Operating Room Management
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Operating Room Management focuses on the principles and practices involved in efficiently running surgical suites within healthcare facilities. The course covers critical topics such as scheduling, workflow optimization, resource allocation, infection control, equipment management, and teamwork among multidisciplinary staff. Students explore strategies to improve patient safety, reduce costs, and maximize operating room utilization while adhering to regulatory and ethical standards. Emphasis is placed on effective communication and leadership skills necessary for managing the dynamic and complex environment of the operating room.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
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784 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which order best describes the process used to implement evidence-based professional nursing?
A) Literature search,theory review,data analysis,policy development
B) Regional survey,literature search,meta-analysis,practice change
C) Identify problem,scientific evidence,develop policy,evaluate outcome
D) Identify issue,analyze scientific evidence,implement change,evaluate process
Answer: D
Q2) How do institutional standards of care,such as policies and procedures,differ from national standards,such as AORN's Standards of Perioperative Nursing Practice?
A) They are written by nurses.
B) They are written specifically to address responsibilities and circumstances.
C) They are collaborative and collective agreement statements.
D) They are rarely based on research.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Q1) Since its organization and establishment as a professional nursing association in the early 1950s,the Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN)continues its endeavor to:
A) promote guidelines influencing patient safety.
B) create professional OR nursing care delivery models.
C) interpret healthcare statistics critical to perioperative nursing care.
D) ensure risk reduction strategies are the foundation of perioperative education.
Answer: A
Q2) Informed consent is both a requirement and a patient right.The perioperative nurse's responsibility in terms of informed consent is to:
A) obtain verbal consent when the written consent is unavailable.
B) ensure that the consent is in the medical record,correct,signed and witnessed.
C) withhold preoperative medication until the consent is witnessed.
D) review the procedure and expected outcome with the patient.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the best practice for aseptic removal of sterile gloves after removal of the sterile gown at the end of the procedure.Select the best practice to protect the wearer from cross-contamination.
A) Remove both gloves together using the gloved fingers of one hand to secure the everted cuffs of the other hand,turning both gloves inside out.Discard gloves in regular trash since they are inside out.Remove mask by the ties and wash hands.
B) Using the gloved fingers of one hand to secure the everted cuff,remove the glove,turning it inside out.Discard appropriately.Using the ungloved hand,grasp the fold of the everted cuff of the other glove and remove the glove,inverting the glove as it is removed.Discard in biohazard trash.Remove mask by the ties and discard.Wash hands.
C) Both practices are appropriate.
D) Neither practice is appropriate.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sherry Ames is an endoscopy nurse in a busy free-standing ambulatory surgery center.She is an RN with additional documented competency in providing an anesthesia modality to healthy patients having screening colonoscopies,bronchoscopies,and upper GI endoscopies.This modality will allow this patient population to tolerate potentially uncomfortable procedures while maintaining their own airway and be easily aroused from light sleep.Sherry is competent and legally qualified to provide which modality of anesthesia?
A) Moderate anesthesia care
B) Local infiltration
C) Conscious sedation/analgesia
D) Procedural narcosis
Q2) Local anesthetic medications,such as lidocaine hydrochloride,have more than one indication for use as an anesthetic.Which three anesthesia modalities use local anesthesia?
A) Plastics,ENT,dental
B) Local,spinal,MAC
C) General,plastics,spinal
D) MAC,ENT,GenET
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Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Q1) While tucking the arms at the sides of the patient in supine position offers comfort,safety,and easy access to the patient by the scrubbed team,improper positioning and securing of the arms can result in significant injury.Injury can be avoided by tucking the draw sheet the arm and under the _.
A) over;body
B) under;mattress
C) over;mattress
D) around;OR bed rail
Q2) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in lithotomy position.
a.With the patient supine,the legs are raised simultaneously and abducted to expose the perineal region.
b.The leg section of the OR bed is removed and the leg section platform is lowered.
c.The thighs are elevated to the appropriate degree for the planned procedure.
d.Stirrups are checked before use to ensure they are securely fastened to the side rails of the OR bed.
e.The legs are placed in stirrups to maintain this position.
f.The sacral area is padded with a gel or foam pad.
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The safest practice for passing sharps and instruments is to:
A) use a "no-touch" technique by passing all instruments and sharps with a sponge forceps.
B) establish a neutral zone on the closest corner of the Mayo stand.
C) employ a robotic arm designed to deliver sharps and instruments to the surgeon.
