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Occupational Therapy Assistant Studies introduces students to the fundamental principles, techniques, and responsibilities involved in supporting clients to develop, recover, or maintain meaningful daily activities, or "occupations." The course explores the role of occupational therapy assistants (OTAs) within interdisciplinary healthcare teams, emphasizing effective communication, ethical practice, documentation, and client-centered care. Students gain an understanding of human development, physical and psychosocial conditions, intervention strategies, adaptive equipment, and therapeutic activities across the lifespan. Practical experiences and case studies are integrated to prepare students for professional practice in diverse healthcare, educational, and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy Physiology 7th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Q1) All of these organ systems have exchange of materials as a main function.
A) urinary and digestive
B) respiratory and cardiovascular
C) cardiovascular and endocrine
D) digestive and respiratory
E) lymphatic and bone
Answer: B
Q2) The study of body structure is called
A) physiology.
B) homeostasis.
C) anatomy.
D) positive feedback.
E) negative feedback.
Answer: C
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Q1) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the A) allosteric sites.
B) modification sites.
C) reaction sites.
D) active sites.
E) ionic sites.
Answer: D
Q2) The mass number represents the number of
A) protons in an atom.
B) electrons in an ion.
C) neutrons in an atom.
D) protons and neutrons in an atom.
E) neutrons and electrons in an atom.
Answer: D
Q3) Why is it life-threatening to have a low pH?
Answer: A low pH can be life-threatening because the change in hydrogen ion concentration can cause certain proteins,such as vital enzymes,to become inactive.When this occurs,the proteins become nonfunctional,and if they catalyze reactions that are necessary for life,life will cease.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following labeled structures is essential for movement of the chromosomes during cell division?
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
D) 6
E) 1
Answer: C
Q2) During transcription,a sequence of three nitrogenous bases along the new mRNA strand represents a(n)________ that is complementary to the corresponding triplet along the gene.
A) triplet
B) tRNA
C) anticodon
D) antitriplet
E) codon
Answer: E
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following consists of stratified squamous epithelial tissue,areolar tissue,and dense irregular connective tissue?
A) mucous membrane
B) synovial membrane
C) serous membrane
D) glandular membrane
E) cutaneous membrane
Q2) The type of connective tissue shown in the figure is the least specialized in adults.What is its primary function?
A) It cushions organs and provides support but permits independent movement.
B) It provides a storage of energy resources.
C) It provides firm attachment of muscles to bone, and conducts the pull of muscles.
D) It provides insulation.
E) It provides strength to resist forces applied from many directions.
Q3) During a lab practical,a student examines a tissue that is composed of a densely packed epithelium composed of square-shaped cells in a single layer.The epithelia are often cut into circles,and sometimes into parallel rows.What organ is the student most likely observing?
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Q1) There is a connective tissue layer protecting the hair shaft,marked as structure
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) E.
E) F.
Q2) The highly vascular layer of the skin,which provides thermoregulation via changing blood flow,is the A) epidermis.
B) subcutaneous layer.
C) stratum basale.
D) stratum corneum.
E) dermis.
Q3) The hair papilla,structure A,consists of A) adipose tissue.
B) keratin.
C) collagen.
D) blood vessels and nerves.
E) skeletal muscle.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the
A) olecranon fossa.
B) coronoid fossa.
C) intercondylar fossa.
D) intertubercular groove.
E) trochlear notch.
Q2) What is the function of the sphenoid bone?
A) It forms the anterior roof of the mouth or bony palate.
B) It forms the roof of the orbits.
C) It supports a prominent partition that forms part of the nasal septum.
D) It helps slow airflow in the nasal cavity.
E) It acts like a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones.
Q3) Structure D is the
A) sella turcica.
B) styloid process.
C) mastoid process.
D) external auditory meatus.
E) coronoid process.
Q4) Differentiate between compact bone and spongy bone.
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Q1) Structure H is the
A) thick myofilament.
B) thin myofilament.
C) Z line.
D) H band.
E) M lines.
