Operating Room Techniques
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Operating Room Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to familiarize students with the fundamental principles and practices necessary for effective functioning within a surgical environment. The course covers a range of topics including aseptic techniques, sterilization procedures, the handling of surgical instruments, patient preparation, and the roles and responsibilities of the surgical team. Emphasis is placed on maintaining patient safety, infection control, and efficient teamwork during various surgical procedures. Through both theoretical study and hands-on practice, students develop the technical and interpersonal skills required to support surgical interventions across diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing diagnosis is derived from:
A) patient data retrieved from the nursing assessment.
B) synthesized clues from the admitting diagnosis and surgery schedule.
C) the approved NANDA-International list attached to the patient medical record.
D) the admission form on the front of the chart.
Answer: A
Q2) How do institutional standards of care,such as policies and procedures,differ from national standards,such as AORN's Standards of Perioperative Nursing Practice?
A) They are written by nurses.
B) They are written specifically to address responsibilities and circumstances.
C) They are collaborative and collective agreement statements.
D) They are rarely based on research.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative environment is a dangerous place for both patients and staff.The surgical patient is at risk for harm,regardless of age,surgical diagnosis,or planned procedure.Select the physical risks.
A) Chemical,thermal,and radiation burns
B) Anxiety and knowledge deficit
C) Lost or mislabeled specimen
D) Breaches of confidentiality,privacy,and dignity
Answer: A
Q2) The OR is a danger-prone area for both patients and staff.Providing a safe environment of care for the patient involves identifying,mitigating,and managing the hazards inherent in surgical care.Choose the answer below that completes the blanks in this sentence:The risk of the surgical hazard of _ can be mitigated through .
A) Wrong patient,wrong site,and wrong side surgery;site marking and presurgical checklists
B) Electrical and thermal burns;alcohol-free prep solution
C) Surgical site infection;flash sterilization
D) Surgical airway fire;fire extinguishers in every OR
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sterilization prepares instruments to be used within,and on,sterile tissues.It kills vegetative microorganisms and endospores within a probability of 10 .The process of decontamination prepares instruments to be:
A) handled without gloves and prepared for sterilization.
B) free of bioburden and safely handled with gloves.
C) clean at a high level of disinfection.
D) None of the options are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Positive-pressure air handling systems with unidirectional flow of non-recirculated air from the ceiling to the floor are designed to:
A) create mild air turbulence to prevent dust from settling on surfaces.
B) augment the oxygen-enriched environment with dust-free air.
C) flow clean air over the patient and prevent corridor air intake.
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vanessa was able to restore the patient's normal respirations and monitored her closely as she emerged from the propofol.The patient stated that her mouth,lips,and tongue were numb and prickly feeling and she had a metallic taste.Vanessa suspected that the patient had _ and responded by ___.
A) Propofol hypovolemia;giving her a fluid challenge of 50 ml of IV saline
B) An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic;administering diphenhydramine
C) A toxic overdose of local anesthetic;monitoring and increasing the flow rate of IV saline
D) A reaction to the propofol;giving her a rescue dose of naloxone
Q2) Minimizing risk factors and administering antiemetics are important preventive actions against PONV.Antiemetics are designed to interact with the four main neurotransmitters that affect PONV.These four neurotransmitters are:
A) cholinesterase,droperidol,dopamine,sterol.
B) histamine,acetylcholine,serotonin,and dopamine.
C) acetylcholinesterase,histamine,epinephrine,aldosterone.
D) norepinephrine,antihistamine,serotonin,oxytonin.
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Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral,lateral chest,and lateral kidney positions all place pressure on structures of the dependent side:ears,shoulder,ribs,hips,greater femoral head,knees,and ankles.The potential for injury to the patient is significant,based on these pressure areas.Which resultant injury or harm could be related to these lateral positions?
A) Diminished lung capacity of dependent lung
B) Brachial plexus injury
C) Venous pooling shifts toward dependent side with DVT in lower extremities
D) All of the options are correct.
Q2) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in supine position with urinary catheter insertion.
a.Abduct arms less than 90 degrees on padded armboards.
b.Place safety strap 2 inches above knees.
c.After anesthesia induction and intubation,prepare urinary catheter sterile equipment.
d.Place small pillow or headrest under head.
e.Flex legs in a frog-leg fashion,externally rotating the thighs.
f.Transfer patient to lie with the back flat on the locked OR bed.