D) None of the options are best practices.
Q2) Dr.Schumann,an older surgeon who was educated in Germany,explains his justification for his suture choice to the new perioperative nurse in the scrub role.He prefers to suture his intestinal anastomosis with a suture that has multiple filaments braided together because it ties well and holds the knot,which tightens when the thread absorbs the tissue fluids.He also needs a strand that is easy to see and only needs to retain its tensile strength for about 1 year,at which time the intestinal junction will be healed,even though this suture is considered nonabsorbable.He will ask the nurse for a 24-inch 4-0:
A) Vicryl.
B) Prolene.
C) Monocryl.
D) Sofsilk.
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Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flexible fiberscopes and flexible videoscopes share many of the same components;however,in a video gastroscope,the eyepiece and lens of the fiberscope are replaced by a:
A) CCD image intensifier.
B) high-definition monitor.
C) video camera.
D) light-guided sensor.
Q2) The instrument tips in laparoscopic instruments are designed to produce the same tissue effects as a traditional instrument used for open surgery.Because of the process challenges of the laparoscopic approach,it is time-consuming to insert and withdraw instruments repeatedly during the procedure.Instrument manufacturers have attempted to make their products efficient by combining functions.An appropriate combined function for a laparoscopic instrument would be:
A) ultrasound capability in a suturing forceps.
B) electrosurgery conduction through the tips of a Babcock grasper.
C) blunt dissection with the smooth,rounded edge of the closed endoscopic scissors.
D) suction and irrigation combined with an argon beam coagulation handpiece.
Q3) Distal tip,flexible movement,lenses,air-water nozzle,CCD chip
Q4) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
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Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Q1) Melanie Schendell,an experienced perioperative nurse,was precepting a new perioperative nurse in the circulating role.Melanie watched and coached as the new nurse prepared to perform the skin prep on a patient for closure of a colostomy.The new nurse had never had the opportunity to prep a patient with an existing colostomy and was concerned about the potential for her actions contributing to a surgical site infection (SSI).After the successful prep and the onset of the procedure,Melanie and the new nurse had an opportunity to discuss SSIs in this patient population and preventive measures.What combinations of topics should they have discussed?
A) Preoperative antibiotics,ostomy care before surgery,and bowel prep
B) Documentation of preoperative shower,hair removal at the incision site,prep solutions
C) Order of prep scrub at the incision site (e.g.,ostomy or incision first),wound classification
D) Documentation of preoperative shower,hair removal at the incision site,prep solutions and order of prep scrub at the incision site (e.g.,ostomy or incision first),wound classification
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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wayne Freeman was admitted to the PACU spontaneously breathing through his endotracheal tube.Shortly after the perianesthesia nurse extubated Wayne,he stopped breathing and his color changed to pale,dusky-beige.What is the most ideal action that should occur immediately?
A) Administer oxygen 5 L/min by nasal cannula.
B) Administer oxygen 5 L/min by bag-valve-mask.
C) Perform head tilt-chin lift with gentle stimulation.
D) Reintubate and manually ventilate with bag-valve-mask at 4 L/min oxygen.
Q2) Laryngospasm is a common but serious complication in the immediate postoperative pediatric tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient.What is the ideal immediate and last resort response by the anesthesia provider or perianesthesia nurse in an emerging patient who has been in spasm for over 1 minute,is not responding to positive-pressure ventilation,and is in significant distress?
A) Gentle stimulation and bag-valve mask ventilation with oxygen
B) Suctioning,IV succinylcholine administration,and reintubation
C) Emergency tracheostomy with a cricothyrotomy approach
D) IV bronchodilator administration and nebulized oxygen treatment in the PACU
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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the surgeon prepared to clamp and transect the bowel during a small bowel resection for tumor,the scrub person transferred instruments from the Mayo stand to the back table and prepared the sterile field for bowel isolation technique.The rationale for this application involves which nursing diagnosis and matched stage of the nursing process?
A) Risk for Infection/implementation
B) Risk for Metastasis/implementation
C) Risk for Tissue injury/planning
D) Risk for Infection/planning
Q2) Edward Lewis is scheduled for a transthoracic esophagectomy with lymph node dissection for cancer of the esophagus.Which incisional approach is indicated for this procedure?
A) Left thoracoabdominal incision
B) Right posterior lateral thoracotomy and midline abdominal incision
C) Three-incision (three-hole) approach with cervical,right thoracotomy,and midline laparotomy incisions
D) Any of the three above incisions may be used per surgeon preference or tumor location.
