Oncology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Oncology is the study of cancer, encompassing the biology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of malignant diseases. This course explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms underlying cancer development, progression, and metastasis. Students will gain an understanding of the clinical approaches to cancer management, including surgical, chemotherapeutic, immunotherapeutic, and radiation modalities. The course also covers cancer epidemiology, screening programs, prognostic assessment, and supportive care, with an emphasis on patient-centered care and multidisciplinary strategies. Ethical considerations and recent advances in personalized medicine are integrated to provide a comprehensive outlook on modern oncology.
Recommended Textbook
Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 4th Edition by Washington
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954 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which staff member is most responsible for designing the patient's treatment plan?
A) Medical physicist
B) Radiation oncologist
C) Dosimetrist
D) Radiation therapist
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration is used when treating bladder cancer with chemotherapy?
A) Oral
B) Intra-arterial
C) Intracavitary
D) Intrathecal
Answer: C
Q3) Knowledge of cancer dates back to which of the following?
A) 1600 BC Egypt
B) 1600 AD England
C) 400 BC Greece
D) 1900 AD Germany
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Q1) What occurs when the obvious solution to a problem is prohibited by institutional constraints?
A) Ethical dilemma
B) Ethical dilemma of justice
C) Ethical distress
D) Locus of authority
Answer: C
Q2) Which patient/provider relationship model devalues autonomy?
A) Engineering
B) Priestly
C) Collegial
D) Contractual
E) Covenant
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not a source from which values are derived?
A) Money
B) Experience
C) Religion
D) Science
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When was the microscope introduced?
A) Sixteenth century
B) Seventeenth century
C) Eighteenth century
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) What is the main difference between benign and malignant neoplasms?
A) Benign neoplasms grow by expansion and remain localized; malignant neoplasms grow by infiltration and metastasize by lymph or blood.
B) Benign neoplasms grow by infiltration and metastasize by expansion and remain localized.
C) Benign neoplasms usually are not encapsulated, compared to malignant neoplasms, which are encapsulated.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Thymine
D) Uracil
Q2) Fractionation of radiation dose administration to neoplastic tissues has which of the following effects? (Select three.)
A) Reoxygenation of hypoxic tumor cells, thus promotes their sensitivity to subsequent doses
B) Favors repair of radiation injury in normal cells over that of cancer cells
C) Favors repopulation of normal tissues slightly
D) Reduces or blunts the effects of the radiation injury in early responding normal tissues
Q3) To produce the same biological effects seen after a single dose of 5,000 cGy, the total dose of a fractionated dose would be _________.
A) less
B) greater
C) equivalent
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Q1) A physician used auscultation, the act of listening to sounds within the body.The instrument often used in this procedure is the ____________.
A) sphygmomanometer
B) stethoscope
C) pulse oximeter
D) flowmeter
Q2) What is the leading site of cancer resulting in deaths in males and females from studies in 2013?
A) Lung and bronchus
B) Colon and rectum
C) Brain
D) Head and neck
Q3) What was the leading site of new cancer cases in females in 2013?
A) Lung
B) Colon
C) Cervix
D) Breast
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Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Q1) Components of a modern x-ray tube include which of the following?
A) Cathode filament
B) Rotating anode
C) Glass envelope
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following may be used to reduce the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the image receptor?
A) Collimation
B) Grids
C) Filtration
D) All of the above
E) Both a and b
Q3) In which of the following imaging procedures does an x-ray tube rotate rapidly around the patient?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Fluoroscopy
D) Mammography
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circulator in a linear accelerator does which of the following?
A) Mixes the hot and cold water to get the right temperature
B) Spins the electrons in the right direction
C) Conducts microwaves from the radiofrequency (RF)driver into the klystron
D) Isolates the klystron from reflected microwave power
Q2) Depth of maximum dose for a 15-MV machine is how far below the skin surface?
A) 0.5 cm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 3 cm
Q3) The photon energy emitted by cobalt 60 is _______ MeV.
A) 1.36 and 1.01
B) .662 and 1.5
C) 1.00 and 1.5
D) 1.17 and 1.33
Q4) Lipowitz metal is composed of which of the following?