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ideal suture material is one that has handling characteristics such as:
A) memory.
B) slickness.
C) ease of tying.
D) removable knots.
Q2) Dan Clements had a vasectomy in his urologist's office.The small incision was closed with sutures that are synthetic and will "dissolve and fall out" after 2 to 3 weeks.As the procedure ended,he heard the doctor ask the nurse for 5-0:
A) silk.
B) polyglactin.
C) plain gut.
D) chromic gut.
Q3) Tissue reaction characteristics are important in a suture material because:
A) the suture should absorb and nourish the healing tissue.
B) the suture should not cause tissue inflammation or an allergic response.
C) the suture should not support infection.
D) the suture should not cause tissue inflammation or an allergic response and the suture should not support infection
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8
Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help visualize abdominal structures and to enhance safety during laparoscopic procedures,a pneumoperitoneum is created.After Veress needle confirmation,insufflation tubing is connected and the process begun.CO gas is used to insufflate the abdominal cavity at an ideal flow rate of ___ to achieve an ideal intra-abdominal pressure of .
A) 14 to 16 L/min;9 mm Hg
B) 10 to 12 mm Hg;10 L/min
C) 14 to 16 mm Hg;9 L/min
D) <9 L/min;10 to 12 mm Hg
Q2) Distal tip,flexible movement,lenses,air-water nozzle,CCD chip
Q3) Select the statements that best reflect the benefits of laser surgery for the surgical services department.
A) Decreases postoperative scarring that could lead to stenosis.
B) Reduces operative and anesthesia time.
C) Sterilizes tissue from the heat generated at the laser-tissue impact site.
D) Allows a shift to more ambulatory surgery procedures.
Q4) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
Q5) Angulation knobs,air-water channel buttons,biopsy port
Q6) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jacob Sutzkever is a 62-year-old man who had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum.He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout.Jacob's fever has subsided and the drainage is clear.The surgeon will continue with wet to dry dressings and schedules Jacob to return to the OR in 3 days for:
A) one more final debridement and washout.
B) packing with antibiotic-impregnated gauze before final closure.
C) sutured closure of the peritoneum and muscle fascia layer and secondary closure with granulation of the subcutaneous and skin layers.
D) delayed primary sutured closure.
Q2) In the care of the postoperative patient,which statement reflects a best practice over which surgical team members have considerable influence? Select all that apply.
A) Maintain an intact sterile dressing over the closed wound for 24 to 48 hours.
B) Change dressings using sterile technique.
C) Employ basic hand hygiene before and after changing the postoperative dressing.
D) Teach the patient and family about incision care.
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10
Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial primary assessment by the perianesthesia nurse,on the patient's admission to the PACU,begins with which criterion?
A) Patient's level of consciousness and hanging IV fluid level
B) Patient identification using attached ID band with two identifiers
C) Vital signs and ABCs,beginning with the respiratory system
D) The surgical/interventional procedure performed and OR number
Q2) Select three appropriate components of the hand-off report from the perioperative nurse to the perianesthesia nurse as the patient is received in the PACU.
A) Anesthesia technique and agents administered
B) Use of radiologic shielding of the patient in the OR
C) For pediatric patients,mother's perinatal history
D) Prognosis and presumed discharge date or time
E) Patient's identity,using attached ID band with two identifiers
F)Patient's emotional status on arriving in the OR
Q3) Select the appropriate example of physiologic symptoms of pain.
A) A proxy pain rating by someone who knows the patient well
B) Facial grimacing and crying
C) The patient's self-report of pain
D) Physiologic indicators,such as elevated vital signs
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Review the list below and select the answer that reflects the correct match between the procedure and the disease.
A) Duodenoscopy for gastric reflux disease and hiatal hernia
B) Bariatric surgery for Roux-en-Y for gastritis
C) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) for gastric ulcer disease
D) Small bowel enteroscopy for ulcerative colitis
Q2) Specific positioning considerations for bariatric patients require particular attention to protecting these patients from inherent risks related to their size and weight.Of considerable concern is the risk of injury to staff.Protective measures to protect both patient and staff include those below.Which measure reflects the most safety protection for both patient and staff?