Q2) Botulism
A) is the result of an attack on acetylcholine receptors by the immune system.
B) is usually tied to a genetic predisposition.
C) is a viral illness.
D) results from the loss of acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate.
E) results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminals.
Q3) The area of the sarcomere that is the light region between two successive A-bands is the
A) Z line.
B) M line.
C) I band.
D) myofibril.
E) H band.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structure D is the
A) hypothalamus.
B) thalamus.
C) lateral ventricle.
D) optic chiasm.
E) pineal gland.
Q2) The cortex inferior to the lateral sulcus is the A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) cerebellar lobe.
Q3) Most neurons in the brain are
A) bipolar.
B) unipolar.
C) anaxonic.
D) multipolar.
E) tripolar.
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Q1) The frequency of a sound is indicated to the nervous system by the
A) frequency of hair cell vibration in the spiral organ.
B) number of rows of hair cells that are stimulated in the spiral organ.
C) region of the basilar membrane of the spiral organ that is stimulated.
D) movement of the perilymph in the cochlear duct.
E) frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane of the spiral organ.
Q2) Your grandmother who lives in an assisted living facility is always complaining about how bad the food is.You eat there with her often and find the food to be cooked well and interesting,even though the food is not what you would really prefer.What is the most reasonable explanation for this?
A) Your grandmother only likes food that she cooks.
B) She has had a stroke that affected her primary gustatory cortex.
C) She has fewer gustatory cells in her taste bud receptors.
D) She has no functional olfactory receptors anymore, and smell is a dominant part of taste.
E) Because of wear-and-tear on her tongue over the years, her taste buds are gone.
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Q1) The Exhaustion Phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)is characterized by
A) the inability to produce glucocorticoids.
B) increased ability to produce glucose from glycogen.
C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart.
D) increased protein synthesis.
E) increased sweat gland secretion.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding steroid hormones?
A) They are carbohydrates.
B) They cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane.
C) They do not bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus.
D) They cannot change the nature or number of enzymes in the cytoplasm.
E) They can alter the rate of mRNA transcription.
Q3) Generally,the actions of hormones
A) tend to be less widespread than actions of the nervous system.
B) can produce complex changes in physical structure and physiological changes.
C) are faster to react than the nervous system.
D) are shorter-lasting than the actions of the nervous system.
E) do not affect homeostasis.
Q4) Explain the interactions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
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Q1) The common pathway of coagulation ends with
A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) the activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) the activation of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
E) the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Q2) What is a benefit of a vascular spasm at the onset of hemostasis?
A) a reduction in blood loss
B) an increase in peripheral blood flow
C) the formation of collagen fibers
D) an easier passage for neutrophils to the site of injury
E) greater availability of calcium
Q3) How long do platelets circulate before being removed by phagocytes?
A) 9-12 days
B) 6-18 hours
C) 2-3 days
D) 4-8 weeks
E) 1-2 months
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Q1) When a chamber fills with blood and is preparing to begin the next cardiac cycle,that chamber is
A) in systole.
B) in arrhythmia.
C) contracting.
D) depolarizing.
E) in diastole.
Q2) Label N represents the
A) trabeculae carneae.
B) chordae tendineae.
C) auricle.
D) papillary muscle.
E) pectinate muscle.
Q3) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood directly into the A) superior vena cava.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) coronary sinus.
D) coronary sulcus.
E) aorta.
Q4) Explain the significance of the thickness of the left ventricular wall.
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Q1) The palmar venous arches drain into the ________,which is superficial and runs along the medial upper limb.
A) digital vein
B) cephalic vein
C) axillary vein
D) brachial vein
E) basilic vein
Q2) Label K represents the A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) aortic arch.
C) left pulmonary arteries.
D) left pulmonary veins.
E) pulmonary trunk.
Q3) The vessels that permit exchange of materials between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluid are called
A) capillaries.
B) arterioles.
C) arteries.
D) venules.
E) veins.

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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier,which is an innate defense mechanism?