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12
Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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Q1) The functional units of the liver are the lobules.The functional cells of the liver are the __ and they manufacture ___.
A) Kupffer cells;phagocytes
B) sinusoid cells;lymphocytes
C) hepatocytes;bile
D) portal triad cells;ductal epithelium
Q2) Steven Morganstein,a 51-year-old male with hepatobiliary disease,is scheduled for surgery.The perioperative nurse,during the preoperative assessment,questions and examines the patient for signs and symptoms of jaundice,petechiae,and lethargy and:
A) reviews his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count.
B) asks Steven his blood type and when he last donated blood.
C) palpates Steven's abdomen for left upper quadrant tenderness and liver margins.
D) reviews the findings of his endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP).
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13
Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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Q1) The anterolateral abdominal wall consists of an arrangement of muscles,fascial layers,and muscular aponeuroses lined interiorly by peritoneum and exteriorly by skin.The key landmark of the _ designates the roof of the inguinal canal and the key landmark of the __ designates the floor of the inguinal canal.
A) external oblique aponeurosis;transversalis aponeurosis and fascia
B) lateral rectus abdominis;transversalis aponeurosis and fascia
C) external oblique aponeurosis;Poupart ligament
D) transversalis aponeurosis and fascia;Cooper ligament aponeurosis
Q2) What composes the lining of a herniated abdominal sac?
A) Fascia
B) Peritoneum
C) Muscularis
D) Rectus abdominis muscle
Q3) Identify the triad of anatomic sites of abdominal wall weakness with a potential for hernias.
A) Groin,ventral line,umbilicus
B) Inguinal rings,femoral canal,incision
C) Inguinal canal,femoral rings,umbilicus
D) Ventral line,aponeurosis,inguinal canal
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the preoperative nursing assessment in the ambulatory surgery receiving unit,the nurse notices bruises and abrasions in various stages of healing on her patient's abdomen,arms,and breasts.In a quiet and respectful manner the nurse said,"The staff at our facility are concerned about your safety.We know that many things can happen in our lives that affect our mental and physical health." This technique is an appropriate method of establishing a sense of __ with the patient while conveying caring and concern.
A) intimacy
B) normalizing
C) catharsis
D) trust and confidentiality
Q2) When catheterizing the female patient the nurse must locate the urethra.The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A) mons pubis,labia majora,labia minora,urethra,clitoris,vaginal opening.
B) labia majora,labia minora,clitoris,urethra,vaginal opening,mons pubis.
C) mons pubis,labia majora,labia minora,clitoris,urethra,vaginal opening.
D) labia majora,labia minora,urethra,mons pubis,clitoris,vaginal opening.
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Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Q1) The lead perioperative nurse in the robotic prostatectomy division of the urology service has developed a standardized plan of care that the nurses will use to deliver individualized patient care and education according to recognized standards of care.Interventions include the following:clarifying the patient's understanding of the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure;providing an open,accepting environment for the patient to discuss potentially embarrassing issues;and maintaining patient privacy and dignity.What desired outcome is addressed by this plan?
A) The patient will be free from injury related to the surgical position.
B) The patient will discuss fears and concerns regarding sexual function.
C) The patient will demonstrate or regain a normal pattern of urinary elimination.
D) This plan addresses all three outcomes.
Q2) TURP syndrome is a state of severe hyponatremia,caused by systemic absorption of irrigating fluid during the procedure.Select the sign/symptom that the anesthesia provider would report in a patient experiencing TURP syndrome.
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperthermia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypokalemia
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Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of the three thyroid hormones is to regulate:
A) energy metabolism.
B) body growth and development.
C) calcium storage in the bones.
D) the decrease in blood calcium levels.
Q2) Anatomic exposure is promoted and supported by proper body alignment in collaboration with safe and secure surgical positioning.The optimal presentation of the thyroid and surrounding structures of the neck can be achieved with the patient in supine or beach-chair position.Select the positioning considerations that enhance visualization and access to important structures.
A) 30-degree Trendelenburg's tilt of the OR bed,shoulder roll,and arms tucked snuggly at sides
B) Hyperflexion of the neck,shoulder roll,and arms tucked loosely at sides with palms facing up
C) Hyperextension of the neck,shoulder roll,and 30-degree reverse Trendelenburg's tilt of the OR bed
D) Headrest,arms abducted at 90 degrees on armboards,and axillary roll
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the past,radical procedures,which involved removal of the affected breast and all axillary and thoracic lymph nodes,were used to treat breast cancer.These procedures did not significantly lower mortality.What factor(s)may have contributed to mortality after these procedures?