A) Tin, bismuth, lead, and cadmium
B) Lead, tungsten, and tin
C) Tin, bismuth, tungsten, and lead
D) Bismuth, cadmium, and lead
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In radiation therapy, which of the following refers to materials whose interactions with the radiation beam mimic those of tissue?
A) Wedge
B) Electron cutout
C) Internal or external shield
D) Bolus
Q2) The radiation therapist is responsible for which of the following?
I.Delivering radiation therapy treatments
II.Monitoring and operating sophisticated equipment
III.Maintaining detailed records of treatment
IV.Producing the patient's treatment plan
A) I and II
B) I, II, and III
C) I, III, and IV
D) I, II, and IV
Q3) Individual treatment doses may be defined as which of the following?
A) Fractionation
B) Protraction
C) Treatment field
D) Beam modifiers
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology Facilities
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Q1) A person who is colonized but not ill is known as a ________________.
A) host
B) carrier
C) vector
D) fomite
Q2) Infection cycle includes all except which of the following?
A) Transmission
B) Incubation
C) Natural immunity
D) Convalescence
Q3) What is the most important way to prevent the spread of infection?
A) Hand washing
B) Wearing gloves
C) Using a gown
D) Using chemical disinfectants
Q4) The person to whom the infectious agent is passed is a(n)_____________.
A) fomite
B) host
C) pathogenic
D) iatrogenic
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Chapter 10: Patient Assessment
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Q1) ____________ is defined as identifying with the feelings, thoughts, or experiences of another person.
A) Empathy
B) Sympathy
C) Emotionally
D) Willingly
Q2) A general health assessment can include all except which of the following?
A) An interview
B) Taking medical history past and present
C) A self-report
D) Asking when the person last attended church
Q3) Which of the following is a multidimensional assessment tool to measure pain?
A) Brief Pain Inventory
B) Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy
C) Quality of Life Index
D) Pain Free Forever Assessment
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Chapter 11: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Q1) Radiolucent contrast agents are those that ______________________.
A) appear dark on x-ray
B) appear white on x-ray
C) have high atomic numbers
D) absorb x-ray photons easily
Q2) For injections administered by the intradermal route, the syringe should be positioned _________ to the skin.
A) at a 45-degree angle
B) at a 90-degree angle
C) almost parallel
D) almost perpendicular
Q3) Contrast agents used for the imaging procedure known as cholecystography should be administered by which of the following routes?
A) Oral
B) Intravenous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intradermal
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Chapter 12: Applied Mathematics Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simplify (a²)<sup>5</sup>.
A) a<sup>10</sup>
B) a<sup>7</sup>
C) a<sup>32</sup>
D) a<sup>25</sup>
Q2) Solve for x in the equation x<sup>8</sup>/x<sup>6</sup> = 100.
A) -10
B) ±10
C) 10
D) 1
Q3) Solve for x in the equation 4x - 4 = 12.
A) 6
B) ±6
C) 4
D) ±4
Q4) Convert 8.25 R into the SI unit of exposure.
A) 3.20 × 103 C/kg
B) 3.20 × 104 C/kg
C) 2.13 × 10-3 C/kg
D) 2.13 × 10-4 C/kg
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Chapter 13: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The speed of light is _______________.
A) 3 × 10<sup>10</sup> m/sec
B) 3 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/min
C) 3 × 10<sup>10</sup> m/min
D) 3 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/sec
Q2) Wavelength is represented by ______________.
A) lambda
B) Hertz
C) inch
D) second
Q3) The unit for frequency is 1/sec, called the _________________.
A) lambda
B) Hertz
C) meter
D) angstrom
Q4) Which statement is not true?
A) The nucleus of the atom consists of protons and neutrons.
B) Protons and photons are collectively called nucleons.
C) Protons are positively charged particles.
D) Neutrons are neutral with no electric charge.
15
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Chapter 14: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the half-life of gold 198?
A) 27 days
B) 27 years
C) 2.7 days
D) 3.8 days
Q2) The radionuclide with radon as its daughter product is
A) cobalt 60
B) cesium 137
C) iridium 192
D) radium 226
Q3) The Paterson-Parker (Manchester)system uses a set of guidelines to do which of the following?
