Occupational Therapy Anatomy
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Occupational Therapy Anatomy provides students with a foundational understanding of human anatomy as it relates specifically to the practice of occupational therapy. The course emphasizes the structure and function of the musculoskeletal, nervous, and other organ systems, focusing on how these anatomical components influence movement, coordination, and daily activities. Through lectures, laboratory sessions, and applied activities, students learn to identify anatomical features, understand their relevance in clinical scenarios, and apply this knowledge to assess and support individuals in therapeutic settings. This course equips aspiring occupational therapists with essential anatomical knowledge to inform their clinical reasoning and intervention planning.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nose is located on the _____ surface of the head.
A)Superior
B)Inferior
C)Anterior
D)Posterior
E)Medial
F)Lateral
G)Proximal
H)Distal
I)Superficial
Answer: C
Q2) List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q3) Visceral peritoneum would cover which of the following organs?
A)Heart
B)Intestines
C)Lungs
D)Spinal cord
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tiny, primitive cell that lacks a nucleus and can cause infection
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: E
Q2) A type of protein that converts normal protein in the nervous system into abnormal proteins that cause loss of function
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis reactions release energy for use by the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called:
A)hydrolysis.
B)oxidation.
C)decomposition.
D)dehydration synthesis.
Answer: D
Q4) Four elements are considered to be the major elements in the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of proteins to perform their function depends on their shape or conformation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are:
A)triglycerides.
B)phosphoglycerides.
C)steroids.
D)prostaglandins.
Q3) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
Q4) What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids?
A)Degree of saturation
B)Presence of glycerol
C)Available bonds of hydrocarbons
D)Polarity
Q5) A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the structure and function of cilia and flagella. What is the only type of human cell that has a flagellum?
Q2) In the cell membrane, the hydrophilic part of the phospholipid molecule:
A)faces the exterior of the cell.
B)faces the interior of the cell.
C)is in the center of the phospholipid bilayer.
D)both A and B.
Q3) Centrosomes play an important role in cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A complete ribosome only exists when it is making a protein.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hormones attach to special cholesterol molecules in the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Tight junctions do not allow molecules to spread through the cracks between cells.
A)True
B)False
7
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis is an example of:
A)exocytosis.
B)endocytosis.
C)passive transport.
D)facilitated diffusion.
Q2) Proenzymes are unable to act as a catalyst in any type of chemical reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When molecules pass directly through the cell membrane, the process is called filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The energy storage molecules NADH and FADH have their energy converted to ATP in the electron transport system.
A)True B)False
Q5) For osmosis to occur, a selectively permeable membrane must be present. A)True B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phase in which chromosomes become visible
A)Anaphase
B)Metaphase
C)Prophase
D)Telophase
Q2) Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step.
Q3) If the original DNA code was CAA, the transfer RNA for that strand of DNA would be CAA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not true of RNA?
A)It is a single strand.
B)It contains uracil rather than thymine.
C)The obligatory base pairs are adenine and uracil, and guanine and cytosine.
D)It contains deoxyribose sugar.
Q6) Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. What is the importance of the "triplet"?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collagen is the most abundant protein compound in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The membrane lining the wall of the abdominal cavity is the:
A)visceral pleura.
B)parietal pleura.
C)visceral peritoneum.
D)parietal peritoneum.
Q3) Give a brief description of tissue repair, including the varying capacities with which the different types of tissues can accomplish this task.
Q4) A tissue is:
A)a membrane that lines body cavities.
B)a group of similar cells that perform a common function.
C)a thin sheet of cells embedded in a matrix.
D)the most complex organizational unit of the body.
Q5) Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body.
Q6) An example of a cutaneous membrane is the skin.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissue is the most widespread and diverse tissue in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The conducting cells of the nervous system
A)Neuron
B)Neuroglia
C)Axon
D)Soma
E)Dendrite
Q3) How can epithelial tissue be described?
A)Forms glands
B)Contains mostly extracellular matrix
C)Forms membranes
D)Both A and C
Q4) About 40% of the bone matrix is made of inorganic material.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Epithelial tissue can be classified by the shape of the cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hair is usually not found on thick skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The layer beneath the dermis is called the:
A)hypodermis.
B)subcutaneous layer.
C)superficial fascia.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The surface film found on the skin has a variety of functions, including:
A)lubrication.
B)buffering of caustic irritants.
C)antibacterial and antifungal activity.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Keratohyalin is a protein in the stratum lucidum that will eventually be transformed into keratin in the cells of the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The hypodermis is the deepest layer of skin.