A) Distant metastases may have already occurred without adjacent lymph node involvement at the time of its palpable detection.
B) Early pathology techniques for frozen section and histology microexamination could not define margins.
C) Breast cancer was believed to spread by direct extension from its initial site in the breast to adjacent lymph nodes.
D) Tumor size was not usually correlated with involvement of lymph nodes and cancer spread.
Q2) The internal thoracic lymph nodes,which drain the inner half of the breast,can also be a channel for the:
A) secretion of estrogen.
B) spread of metastasis.
C) drainage of the outer half of the breast.
D) spread of infections.
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Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthesia,or monitored anesthesia care (MAC),is used for most ophthalmic surgery.The local anesthetic regimen,administered by the operative surgeon,is typically a combination of anesthesia delivery methods,or routes.Select the anesthetic plan that is administered by the surgeon before the start of surgery.
A) Subconjunctival block and topical anesthetic eye ointment
B) Topical anesthetic eye drops,subconjunctival infiltration,and retrobulbar block
C) Ganglionic infiltration and periorbital block of the anterior chamber
D) Peribulbar infusion into Tenon's capsule and periorbital skin infiltration
Q2) Select the true statement about dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR).
A) A DCR is performed for chronic or recurrent dacryocystitis,which is also called epiphora.
B) A dacrolithotripsy is attempted if the DCR is unsuccessful.
C) DCR establishes a new passageway for tear drainage into the nasal cavity.
D) The passageway is usually restored with the use of ultrasonic lacrimal probes.
Q3) Enucleation
Q4) Evisceration
Q5) Exenteration
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nasal turbinates increase the turbulence of the airflow through the nose to humidify the air.The turbinates also serve another function to the accessory sinuses by:
A) filtering inspired air and preventing sinusitis.
B) acting as drainage passageways.
C) giving resonance to the voice.
D) trapping particle matter before it reaches the nasopharynx.
Q2) Myringotomy is often accompanied by the aspiration of fluid under pressure in the tympanum,and the subsequent placement of small,hollow,pressure equalization tubes.It is indicated for acute otitis media (AOM)in the presence of an exudate that has not responded to antibiotic therapy.If left untreated,what is the main concern for a child with chronic otitis media?
A) Impaired language development
B) Encephalitis
C) Hearing loss
D) Impaired language development and hearing loss
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Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertebral bodies are connected by several cartilaginous joints.What purpose does this connection enable?
A) Communication between the spinous processes and vertebral bodies
B) Vertebral flexion,rotation,and extension
C) Vertebral flexion and torsion
D) Sustains integrity and spinal support
Q2) Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are used for the treatment of vertebral compression fractures attributable to osteoporosis or pathologic conditions.Bone cement is injected into the vertebral body to decrease back pain and prevent further vertebral body height loss.Equipment includes C-arm,radiolucent OR bed,and x-ray vests for staff as well as bone biopsy needles,vertebroplasty system,and cement injection system.An important nursing consideration relevant to this interventional radiology-assisted procedure would be:
A) shield the patient with a lead apron,covering from thyroid to reproductive organs.
B) organize and have casting supplies available outside of the room.
C) position patient in prone body alignment with padding to prevent skin and nerve injury.
D) abduct both arms less than 90 degrees on attached armboards.
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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Q1) Jordan Gribbins,a 69-year-old pipe smoker with a history of cardiac disease and atrial rhythm disturbance,is scheduled for a supratentorial craniotomy and is securely positioned in a semisitting position.The perioperative nurse and anesthesia provider have discussed the anesthesia plan and Mr.Gribbin's surgical and anesthesia risks,and agree that he is at risk for venous air embolism (VAE).Sequential compression devices have been placed on both legs.Pulmonary lines have been placed and the nurse has prepared an area for preparation of TEE (transesophageal electrocardiography),if needed.During the procedure,Mr.Gribbins reacted with decreases in arterial pressure and end-tidal CO .Precordial "washing machine" sounds emanated from the Doppler.What should the perioperative nurse anticipate as a possible next response?
A) Increase the pressure to 60 mm Hg on the SCD pump.
B) Cover the surgical wound with antibiotic-soaked sponges.
C) Reposition the patient in left lateral decubitus position to entrap air in the right atrium.