A) Review back safety precautions and awareness during preincision briefing.
B) Ensure that the OR bed can accommodate the patient's weight and girth.
C) Employ at least three safety straps over the patient's largest girth.
D) Overlap the viscoelastic gel mattress top with three lifting sheets.
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12
Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liver,pancreas,and spleen share many similarities.Select the statement about these organs that is true.
A) All three are solid organs and very vascular.
B) All three are metabolic organs.
C) All three organs have terminal attachments to the duodenum.
D) All of the options are false.
Q2) While the pancreas' function is carbohydrate metabolism with the production of insulin and digestive enzymes,the spleen's function is primarily ___ with the production of ___.
A) immunologic;leukocytes
B) metabolic;granulocytes
C) anabolic;plasma cells
D) as a blood reservoir;phagocytes
Q3) The Whipple procedure is the removal of the head of the pancreas,the entire duodenum,a portion of the jejunum,the distal third of the stomach,and the as a surgical treatment for.
A) left lobe of the liver;metastatic hepatocytoma
B) distal segment of the spleen;pancreatic metastasis
C) inferior margin of the ligament of Treitz;pancreatic cancer
D) lower half of the common bile duct;pancreatic cancer
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Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the most common hernia that occurs in both males and females and name the side on which it would most likely occur.
A) Direct femoral hernia on the left
B) Indirect inguinal hernia on the right
C) Indirect femoral hernia on the left
D) Direct inguinal hernia on the right
Q2) What composes the lining of a herniated abdominal sac?
A) Fascia
B) Peritoneum
C) Muscularis
D) Rectus abdominis muscle
Q3) Depending on their location,hernias are classified as direct inguinal,indirect inguinal,femoral,umbilical,incisional,or epigastric.Hernias in any of these groups are either reducible or nonreducible.The characteristic "reducible" hernia can best be described as a hernia:
A) that does not require surgical repair.
B) that is an emergent diagnosis.
C) with visceral contents that can be returned to the abdomen.
D) with a narrow sac neck that is closed with adhesions.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shoshana Rokem,a middle-aged mother of 9 children from the orthodox community,is seen in the GYN clinic for heavy vaginal bleeding.She is anxious and shy and timidly asks the nurse if she may be seen only by a female doctor.An appropriate nursing action by the female nurse would be:
A) demonstrate strategies for Shoshana to verbalize,reduce and control her anxiety.
B) maintain Shoshana's privacy and convey empathy and positive regard for her culture.
C) inform Shoshana that all of the doctors are male,but they treat many of the women from her community.
D) suggest that Shoshana reschedule her appointment for a day when a female physician has clinic hours.
Q2) When catheterizing the female patient the nurse must locate the urethra.The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A) mons pubis,labia majora,labia minora,urethra,clitoris,vaginal opening.
B) labia majora,labia minora,clitoris,urethra,vaginal opening,mons pubis.
C) mons pubis,labia majora,labia minora,clitoris,urethra,vaginal opening.
D) labia majora,labia minora,urethra,mons pubis,clitoris,vaginal opening.
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15
Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate,which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A) Systemic disease
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Post-treatment cancer in remission
D) Active cancer
Q2) An orthotopic neobladder is surgically created as a bladder substitute after a cystectomy,prostatectomy,or hysterectomy is performed for bladder cancer.Bladder substitution relies on meticulous dissection with preservation of the urinary sphincter and neurovascular bundles,as well as a watertight urethral anastomosis.Also termed the "Le Bag continent diversion," what segments of the bowel and/or small intestine are used in this technique to create the neobladder?
A) Segment of sigmoid colon
B) Right colon and ileum
C) Proximal right colon segment with cecum
D) Transverse colon
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pyramidal lobe of the thyroid is described as:
A) a small lobe often involved in 30% of cases of thyroid dysfunction.
B) a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth.
C) a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
D) a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.
Q2) Shari Donaldson is scheduled for a thyroidectomy.She is significantly underweight as a result of her thyroid disease.The perioperative nurse considers her to be at high risk for pressure and shearing injury to skin and tissues.An example of a nursing consideration in the preoperative phase for Shari would be:
A) perform a preoperative assessment of dependent pressure areas.
B) note patient issues with body image.
C) assure the patient that she will be carefully positioned and padded.
