
B) 50 kilometers
C) 100 kilometers
D) 200 miles
Q3) A local area network is generally owned, used, and operated by a single organization and allows computers to communicate directly through a common communication line.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The physical topology of a network may not reflect its logical topology.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Star topology permits easy routing.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Management of Network Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) DO/S was developed before NOS.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An object-based DO/S provides for process management through the use of client/server processes synchronized and linked together through messages and ports, also known as channels or pipes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the local device manager cannot satisfy a user's request, the request is sent to ____.
A) another device manager
B) a central controller
C) a waiting queue
D) the heap
Q4) For each node, the Memory Manager uses a kernel with a ____ algorithm to track the amount of memory that is available.
A) sharing
B) stacking
C) turning
D) paging
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Security and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capability of a system to fulfill its mission, in a timely manner, in the presence of attacks, failures, or accidents is known as ____.
A) attack resistance
B) attack survivability
C) system recovery
D) system survivability
Q2) ____ peruse data packets as they pass by, examine each one for specific information, and log copies of interesting packets for more detailed examination.
A) Spoofers
B) Proxy servers
C) Packet sniffers
D) Packet filters
Q3) Wire tapping is when unauthorized users gain the capability to search through storage, directories, or files for information they aren't privileged to read.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: System Management
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Sample
Questions
Q1) When networked devices, such as printers, plotters, or disk drives are required, the ____ has the responsibility of allocating and deallocating the required resources correctly.
A) Network Controller
B) Network Device Controller
C) Network Resource Director
D) Network Manager
Q2) Availability in its simplest form means that a unit will be operational and not out of service when a user needs it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The disadvantage of maintaining billing records online is ____.
A) overhead
B) security
C) user access
D) updating
Q4) Throughput and capacity can be monitored by either hardware or software.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Unix Operating System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In UNIX, the file ____ contains the parameters that control resources such as the number of internal buffers for the kernel and the size of the swap space.
A) config.sys
B) conf.ini
C) ctrl.conf
D) conf.c
Q2) When the UNIX Processor Manager is deciding which process from the READY queue will be loaded into memory to be run first, it chooses the process ____.
A) with the lowest priority
B) which has been waiting longest
C) with the lowest amount of time remaining to execute
D) with the longest time spent on the secondary storage
Q3) Each physical device in UNIX is identified by a minor device number, a major device number, and a contact address.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Ms-Dos Operating System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name for a device driver that can be incorporated into the operating system as needed without having to patch or change the existing operating system is ____.
A) installable
B) configurable
C) plug-and-play
D) hot-loadable
Q2) A ____ interrupt handler's function is to terminate a process without releasing its memory, thus providing memory-resident programming facilities.
A) Program Status Word
B) Terminate and Stay Resident
C) Pause and Wait
D) Stop and Start
Q3) When a disk is formatted (using the FORMAT command), its tracks are divided into sectors of 1024 bytes each.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Windows Operating Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ version of Windows introduced X.500-style directory services, Kerberos security, and improved Distributed Component Object Model (DCOM).
A) Windows NT Server version 4.0
B) Windows 2000 Server
C) Windows Server 2003
D) Windows Server 2005
Q2) In 1999, Microsoft changed the operating system's name from Windows NT to Windows 2000.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____ attribute indicates whether to delete the file after closing it.
A) share mode
B) open mode
C) disposal mode
D) file disposition
Q4) Windows provides execution environments for applications that are different from its primary programming interface.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Linux Operating System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Filenames can include a space, however this can cause complications if you're running programs from the command line because a program named interview notes would be viewed as a command to run two files: interview and notes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Linux administrators have access to numerous standard utilities, eliminating the need to write special code.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Linux the semaphore structure contains ____ fields.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q4) A path name can be either one name or a list of names separated by dashes.
A)True
B)False
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