I.Provide a dose of +10% within the implanted area
II.Assume the use of linear sources to be implanted
III.Use a uniform distribution of radioactive material to produce a uniform dose distribution
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
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Chapter 15: Special Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the motion management method that defines an internal target volume?
A) OBI
B) compression
C) conservative
D) MIP
Q2) TomoTherapy differs from some other volumetric imaging techniques because it
A) is both a CT and a linear accelerator
B) uses kV and MV imaging
C) delivers customized fields
D) uses the same source for imaging and treating
Q3) Which of the following is a goal of radiation oncology?
A) Reduce side effects
B) Deliver accurate and precise treatments
C) Increase toxic effects
D) All of the above
Q4) Cone beam CT, TomoTherapy, and CT-on rails correct for _________ motion.
A) interfraction
B) intrafraction
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Particle Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The water equivalent thickness (WET)of an immobilization device used during proton therapy can affect which of the following attributes of the beam?
A) Linear energy transfer
B) Symmetry
C) Range
D) Energy
Q2) Patch planning is an approach used when matching two proton fields together based on their __________.
A) energy
B) field size
C) fall-off region (penumbra)
D) field range
Q3) What do the results of a clinical study completed at MD Anderson indicate regarding when adaptive planning is strongly indicated?
A) The first week of therapy is completed.
B) The first day of therapy is completed.
C) The patient loses significant weight.
D) A high Z prosthesis is in the beam path.
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Chapter 17: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The annual dose equivalent limit to the heart for occupationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 500
Q2) Which of the following describes why filters are used in film badges?
A) To discriminate different directions of radiation
B) To discriminate different radiation energies and types
C) To correct for film fogging due to exposure
D) To increase the sensitivity of the measuring device
Q3) The annual dose equivalent limit to the lens of the eye for nonoccupationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
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Chapter 18: Patient Safety in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main objective of peer review activities is to __________________________.
A) break down hierarchy
B) enhance quality of performance
C) improve the quality of decisions made during patient setup
D) evenly distribute the workload
Q2) Which of the following is one tool used to depict how different processes change over time?
A) Fishbone diagram
B) Control chart
C) Pareto chart
D) Histogram
Q3) Transactional-transformational leadership (TTL)focuses on which of the following?
A) Interactions between leaders and followers
B) Relationship between leaders and followers
C) Reward for positive behaviors and punishment for negative behaviors
D) Relationship and interactions between leaders and followers
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Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Q1) In general, the major components of a QI plan include which of the following?
A) Evaluation of patterns
B) Assessment of individual clinical events
C) Action to be taken to resolve problems
D) Weekly meeting of QI committee
E) a, b, and d
F) a, b, and c
Q2) The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is _____ mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) Dr.D.F.Deming's 14 principles of management emphasize which of the following?
A) Employee participation in a "customer-responsive" environment
B) Short-term goals and strong management
C) Individual performance, rather than teamwork
D) Setting of thresholds
E) Both a and b
F) Both c and d
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Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) The lambdoidal suture is formed by which bones?
I.Frontal
II.Sphenoid
III.Parietal
IV.Temporal
V.Occipital
A) I, III
B) I, III.
C) V, III
D) IV, V
Q2) Where is Rotter's node located?
A) Supraclavicular triangle
B) Infraclavicular fossa
C) Anterior aspect of the neck
D) Axilla
Q3) The right lymphatic duct "drains" which of the following?
A) Upper left part of the body
B) Lower left part of the body
C) Upper right part of the body
D) Lower extremities and abdomen
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Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Q1) __________ takes into consideration how an area on the other side of an irradiated wall is going to be used.
A) Workload
B) Occupancy factor
C) Use factor
D) Barrier factor
Q2) The CT number for water is _____________.
A) -1000
B) -100
C) 0
D) 1000
Q3) Conventional simulators are designed to simulate the ____________, geometric, and optical properties of a variety of treatment units.