D) suggest a wound ostomy nurse referral for the patient for postoperative skin care.
Q3) The primary function of the three thyroid hormones is to regulate:
A) energy metabolism.
B) body growth and development.
C) calcium storage in the bones.
D) the decrease in blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Talia Mendelson,a 27-year-old patient who had a lumpectomy for early-onset breast cancer,arrived at the ambulatory surgery center for infusion port insertion.She is scheduled to begin adjuvant chemotherapy next week.Talia is very nervous because during the previous lumpectomy,performed using a local anesthetic,she was not entirely sedated.Talia tells the perioperative nurse that she was uncomfortable and heard everything in the room,but admitted that she did not feel pain.The nurse recognized Talia's anxiety related to the surgical intervention and prepared to implement corrective actions in the OR.What nursing intervention best reflects one that would ensure support or contribute to Talia realizing her expected outcome?
A) Ensure a quiet and calm environment of care.
B) Share Talia's concerns with the anesthesia provider.
C) Have Talia wear a headset that plays classical,nonlyrical music during the procedure.
D) Ask each team member individually to be quiet during the procedure.
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Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients presenting for ophthalmic surgery may have endured chronic progressive impairment,or recent decrease,in visual acuity.Most patients are admitted through an ambulatory admission area adjacent to the surgical suite.Select an appropriate nursing action(s)when admitting the ophthalmic surgery patient.
A) Fully orient the patient to the physical surroundings.
B) Use detailed descriptions and reinforce them.
C) Approach the patient from the unaffected side to avoid startling the patient.
D) All of these interventions are appropriate for the ophthalmic surgery patient.
Q2) Select the true statement about antimetabolite drugs and their indications for use.
A) These cytotoxic/antineoplastic drugs are also useful as thrombolytic agents.
B) Antimetabolites are regulated by TPA and facility policies.
C) 5-Fluorouracil and mitomycin can both be administered topically to dissolve scars and pterygia.
D) Denuded corneal epithelium responds positively to topical applications of mitomycin.
Q3) Exenteration
Q4) Enucleation
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During otolaryngologic procedures using local anesthetic,the perioperative nurse plans the environment of care as a quiet,warm,and functional domain of healing and comfort.An important consideration with most otolaryngologic patients identifies their specific _ needs.
A) communication
B) anxiety
C) airway
D) pain
Q2) Which of the diagnostic modalities listed below does not employ the use of ionizing radiation?
A) Audiogram
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) Computed tomography (CT)
D) Both audiogram and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Q3) During endoscopic sinus surgery,patient eye protection includes:
A) taping the eyelids closed.
B) placing moist gauze over the eyelids.
C) instilling eye lubricant into both eyes.
D) All of the options apply
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are used for the treatment of vertebral compression fractures attributable to osteoporosis or pathologic conditions.Bone cement is injected into the vertebral body to decrease back pain and prevent further vertebral body height loss.Equipment includes C-arm,radiolucent OR bed,and x-ray vests for staff as well as bone biopsy needles,vertebroplasty system,and cement injection system.An important nursing consideration relevant to this interventional radiology-assisted procedure would be:
A) shield the patient with a lead apron,covering from thyroid to reproductive organs.
B) organize and have casting supplies available outside of the room.
C) position patient in prone body alignment with padding to prevent skin and nerve injury.
D) abduct both arms less than 90 degrees on attached armboards.
Q2) An objective assessment of the patient's condition,in terms of assigning an appropriate preoperative surgical diagnosis and plan of care,would be obtained from:
A) the physician consult with history,physical,and medical clearance.
B) the patient's own statements about symptoms,pain,onset,and disability.
C) the signed surgical consent form.
D) radiographic films and imaging studies.
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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brainstem is located in the posterior fossa and forms the floor of the fourth ventricle.It is the site of many ascending and descending fiber tracts that allow for communication among the structures of the brain and between the brain and spinal cord.The brainstem consists of what three structures?
A) Dura,epidura,and subdura
B) Midbrain,pons,and medulla oblongata
C) Mesencephalon,cephalon,and cerebrum
D) Pons,medulla,and foramen magnum
Q2) An important area of the brain that is critical for learning and memory is the ___,while emotion and social behavior are regulated by the .