A)True
B)False
12
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of repeated wear and tear, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than people who exercise less often.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of:
A)osteoclasts.
B)osteocytes.
C)osteoblasts.
D)chondrocytes.
Q3) The components of the inorganic matrix maintain the smooth surface and springy consistency of the bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how the body regulates the calcium level in the blood. Discuss the activities of both hormones involved and where each is made. What problems might occur in the body if the calcium level were too low?
Q5) Haversian systems are found only in cancellous bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The palatine bones have horizontal portions that are part of the hard palate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tubercle of each rib articulates with the vertebra's body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The palatine bone:
A)makes up the side of the skull.
B)completes the nasal septum.
C)makes up part of the hard palate.
D)makes up none of the above.
Q4) Which of the following bones does not contain paranasal sinuses?
A)Frontal
B)Maxilla
C)Zygomatic
D)Sphenoid
Q5) Transverse process
A)Ribs
B)Sternum
C)Vertebrae
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The largest of the bones making up the innominate bone is the ischium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the: A)sacrum. B)ilium.
C)ischium. D)pubis.
Q6) Beginning at the shoulder, name the bones in the upper extremity from proximal to distal.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occipital bone's joint with the atlas is an example of a condyloid joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because of the instability of the glenoid cavity and humerus, one of the strongest ligaments in the body is found surrounding the shoulder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are four bursae in the shoulder joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of a _____ joint.
A)saddle
B)gliding
C)condyloid (ellipsoidal)
D)pivot
Q5) Plantar flexion of the foot can also be described as extension of the leg. A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trapezius muscle functions primarily to move the shoulders. However, when the occipital bone acts as the insertion, the trapezius can:
A)bend and rotate the head toward the contracting side.
B)help extend the neck.
C)help flex the neck.
D)return the head to the upright position after flexion.
Q2) A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tube-shaped structure of fibrous connective tissue
A)Endomysium
B)Tendon
C)Epimysium
D)Aponeurosis
E)Fascia
F)Perimysium
G)Tendon sheath
H)Fascicles
Q4) Name four features that are used in the naming of muscles. Give an example of each.
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the:
A)extensor digitorum.
B)opponens pollicis.
C)palmaris longus.
D)flexor carpi radialis.
Q2) Muscles that move the thigh and lower leg can be divided into two groups, muscles that come from the hips and those that come from the gluteal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm?
A)Pectoralis major
B)Latissimus dorsi
C)Deltoid
D)Trapezius
Q4) The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles usually contract to about _____ of their length.
A)30%
B)40%
C)80%
D)90%
Q2) Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules?
A)Smooth
B)Cardiac
C)Striated
D)All muscles have T-tubules.
Q3) Myofibrils make up myofilaments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Slow fibers are also called white fibers, because they contain a low concentration of myoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List three characteristics of muscles.
Q6) Name and describe the myofilament fibers in the sarcomere.
Q7) Explain how glycogen and myoglobin aid in muscle contraction.
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a stroke, there is usually some damage to brain tissue. What type of neuroglia would you expect to find invading the affected area?
A)Astrocytes
B)Ependymal cells
C)Microglia
D)Oligodendrocytes
Q2) What two systems perform the vital functions of communication and integration of body processes?
Q3) If there were lesions on a bundle of myelinated fibers, what would occur?
A)Nerve conduction would be enhanced with an increase in motor coordination.
B)There would be no side effects of these types of lesions.
C)Nerve conduction would be impaired, and weakness, loss of coordination, and visual impairment would occur.
D)Nerve conduction would be impaired, and neuromas would develop.
Q4) In neurons, microtubules are called neurofibrils.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name two types of tissue that are effectors.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the types of glia cells found in the nervous system.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many anesthetics produce their effects by inhibiting the opening of the potassium channels, blocking the repolarization of nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain what characteristics of the neuron affect the speed at which action potentials are conducted. What is the range of speed at which an impulse can be conducted?
Q3) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine always has an excitatory effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an impulse reaches a synapse:
A)two nerve fibers come in direct contact.
B)impulses will pass in either direction.
C)an electrical spark will jump the gap.
D)chemical transmitters are released.
Q5) In the mature nervous system, electrical synapses can occur only where there are gap junctions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron.
21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cerebrum has more neurons than any other part of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) General term for a shallow groove in the cortex
A)Longitudinal fissure
B)Lateral fissure
C)Sulci
D)Parieto-occipital sulcus
E)Fissure
F)Central sulcus
G)Gyri
Q3) The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating water balance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The central nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a lumbar puncture? Why is it done?