A) x-ray
B) mechanical
C) comfort
D) linear design
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Chapter 22: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Q1) Of the four methods by which contrast media may be introduced into the body, which are the most common in CT simulation?
I.Oral
II.Intrathecal
III.Intravascular
IV.Intra-articular
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II, III, and IV
D) I, II, and IV
Q2) The reconstructed field of view that is displayed on the computer monitor should be large enough to display which of the following?
I.Entire contour
II.Immobilization device
III.Pertinent anatomy only
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I and II
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the PDD of depth (d)if the dose at Dmax is 180 cGy and the dose at d is 127 cGy.
A) 47%
B) 70.6%
C) 56%
D) 75%
Q2) What is the patient's depth from the AP if the source-axis distance (SAD)is 100 cm and source-skin distance (SSD)is 91 cm?
A) 8 cm
B) 9 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 11 cm
Q3) Find the PDD at 19 cm of an 18-MV beam of radiation that has a 12 × 12 cm treatment field.
A) 56%
B) 55.6%
C) 53.7%
D) 51.7%
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Chapter 24: Photon Dose Distributions
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Q1) In which tissue heterogeneity correction method are primary and scatter separated?
A) Power law TAR method
B) Generalized Batho correction
C) Equivalent TAR method
D) Delta volume method
Q2) Which of the following is the palpable, visible, or demonstrable extent and location of malignant growth and is the volume of known disease?
A) GTV
B) CTV
C) PTV
D) Treated volume
Q3) Which type of intensity-modulated radiation therapy treatment delivery has the gantry in a fixed position with an initial multileaf collimators (MLC)pattern?
A) "Step-and-shoot"
B) Dynamic MLC
C) "Tomotherapy"
D) Robotic IMRT
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Chapter 25: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Q1) What is the practical range of a 25-MeV electron beam?
A) 12.5 cm
B) 12.5 mm
C) 50 cm
D) 50 mm
Q2) Which of the following is one very important consideration during the use of internal shields when administering electron therapy?
A) Shielding materials become radioactive
B) Dose to tissues directly in front of the shield is increased
C) Internal shields need to be secured by suturing
D) Shielding material thickness is found by MeV/3
Q3) Given a mean energy of an electron beam is 6 MeV, what is the depth of the 50% isodose line?
A) 2.5 mm
B) 14.4 mm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 14.4 cm
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Chapter 26: Electronic Charting and Image Management
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Q1) _______ is a computer network covering a small geographic area.
A) A local area network (LAN)
B) WAN
C) PACS
D) DICOM
Q2) ________ can be defined as an assembly of tasks performed to accomplish a goal.
A) Input methods
B) Workflow
C) Medical record
D) Decision making
Q3) Which medical personnel are interested in records and verify systems for the transfer of information between the treatment planning and treatment delivery systems?
A) Physicists
B) Radiation therapists
C) Radiation oncologists
D) Nurses
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Chapter 27: Bone, Cartilage, and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Q1) In which anatomical location are primary bone lesions most common?
A) Spine
B) Upper extremity
C) Lower extremity
D) Trunk
Q2) Treatment for multiple myeloma involves which of the following?
I.Radiation therapy
II.Surgery
III.Chemotherapy
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) When used with radiation therapy, which of the following reduces the loss of function and improves overall control?
A) Intralesional resection
B) Radical resection
C) Amputation
D) Limb-sparing surgery
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Chapter 28: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) Which stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma affecting two lymph node groups on the same side of the diaphragm?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) What is the most common long-term side effect of total lymphoid irradiation?
A) Skin erythema
B) Dysphagia
C) Secondary malignancy
D) Developmental anomalies
Q3) What is the most common presenting symptom of HD?
A) Painless mass
B) Headache
C) Persistent cough
D) Dysphagia
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Chapter 29: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) In which gland is cortisol produced?
A) Parathyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q2) Radioactive iodine is used to treat cancers of which of the following endocrine glands?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q3) Which endocrine gland contains a medulla and a cortex?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
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Chapter 30: Respiratory System Tumors
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Q1) Which of the following symptoms is not associated with Horner syndrome?