A) parahippocampal gyri;limbic system
B) amygdal;cingulate
C) hypothalamus;septum
D) hippocampus;amygdala
Q3) Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebri
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) One of the most popular lasers used in plastic and reconstructive surgery is attracted to the water in the skin cells and ablates the cells at a predetermined depth.Collagen material beneath the skin surface is also heated,resulting in smoother and slightly tighter skin.Several lasers are attracted to areas of darker pigmentation.This treatment has virtually replaced dermabrasion,because of its consistency in terms of depth of penetration and also because this technique is less dependent on user technique or skill.Select the laser modality that would be the best option for ablation or removal of a pigmented red tattoo.
A) CO laser
B) Erbium:YAG laser
C) Nd:YAG laser
D) Excimer laser
Q2) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction or post-bariatric contouring procedures,the perioperative nurse will assemble and organize supplies and devices because the procedure may require:
A) repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B) meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C) pressure dressings.
D) patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Aaron Greenberg,a 59-year-old retired roofer with mesothelioma,is scheduled for a left pleurodesis for malignant pleural effusion and unresolved spontaneous pneumothorax.The perioperative nurse responsible for the thoracic surgery service has consulted with the surgeon to determine which agent will be used.She has an unsterile product that has been typically used in the past,but sterile processing informs her that they do not have the capacity to sterilize this agent.She also notes that the OR does not have a policy or guidelines for the administration of chemotherapeutic antineoplastic agents or safety training and a spill kit.Based on these conditions,what agent will the surgeon and nurse select for Mr.Greenberg's procedure?
A) Silver nitrate
B) Bleomycin
C) Talc powder
D) Cyclines
Q2) What is the ideal position for bronchoscopy?
A) Supine
B) Left semilateral
C) Supine with a shoulder roll
D) Semi-Fowler with neck extended
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial procedures,especially those that involve the aorta,may place the patient at risk for significant blood loss.A nursing diagnosis related to the care of patients undergoing vascular surgery is:Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to loss of body fluids,with a nursing outcome stated as:Fluid balance will be maintained as evidenced by postoperative pulses equivalent to preoperative level,hourly urine output of at least 30 mL,and good skin turgor.Select all the nursing interventions that are appropriate to this outcome.
A) Ensure availability of rapid infusion systems or blood salvage equipment.
B) Confirm the availability of ordered blood-replacement products.
C) Collaborate with the anesthesia provider in ongoing estimation of blood loss.
D) Provide emotional support and comfort measures.
Q2) Why is the change in sound made by a passing train's whistle similar to the reason the pitch rises quickly in systole and drops quickly in early diastole when measuring arterial sounds?
A) Both are explained by B-mode ultrasonography.
B) Both involve the science of plethysmography.
C) Both are explained by the Doppler effect.
D) Both are explained by the science of atomic behavior in a strong magnetic field such as MRI.
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Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) Surgery for atrial fibrillation (AF)may also be performed through an open sternotomy or right mini-thoracotomy incisions.By creating small areas of scar tissue in the cardiac muscle,electrical impulses are forced to follow an alternative conduction path or "maze." Select all the statements regarding nursing considerations for the maze procedure that are true.
A) Monitor for heart rhythm problems.
B) Infuse cardioplegic solution through the aortic root and into the coronary arteries.
C) Monitor for bleeding,infection,and potential complications related to heart surgery.
D) Strip the chest tubes and test the pacing wires every 4 hours postoperatively.
Q2) Select the noninvasive diagnostic test that illustrates heart wall motion and blood flow through the heart and quantifies cardiac function.
A) Radionuclide imaging
B) Cardiac catheterization
C) Echocardiography
D) Cardiac function studies
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Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Q1) An orchiopexy is the surgical placement and fixation of the testicle in a normal anatomic position in the scrotal sac.If the testis fails to descend into the scrotum during gestation,it is considered undescended.Which statement regarding indications for orchiopexy is true?
A) The normal path of the testis becomes obstructed.
B) The testis is strangulated by contraction of the cremaster muscle.
C) All testes that are undescended after 1 year require surgical placement in the scrotum.
D) Retractile testes require surgical or hormonal treatment.
Q2) Much like the adult population,many traditional "open" pediatric surgical procedures are being replaced by minimally invasive surgery (MIS)procedures.Because the field of pediatric MIS is relatively new,surgeons are at an advantage because they are able to combine virtual reality techniques and robotics with the most current technology and instrumentation.Select all of the MIS procedures commonly performed in pediatric patients.