D) Aspirate air bubbles from the arterial line and give dobutamine.
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Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A broad range of implant materials are used in plastic and reconstructive surgery.Select the implant that represents a biologic composition of a surgical implant.
A) Autologous human tissue
B) Medical-grade sterile silicone
C) Gold
D) Polypropylene
Q2) In addition to the individualized nursing diagnoses that apply to surgical patients,the patient scheduled for plastic or reconstructive surgery can typically be expected to have the following nursing diagnosis:
A) Risk for Infection related to operative/invasive plastic/reconstructive procedure.
B) Disturbed Body Image related to congenital or acquired defect or developmental abnormality.
C) Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to surgical intervention.
D) All of the nursing diagnoses are relevant to most plastic and reconstructive surgery patients.
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23
Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Roger Waring,a 46-year-old male with early-stage lung cancer,was listening to his surgeon describe the surgical plan in preparation for signing the informed consent.The surgeon described a procedure that would be done before the thoracoscopic lung surgery.The surgeon described an examination of Roger's middle chest lymph nodes and the area below where the bronchi branch into the right and left lungs,and possibly taking biopsies of suspicious tissue.The procedure uses a hollow lighted tube with fiberoptic light-carrying fibers.What diagnostic procedure will precede Roger's thoracoscopic lung surgery?
A) Thoracoscopy
B) Mediastinoscopy
C) Bronchoscopy
D) Panendoscopy
Q2) Thoracotomy can be performed with the patient in one of three common positions:lateral,semilateral,and supine.While the supine position is used for the median sternotomy approach,which of the lateral positions is used for an anterolateral approach?
A) Semilateral
B) Lateral
C) Prone
D) Lateral decubitus
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Q1) Why is the change in sound made by a passing train's whistle similar to the reason the pitch rises quickly in systole and drops quickly in early diastole when measuring arterial sounds?
A) Both are explained by B-mode ultrasonography.
B) Both involve the science of plethysmography.
C) Both are explained by the Doppler effect.
D) Both are explained by the science of atomic behavior in a strong magnetic field such as MRI.
Q2) Varicose veins are enlarged and distended veins that are visible and palpable beneath the skin.Secondary varicose veins are believed to be a result of insufficiency of the deep venous system.The primary objective of varicose vein surgery,for the patient with secondary disease,is to prevent:
A) thromboemboli,claudication,and unsightly blue clusters of veins.
B) ulceration,edema,pain,and fatigue.
C) venospasm,phlebitis,and vascular sacculations.
D) vasculitis,pitting edema,and sclerosed vein clusters.
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Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) Thoracic aortic aneurysmectomy is excision of an aneurysmal portion of the ascending aorta,aortic arch,or descending thoracic aorta and replacement with a prosthetic graft,valve-graft conduit,or intra-aortic prosthesis.Aneurysms may be caused by atherosclerosis,trauma,infection,or cystic medial degeneration.What presenting conditions will indicate that surgical intervention is necessary?
A) Compromised circulation or danger of rupture
B) Circumferential involvement
C) Spindle-shaped morphology
D) Combined saccular and fusiform morphology without dissection
Q2) During the preoperative nursing assessment for a patient scheduled for cardiac surgery,the perioperative nurse reviews the patient's medication history with particular attention to medications that can affect the surgery or cause complications.Select the true statement about specific medications that can affect surgery or cause complications.
A) Aspirin may increase platelet levels.
B) Lipid-lowering drugs (statins) may affect coronary artery bypass patency.
C) Herbal products may promote the development of thromboemboli.
D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) may cause malignant hypertension.
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26
Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Q1) Pharyngeal obstruction is revealed by a history of sleep-disordered breathing.Mouth breathing,snoring,pauses in breathing,restless sleep,waking at night,and enuresis may be related to obstruction.Pharyngeal obstruction may also be caused by recurrent pharyngitis or tonsillitis.Select all the procedures that are designed for the relief of pharyngeal obstruction.
A) Tonsillectomy
B) Adenoidectomy
C) Flexible nasolaryngoscopy
D) Pharyngotomy
Q2) The pediatric patient is at risk for imbalanced fluid volume related to invasive surgery and accompanying blood loss.Select the outcome indicator that would best reflect that the goal of maintained fluid balance was attained.
A) Blood pressure within acceptable range
B) Bounding peripheral pulses
C) Three wet diapers in 24 hours
D) Intact mucous membranes
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Q1) Perioperative nurses caring for older adults must consider factors that affect the choice of medications and the effects of those medications on this population.Physiologic changes may affect the absorption,distribution,metabolism,and excretion of medications.What statement about medication metabolism is true?