Q6) Explain the functions of the thalamus.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mixed nerve is one that:
A)goes both to the skin surface and to the viscera.
B)has its pathway mixed with other nerves.
C)carries both sensory and motor fibers.
D)carries large and small motor fibers.
Q2) Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.
Q3) Reflexes that involve skeletal muscles
A)Cauda equina
B)Ventral nerve root
C)Dorsal nerve root
D)Cervical plexus
E)Brachial plexus
F)Lumbar plexus
G)Dermatome
H)Myotome
I)Somatic reflexes
J)Autonomic reflexes
Q4) The abducens nerve fibers originate in the medulla oblongata.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a nerve impulse is being sent to a gland, it will pass through two neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why the cells of the adrenal medulla can be considered sympathetic postganglionic neurons with no specific effector organ.
Q4) The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Autonomic effectors require two efferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) All cranial nerves except nerves I and II contain parasympathetic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain in general, what the function of the parasympathetic nervous system is.
24
Q8) Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity.
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory impulses ending in what part of the central nervous system (CNS) may affect the so-called "vital sign" reflexes?
A)Thalamus
B)Cerebellum
C)Brainstem
D)Cerebral cortex
Q2) Somatic sense receptors are distributed evenly throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary mechanism of fibromyalgia seems to be an abnormal amplification of pain information by the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mechanoreceptors are activated by stimuli that in some way deform or change the position of the receptor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the different functions of the muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon receptors.
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of sound waves that occur during a specific timeframe is called its frequency.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tip of the tongue reacts best to bitter taste.
A)True
B)False
Q3) High-frequency sound waves cause the narrow portion of the basilar membrane near the oval window to vibrate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)Cones are more numerous than rods.
B)Cones are most densely concentrated in the fovea centralis.
C)Rods are most densely concentrated in the macula lutea.
D)Cones increase in density toward the periphery of the retina.
Q5) Movement of the eyeball in any desired direction is accomplished by several intrinsic muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Hormones that are antagonistic to each other are able to "fine-tune" the activity of the target cell with great accuracy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells make prostaglandins by breaking apart triglyceride molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cells either have receptors for neurotransmitters and respond to the nervous system or have hormone receptors and respond to the endocrine system, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The anterior pituitary gland can be either stimulated to release hormones or inhibited from releasing hormones by secretions from the hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The endocrine system can regulate most cells in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pituitary gland fits in the pituitary fossa in a structure called the sella turcica.
A)True
B)False
Q2) High concentrations of glucocorticoids cause an increase in white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) FSH and LH are called gonadotropins because they stimulate the growth and maintenance of the gonads.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucocorticoids have a hypoglycemic effect on blood sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Testosterone is produced by the seminiferous tubules of the testes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Glucocorticoids are essential for maintaining a normal blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 45% of whole blood is plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of white blood cells?
A)More brightly colored than red blood cells
B)Larger than red blood cells
C)Contain a nucleus
D)All of the above are true of white blood cells.
Q3) A woman could have Rh antibodies in her blood if:
A)Rh+ blood was given in a transfusion.
B)an Rh+ fetus was developing within.
C)RhoGAM was given.
D)both A and B occurred.
Q4) The mature red blood cell has no nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The buffy coat does not contain formed elements of the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period between the filling of the ventricles and the opening of the semilunar valves is called:
A)atrial systole.
B)isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C)isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D)passive ventricular filling.
Q2) The sinoatrial node is in the right atrium, where the superior vena cava attaches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ventricular depolarization
A)QRS complex
B)P wave
C)T wave
D)U wave
Q4) Atrial systole causes blood to:
A)leave the heart.
B)move through the semilunar valves.
C)move through the cuspid valves.
D)do both A and B.
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Systemic circulation includes blood flow to all parts of the body except the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood flow from the pulmonary arteries leads to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these blood vessels contain precapillary sphincters?
A)Venules
B)Muscular arteries
C)Arterioles
D)Metarterioles
Q4) Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. After listening to the infant's chest, the physician becomes concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem, and what is the treatment?
Q5) The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What function does the foramen ovale serve in fetal circulation?
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two important baroreceptors are located in the aorta and the carotid artery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The drop in blood pressure is greater between the aorta and capillary bed than it is between the capillaries and the venae cavae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An increase in ADH in the blood would have a tendency to increase total blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Operation of the Starling law ensures that when the amount of blood returned to the heart is increased, stroke volume automatically increases to pump it out.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pressure gradient in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cutaneous lymphatic plexus drains lymph from the: A)forearm.