A) Ipsilateral miosis
B) Ptosis
C) Exophthalmos
D) Anhidrosis
Q2) What T stage is a lung cancer measuring 2.5 cm in its greatest dimension?
A) T1
B) T2
C) T3
D) T4
Q3) Which of the following is not a common acute side effect a patient may experience during the course of radiation treatments for lung cancer?
A) Dermatitis
B) Erythema
C) Esophagitis
D) Diarrhea
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Chapter 31: Head and Neck Cancers
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Q1) Which salivary gland is associated with the Stensen duct?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Minor
Q2) What is the name of the leaf-shaped cartilage that protects the larynx?
A) Glottis
B) Epiglottis
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx
Q3) What structure of the neck is also known as the glottis?
A) True vocal cords
B) False vocal cord
C) Vestibular folds
D) Nasal turbinates
Q4) Which anatomic structure contains the true vocal cords?
A) Glottis
B) Epiglottis
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx
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Chapter 32: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Q1) What is the most common CNS tumor in children?
A) Medulloblastoma
B) Metastatic lesion
C) Astrocytoma
D) Craniopharyngioma
Q2) What is the most common source of brain metastases among the following?
A) Colon
B) Lung
C) Breast
D) Melanoma
Q3) Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)?
A) Spherical tumor
B) 2-cm tumor
C) Brain metastases
D) Five lesions
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34
Chapter 33: Digestive System Tumors
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is associated with cancer of which anatomic region?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Colon
Q2) The vermiform appendix is most closely associated with which portion of the digestive tract?
A) Ileum
B) Cecum
C) Duodenum
D) Rectum
Q3) What condition is most closely associated with adenomatous polyposis?
A) Barrett esophagus
B) Gardner syndrome
C) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D) Tenesmus
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Chapter 34: Gynecological Tumors
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prescription point A can be measured from the cervical os ______________.
A) 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral
B) 2 cm inferior and 2 cm lateral
C) 3 cm superior and 5 cm lateral
D) 3 cm inferior and 5 cm lateral
Q2) Primary peritoneal carcinomas are most closely associated with which cancer?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q3) Bolus may be used when treating which of the following cancers?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q4) Treating ovarian cancer with radiation blocks which of the following organs?
A) Ovaries
B) Kidneys
C) Small bowel
D) Spinal cord
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the 5-year survival of all stages of testicular cancer combined?
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 100%
Q2) Which lymph node chains will be treated if a man is diagnosed with right-sided testicular cancer that has not spread outside the testicle?
I.Right SCV nodes
II.Para-aortic nodes
III.Right inguinal nodes
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) Which of the following cancers is most likely to occur in a 27-year-old male?
A) Penis
B) Testicle
C) Prostate
D) Urethra
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Breast Cancer
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the standard dose delivered to the tumor bed following tangential treatments?
A) 4500 to 5000 cGy
B) 5000 to 5600 cGy
C) 6000 to 6600 cGy
D) 7000 to 7600 cGy
Q2) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 1-cm tumor in the upper outer quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
Q3) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 9-cm tumor with skin invasion?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
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Chapter 37: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medulloblastomas typically begin in which area of the brain?
A) Brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Cerebrum
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) Trilateral retinoblastoma includes cancer of which other cranial structure?
A) Pituitary gland
B) Pineal gland
C) Parotid gland
D) Paranasal sinuses
Q3) Wilms' tumors are cancers of which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Bone
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Smooth muscle
Q4) The most common pediatric cancer is _________________.
A) medulloblastoma
B) retinoblastoma
C) acute leukemia
D) Wilms' tumor
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Chapter 38: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors contributes to the incidence of skin cancer?
I.Geographic location
II.Skin type
III.Previous skin cancers
IV)Gender
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I, II, and III
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q2) What is the most significant cause of skin cancer?
A) Radiation exposure
B) Sun exposure
C) Arsenic exposure
D) Human papillomavirus
Q3) In instances where malignant melanoma is treated with radiation, delivering one fraction per day, which of the following is the most effective fraction size?
A) 100 to 150 cGy
B) 150 to 180 cGy
C) 180 to 200 cGy
D) 200 to 400 cGy
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