A) secretions of sebaceous glands
B) fixed macrophages
C) perforins
D) cytokines
E) histamine and heparin
Q2) Immunoglobulins that are the first antibody type to be produced and secreted,following initial exposure to an antigen,are the ________ antibodies.
A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgA
Q3) Mr.Johnson is a 60-year-old man with severe kidney disease.His kidney disease has caused hypoproteinemia due to the filtration of,and subsequent loss of,protein in the urine.He also has swollen arms and legs.Is it possible that the swollen limbs are linked to his kidney disease?
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Q1) The respiratory surfaces of the nasal cavity are cleared by mucus produced in part by which of the following?
A) external nares
B) paranasal sinuses
C) soft palate
D) nasal vestibule
E) nasopharynx
Q2) The condition of low tissue oxygen levels is known as A) cystic fibrosis.
B) hypoxia.
C) hyperventilation.
D) pneumothorax.
E) emphysema.
Q3) The respiratory mucosa is made up of A) dense irregular connective tissue.
B) squamous epithelium.
C) ciliated cuboidal epithelium.
D) ciliated columnar epithelium.
E) dense regular connective tissue.
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Q1) Chewing is called
A) segmentation.
B) pendulum movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) ingestion.
E) mastication.
Q2) Which of the following lies under the skin covering the lateral and posterior surfaces of the mandible?
A) sublingual salivary gland
B) parotid salivary glands
C) exocrine pancreas
D) frenulum
E) submandibular salivary glands
Q3) Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin that is important in glucose metabolism?
A) vitamin K
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin E
D) biotin
E) vitamin B
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Q1) About 40% of the energy released through catabolism is used to convert ADP to ATP.What happens to the remaining 60% of energy?
A) It is destroyed during the catabolic activities.
B) It is used to convert RNA to DNA.
C) It is immediately used in anabolic processes.
D) It escapes as heat to warm the tissues.
E) It transforms into mechanical energy.
Q2) Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from precursor molecules such as A) sucrose.
B) glycerol.
C) fructose.
D) glycogen.
E) galactose.
Q3) Lipogenesis of steroids and almost all fatty acids begins with A) glucose.
B) amino acids.
C) fatty acids.
D) acetyl CoA.
E) succinyl CoA.
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Q1) Management of renal failure involves restriction of water,salt,and protein intake.This approach helps to lessen the strain on the urinary system by
A) maximizing the volume of urine produced.
B) preventing any increase in blood plasma pH.
C) preventing the generation of large quantities of nitrogenous waste products.
D) regulating daily caloric intake.
E) preventing the excretion of any organic waste products.
Q2) Label G represents which of the following structures?
A) urethra
B) ureter
C) renal pelvis
D) hilum
E) fibrous capsule
Q3) Fred suffers from chronic emphysema.Blood tests show that his blood pH is normal but his bicarbonate levels are elevated significantly.Explain why the blood pH is unaffected.
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Q1) The increase in FSH that occurs by day 5 of the ovarian cycle triggers
A) formation of a tertiary follicle.
B) menstruation.
C) ovulation.
D) menopause.
E) pregnancy.
Q2) The physical maturation of sperm is called
A) meiosis I.
B) oogenesis.
C) spermatogonia mitosis.
D) spermiogenesis.
E) tetrad formation.
Q3) Label L represents which of the following structures?
A) urethra
B) fornix
C) vagina
D) cervix
E) fimbriae
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Q1) Individuals with ________ have only one sex chromosome,and it is an X chromosome.
A) Trisomy 21
B) Down's syndrome
C) Turner's syndrome
D) Fragile-X syndrome
E) Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) The morula stage occurs during which process?
A) embryogenesis
B) placentation
C) gastrulation
D) implantation
E) cleavage
Q3) Human somatic cells contain ________ chromosomes.
A) 24, or 12 pairs of
B) 46, or 23 pairs of
C) 92, or 46 pairs of
D) 12, or 6 pairs of
E) 16, or 8 pairs of
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