A) Older adults have a higher prevalence of nonprescription drug use.
B) Older adults have slower excretion times as a result of increased liver size and increased blood flow.
C) The increased liver size and increased blood flow in older adults decrease liver enzyme activity.
D) Older adults have slower excretion times attributable to a reduced glomerular filtration rate.
Q2) What action is considered a best practice when communicating with geriatric patients with cognitive impairments?
A) Treat the person as if he/she is special and address him/her in a soft,quiet manner.
B) Speak moderately loud,facing the patient and holding his/her hand.
C) Approach the patient from the front and identify yourself.
D) Take measures to minimize emotional inflections in your message.
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blunt force to the larynx can result in a fracture and impose immediate airway obstruction.These patients are at risk for a lost airway and may require immediate tracheotomy followed by repair of the fracture when the fracture is unstable or displaced.It is also important to consider that a trauma patient is assumed to have a full stomach;thus these patients are at high risk for aspiration and resultant pneumonia.What is an appropriate nursing action in the event of a lost airway after anesthesia induction and before intubation?
A) Assist the anesthesia provider with securing the airway while applying cricoid pressure.
B) Assist the anesthesia provider by inserting a nasogastric tube and connecting to suction.
C) Leave the room to get the emergency tracheostomy tray and trach tubes.
D) Increase the oxygen delivery and perform a head tilt-chin lift.
Q2) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST)may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations.What group of scans is performed and what do they identify?
A) A chest,pelvic,and four abdominal scans;collections of fluid and free air
B) A chest,abdominal,and cervical spine scans;hemorrhage
C) A full body scan;midline shifts
D) A full body CT,MRI,and PET scans;life-threatening and secondary injuries
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) An interventional radiology procedure for the correction of a blocked or narrowed blood vessel is a(n):
A) angiogram.
B) arterial embolization.
C) biliary stenting.
D) balloon angioplasty.
Q2) Embolic materials induce mechanical obstruction within a vessel and formation of thrombus via platelet activation and activation of the patient's clotting mechanism.Select an appropriate clinical indication for an embolic procedure.
A) Inflammation of a vessel wall
B) Carotid artery obstruction
C) Renal stricture
D) Severe hemoptysis
Q3) What are the indications for using a power injector during an interventional radiology vascular procedure?
A) To propel contrast agents and also emergency drugs into the arterial system
B) To ensure precise timing and rate of injection of contrast media
C) To provide torque to guide the catheter through stenosed vessels
D) To decrease the procedure and radiation exposure time for the patient
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) Therapeutic touch (TT)is a contemporary interpretation of several ancient healing modalities now used in perioperative practice.Why does the title therapeutic touch sound like a misnomer?
A) There is no scientific evidence to support this modality as therapeutic.
B) The practitioner does not have to touch,or make skin contact with,the patient.
C) TT does not fit with the fast-paced surgical environment.
D) The practitioner absorbs the negative energy of the patient,which is not therapeutic for the practitioner.
Q2) Which of the manipulative therapies uses many different hands-on techniques aimed at helping the body heal itself through the manipulation of the soft body tissues?
A) Therapeutic touch manipulation
B) Massage manipulation
C) Osteopathic manipulation
D) Chiropractic manipulation
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) Latex allergy develops from exposure to natural rubber latex and plant cytosol,used extensively to manufacture medical gloves and other devices,as well as numerous consumer products.Allergic reactions to latex range from skin disease to asthma and anaphylaxis that can result in chronic illness,disability,career loss,hardship,and death.What types of signs and symptoms would be indicative of an allergic contact dermatitis response to contact with natural rubber latex?
A) Pruritus,edema,erythema,and vesicles that develop 6 to 48 hours after exposure
B) Dry,reddened,itchy skin with hives and peeling patches
C) Cracked hands,nausea,vomiting,and perioral numbness and tingling
D) Generalized urticaria,wheezing,dyspnea,and tachycardia
Q2) What one factor describes the high incidence of musculoskeletal disorders among surgical technologists and perioperative nurses?
A) Pulling a large,heavy piece of equipment rather than pushing it
B) The cumulative effect of repeated patient handling events
C) The growing high obesity rate and heavier patients and care providers
D) The cumulative effect of pushing,pulling,and carrying heavy instrument sets and rolling carts
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