B)facial areas.
C)breast.
D)leg.
Q2) Lymphatic vessels contain more valves than do veins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the role lymphatic vessels and nodes can play in handling the healing process when swelling and infection are present.
Q4) Discuss the potential physiological effect that could result if blood proteins that escaped from the capillaries remained in the interstitial fluids without being returned to the blood.
Q5) Removal of the spleen will most likely render a patient ill for the rest of his or her life. A)True B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast mechanisms for the movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels with the movement of blood through veins.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the pus surrounding an inflammation site consists of dead or damaged tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many of the inflammation mediators act as chemotactic factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interferon production is stimulated by the presence of double-stranded DNA in a cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phagocytic monocyte (nongranular WBC) in the immune system
A)Phagocytosis
B)Macrophage
C)Nonspecific immunity
D)Interferon
Q5) T lymphocytes release histamine, kinins, and prostaglandins at the site of an infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The letters "CD" following a T cell stand for "cellular diversity."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each.
Q3) Antibody that is associated with allergies
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q4) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) damages the immune system by _____ cells.
A)invading memory
B)invading T
C)overproduction of B
D)overproduction of plasma
Q5) The type of immunity produced by vaccination would be _____ immunity.
A)active natural
B)passive natural
C)active artificial
D)passive artificial
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following determine(s) which stimuli are stressors for each individual?
A)Heredity
B)Past experiences
C)Either extreme of a continuum
D)All of the above
Q2) Define fetal programming.
Q3) All of the following are components of the "stress triad" observed by Hans Selye except:
A)enlarged adrenals.
B)hypertrophied skeletal muscles.
C)shrunken lymphatic organs.
D)bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers.
Q4) The stress triad refers to:
A)alarm, exhaustion, and resistance.
B)hypertrophied adrenals, atrophied thymus and lymph nodes, and bleeding ulcers.
C)stressor, stress, and response.
D)health, stress, and disease.
Q5) What condition or behaviors by a mother can lead to increased stress on her fetus?
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharynx is a tubelike structure that opens only into the mouth and larynx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The right lung is divided into three lobes by horizontal and oblique fissures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The narrowest part of the larynx is the slit between the right and left vocal folds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vomeronasal organ:
A)is the structure that joins the nasal cavity and the vomer bone.
B)is vestigial with no known function in the adult.
C)may be able to respond to complex chemicals called pheromones.
D)Both A and C are correct.
Q5) The rib cage and the diaphragm are considered part of the accessory structures of the respiratory system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech?
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quiet expiration is normally a passive process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the base of the ribs together, forcing air out of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alveolar ventilation is inspired air minus:
A)anatomical dead air space.
B)tidal volume.
C)reserve volume.
D)residual volume.
Q5) With emphysema, the amount of dead space air increases.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the diving reflex.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme in blood plasma that helps form carbaminohemoglobin is carbonic anhydrase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One factor that determines the amount of oxygen transferred from the lungs to the blood is the total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A drop in the body's production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of:
A)carbonic acid.
B)oxyhemoglobin.
C)carbaminohemoglobin.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q4) Assume the percent of oxygen in the air is constant (about 21%). What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the mountains, where the atmospheric pressure is 725 mm Hg?
Q5) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
Q6) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscularis layer of the wall of the GI tract consists of a single layer of circular muscle.
A)True B)False
Q2) The group of blood vessels running through the submucosal layer is called the Meissner plexus.
A)True B)False
Q3) The term intramural plexus includes both the Meissner and the Auerbach plexus. A)True B)False
Q4) Another name for the lower esophageal sphincter is the pyloric sphincter. A)True B)False
Q5) The stomach wall is unique because it is made up of four layers of muscle rather than three. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain why soluble drugs can be absorbed rapidly if placed under the tongue.
Q7) Give the complete definition of digestion.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the pancreas, alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as:
A)cholelithiasis.
B)cholecystitis.
C)cholecystectomy.
D)choledochorrhaphy.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
A)Stores vitamin A
B)Carries on numerous steps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins
C)Secretes bile
D)Stores bile
Q4) Crohn disease is an inflammatory disease of the bowel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Allen was an alcoholic. He had a condition known as alcoholic hepatitis. This condition causes inflammation of the liver and results in reduced production and secretion of bile. What digestive complication does this produce?
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chylomicrons are formed in the epithelial cells lining the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
A)They accelerate chemical reactions.