A) Living-related donor kidney transplant
B) Gastric fundoplication
C) Correction of pectus excavatum
D) Closure of patent ductus arteriosus
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Q1) Gregorio Halverson is an 82-year-old diabetic patient with several other co-morbidities in addition to recent withdrawal from alcohol after he was admitted for emergency bowel obstruction surgery.He is both hearing-impaired and visually-impaired.His wife states that Gregorio has only an eighth-grade education and has occasional bouts of depression.The anesthesia provider classified Gregorio as an ASA IV for his surgery.He is now postoperative day 1,in the ICU,and exhibits confusion and delirium.His presentation suggests disorganized thinking,pain,and an acute onset of change in mental status.What risk reduction strategy before Gregorio's surgery might have provided substantial information for the care team to proceed with implementing corrective measures?
A) Conduct a meticulous assessment for underlying conditions.
B) Prepare Gregorio's wife to expect that he would be delirious postoperatively in the ICU.
C) Assess pain using the BODIES pain scale for demented and nonverbal elders.
D) Remember to "assume pain is present" in cognitively impaired perioperative patients.
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Q1) If the injury to the patient is a result of a violent crime,the team must give special attention to preservation of evidence during the course of patient care.When clothing is removed from the patient,why must it be placed and secured in a paper bag rather than a plastic bag?
A) Plastic bags may trap moisture and allow mold growth,destroying evidence.
B) It is easier to write identifying information on paper rather than plastic.
C) Plastic bags trap air,which could kill anaerobic microorganisms needed as evidence.
D) Paper bags are more secure as they cannot be untied and retied.
Q2) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST)may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations.What group of scans is performed and what do they identify?
A) A chest,pelvic,and four abdominal scans;collections of fluid and free air
B) A chest,abdominal,and cervical spine scans;hemorrhage
C) A full body scan;midline shifts
D) A full body CT,MRI,and PET scans;life-threatening and secondary injuries
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Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) A diagnostic or therapeutic radiology procedure may necessitate the administration of heparin or other anticoagulant or antiplatelet medications (e.g.,aspirin,dipyridamole,ticlopidine)because vascular injury can lead to thrombus development.Heparin is often used to prevent acute thrombosis and ischemic episodes.What condition is a contraindication for the use of heparin?
A) A patient who is taking protamine sulfate
B) Hypersensitivity to heparin or excessive bleeding
C) Thrombolysis or angioplasty procedures
D) Sensitivity to the thrombin inhibitor bivalirudin
Q2) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by attenuating (absorbing) the x-ray beam either more than or less than the surrounding tissue.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
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Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) The anesthesia provider asks the pediatric patient for a favorite flavor from a short list of banana,strawberry,bubble gum,mint,or tutti-fruiti,and then proceeds to place a drop of the chosen flavor into the inhalation mask before anesthesia induction.The child inhales the favorite flavor while drifting off to sleep.This complementary therapy falls within the category of:
A) clinical aromatherapy.
B) herbal sedation.
C) aroma anxiolysis.
D) PONV (postoperative nausea and vomiting) prevention.
Q2) Naturopathic medicine emphasizes health restoration as well as disease treatment based on the belief that disease is a manifestation of alterations in the body's natural healing processes.What modalities from the list below are considered within the scope of naturopathic medicine?
A) Herbal medicine
B) Acupuncture
C) Therapeutic counseling
D) All of the options are correct.
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) What is the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) To recommend exposure limits of all chemicals in the workplace over a working lifetime
B) To inform all employees of the presence,characteristics,handling,and risks of chemicals in the workplace
C) To provide a structured design for inservices and skill stations on hazardous chemical safety
D) To promote the development of manuals and log books for The Joint Commission survey
Q2) Select the appropriate nursing action that supports hands-free instrument passing and sharps safety.
A) Create a neutral hands-free area between the scrub person and surgeon with a basin or magnetic mat.
B) Use a hands-free area for sharps and all small clamps or sponges.
C) Announce the transfer of the sharp or clamp as soon as possible after it is placed.
D) During the hand-off report,ask the relief scrub person if he/she will want to use the hands-free technique for passing sharps.
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