B)They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
C)They are vital to chemical reactions.
D)Many contain vitamins in their structure.
Q3) Colipase is a substance made by the small intestine, and it functions as a coenzyme in fat digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants?
A)Constipation
B)Diarrhea
C)Cholera
D)Pyloric stenosis
Q5) Explain the process of carbohydrate digestion.
Q6) What substances are found in pancreatic juice? How are the inactive substances in pancreatic juice activated?
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxidative phosphorylation provides about 90% of the cell's ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Products derived from anabolism may differ from cell to cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Malnutrition includes a deficiency or imbalance of:
A)water.
B)food.
C)vitamins.
D)both B and C.
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of a saturated fat?
A)It is a solid at room temperature.
B)It contains all the hydrogen it can hold.
C)It has at least one double bond.
D)Both A and B are characteristics of a saturated fat.
Q5) Waiting until after a 12- to 18-hour postabsorptive period had past would be necessary to obtain an accurate measure of the basal metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mesangial cells may have a role in regulating blood flow through the glomerular loop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which parts of the nephron do all of the following functions occur: passive reabsorption, active reabsorption, passive secretion, and active secretion?
A)Proximal tubule and the renal corpuscle
B)Collecting duct and the distal tubule
C)Collecting duct and the ascending nephron limb
D)Collecting duct and the descending nephron limb
Q3) The fibrous adventitia covers only the superior surface of the bladder; the rest is covered by the parietal peritoneum.
A)True B)False
Q4) The fenestrations increase the porosity of the glomerulus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What structures make up the renal corpuscle?
Q6) Describe the internal structure of the kidney.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total concentration of anions in blood plasma is slightly higher than the total concentration of cations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Movement of water and solutes between ECF and ICF spaces is influenced by all of the following except:
A)large protein molecules that cannot diffuse out of the cell.
B)ion transport.
C)positive charges attracting negatively charged ions.
D)All of the above influence movement.
Q3) Explain the relationship between the sodium concentration in the interstitial fluid and the chloride concentration, between the potassium concentration and the chloride concentration.
Q4) If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract: A)cations. B)anions.
C)chloride ions.
D)Both B and C are correct.
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prolonged hyperventilation tends to:
A)produce alkalosis.
B)decrease blood pH.
C)produce acidosis.
D)stimulate increased production of carbonic acid.
Q3) The more an acid dissociates, the stronger the acid is said to be.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs _____ ions.
A)potassium
B)calcium
C)chloride
D)sodium
Q5) Assume the strong base NaOH was added to a solution that contained the phosphate buffer pair Na HPO /NaH PO . Write out the chemical equation that shows how this buffer pair would react to the NaOH.
Page 46
Q6) Explain the methods the kidney uses to help control the pH of the blood.
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Filling of the erectile tissue in the penis is necessary for coitus to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The prostate and the testes are essential organs of reproduction in males.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of the estrogen found in males is probably made in the liver or other tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The penis is composed of four cylindrical masses of erectile tissue-two corpus cavernosa and two corpus spongiosa.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ampulla of the vas deferens joins with the duct from the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain structure and the function of the scrotum.
Q7) Describe the structure of spermatozoa and give the function of each part.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average age of both menarche and menopause has decreased in recent years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is:
A)estrogen.
B)oxytocin.
C)prolactin.
Q3) Ova are produced in the germinal epithelial layer of the ovary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A woman is fertile throughout her menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hormone that stimulates the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland
A)Estrogen
B)FSH
C)GnRH
D)LH
E)Progesterone
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science of the development of the offspring before birth is called gerontology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The third stage of labor is the:
A)period of uterine contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete.
B)period of maximal cervical dilation.
C)period when the baby exits the vagina.
D)process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina.
Q3) The primary germ layers developed from stem cells are referred to as:
A)omnipotent.
B)pluripotent.
C)totipotent.
D)multipotent.
Q4) Adolescence is characterized by the maintenance of existing body tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The yolk sac does not have a nutritive function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a karyotype found an X chromosome, a Y chromosome, and three 21st chromosomes, it would indicate a _____ syndrome.
A)female with Down
B)female with Turner
C)male with Klinefelter
D)male with Down
Q2) A pedigree is a chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene recessive trait?
A)Huntington disease
B)Tay-Sachs disease
C)PKU
D)All of the above are single-gene recessive traits.
Q4) The genotype XXY results in Turner syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the principle of independent assortment.
Q6) What is codominance? Give an example of this phenomenon in your explanation.
Page 50
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