Occupational Health and Safety Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Occupational Health and Safety explores the principles and practices aimed at promoting and maintaining the physical, mental, and social well-being of workers across various industries. The course covers key topics such as the identification and assessment of workplace hazards, risk management strategies, legislative frameworks, and the development of health and safety policies. Students will examine case studies, learn about accident prevention techniques, and gain practical skills related to ergonomics, emergency response, and health surveillance. Emphasis is placed on the role of safety culture, employer and employee responsibilities, and the importance of continuous improvement in creating a safe and healthy work environment.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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21 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2406 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47832
Sample Questions
Q1) The infectious disease which is considered to be the greatest single cause of death in the world today is A)malaria.
B)AIDS.
C)tuberculosis.
D)cholera.
E)plague.
Answer: C
Q2) The human immunodeficiency virus
A)has been present in the world for over a century.
B)has been largely controlled throughout the world.
C)only transmitted amongst men who have sex with men.
D)is a viral disease that is now mainly spread by insects.
E)destroys cells that are an integral part of the body's immune system.
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autotrophic organisms
A)can only grow in the presence of oxygen.
B)use energy from the sun to carry out photosynthesis.
C)need complex organic compounds to grow.
D)fix nitrogen from the atmosphere into nitrates.
E)require oxygen for growth.
Answer: B
Q2) Enzymes
A)are always made of protein.
B)are made of protein and carbohydrate.
C)usually consist of protein and DNA.
D)are part of the material in the cell wall of some bacteria.
E)are always located on membranes.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Bacteria
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the stationary phase of bacterial growth
A)the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell death.
B)the lack of nutrients means there is no cell replication.
C)the cells stop growing to produce endospores.
D)the cells are in a resting phase prior to rapid multiplication.
E)all of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) Plasmids are
A)small pieces of DNA which may carry genes for antibiotic resistance.
B)structures which are only found in pathogenic bacteria.
C)essential for the correct replication of a bacterial cell.
D)small pieces of DNA attached to the plasma membrane.
E)only found in Gram-positive bacteria.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation in bacteria
A)occurs at the rate of about once in every 109 cell divisions.
B)may occur as a result of exposure to radiation.
C)may result in the organism acquiring better characteristics.
D)may result the organism becoming resistant to antibiotics.
E)all of the above.
Q2) A resistance factor
A)is a plasmid that carries genes for antibiotic resistance.
B)is a factor that enables a bacterium to resist being infected by a phage.
C)prevents mutation occurring in the chromosome of a bacterium.
D)limits the rate of mutation in bacteria by stabilising their DNA.
E)is a gene that is only expressed under adverse conditions.
Q3) An enzyme that can break a DNA molecule at a specific point is called a
A)point mutase.
B)restriction endonuclease.
C)reverse transcriptase.
D)point depolymerase.
E)none of the above.
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6
Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major reason we have relatively few antiviral drugs is that
A)viruses are resistant to most chemicals.
B)viruses use host cell mechanisms to replicate.
C)viruses don't have any enzymes to attack.
D)viruses don't have a cell wall.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements about retroviruses is TRUE?
A)They usually synthesise DNA from viral RNA.
B)They all contain an enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
C)Their replication can be inhibited with nucleotide analogues.
D)The human immunodeficiency virus is a retrovirus.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Hepatitis B virus can cause a carrier state in a person,which means that
A)there is a continuous,low level of virus replication.
B)the person is infected but doesn't transmit the virus.
C)the infection will only ever be mild.
D)the person's immune system is permanently damaged.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Candida albicans is a yeast which
A)is a source of antibiotics.
B)is a normal human commensal.
C)only causes infections after antibiotic use.
D)is a common cause of impetigo.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Yeasts and moulds are multicellular fungi.
B)All fungi have cell walls.
C)Fungi cannot tolerate extremes of pH and osmotic pressure.
D)Fungi can use carbon dioxide as a carbon source.
E)Fungi only grow on decomposing vegetation.
Q3) A protozoal disease which is often transmitted in contaminated drinking water is A)toxoplasmosis.
B)trichomoniasis.
C)giardiasis.
D)chlamydia.
E)malaria.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Newborn babies do not have a microbiota because they are washed with antiseptics at birth.
B)Babies born by caesarean versus a natural birth are more likely to acquire infection from the mother.
C)A newborn baby does not have an intestinal microbiota as long as it is breastfed.
D)The human foetus while it is growing in the uterus contains the same microbiota as the mother.
E)None of the above.
Q2) The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream without any signs or symptoms is called
A)septicaemia.
B)toxaemia.
C)leukaemia.
D)pyaemia.
E)bacteraemia.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rabies is an example of
A)a communicable disease.
B)a zoonosis.
C)a biofilm infection.
D)an opportunistic infection.
E)an endogenous infection.
Q2) The collection and analysis of data on the occurrence and spread of a disease is called
A)primary prevention.
B)surveillance.
C)infection control.
D)prospective study.
E)disease classification.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Endogenous infections are caused by organisms already present on the body.
B)Infections caused by a person's own microbiota are regarded as exogenous.
C)Endogenous infections have to penetrate the skin to cause disease.
D)Thrush is usually an exogenous infection.
E)Endogenous infections are usually caused by viruses.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an activity of complement?
A)Histamine release from mast cells.
B)Lysis of foreign cell membranes.
C)Neutrophil chemotaxis.
D)Enhancement of antigen adherence to phagocytic cells.
E)Natural killer cell recruitment.
Q2) A nurse suffers a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient with hepatitis
B.If she has not been previously vaccinated against hepatitis B,she should immediately receive
A)antibiotics.
B)hepatitis B immune globulin.
C)gammaglobulin.
D)complement.
E)hepatitis B surface antigen.
Q3) The mucociliary escalator protects the A)lungs.
B)small intestine.
C)urinary bladder.
D)eyes.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae
A)binds specifically to intestinal epithelial cells.
B)alters the regulatory control mechanism in the target cells.
C)causes secretion of chloride ions from the affected cells.
D)produces a watery diarrhoea.
E)all the above.
Q2) Virulent staphylococci produce an enzyme which coats the bacterial cells with fibrin and protects them against phagocytes.This enzyme is called
A)coagulase.
B)streptokinase.
C)hyaluronidase.
D)collagenase.
E)keratinase.
Q3) Biofilm formation may assist bacteria to
A)synchronise their toxin production.
B)attach to a surface.
C)infect a wound.
D)contaminate an intravascular catheter.
E)all of the above.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47842
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the most effective method for killing microorganisms in contaminated water?
A)Refrigeration.
B)Freezing.
C)Boiling.
D)All of the above.
E)None of the above.
Q2) If an instrument has been sanitised
A)it has been cleaned but not necessarily disinfected or sterilised.
B)it is completely free of all microorganisms and spores.
C)the number of microbes on it has been reduced to an acceptable level.
D)it has been subjected to a chemical that disinfects but doesn't sterilise.
E)it is no longer contaminated.
Q3) Ultraviolet light
A)can't kill microorganisms at all.
B)in sunlight has disinfecting activity.
C)can penetrate solid objects at close distances.
D)is not dependent on time of exposure for effectiveness.
E)none of the above.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47843
Sample Questions
Q1) Aminoglycosides
A)affect protein synthesis by causing misreading of messenger RNA.
B)can have serious side effects such as nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
C)are often used synergistically with another antimicrobial drug.
D)are mostly administered intravenously or intramuscularly.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The antiviral drug that is most effective for herpes infections and shingles is A)aciclovir.
B)amantadine.
C)interferon.
D)oseltamivir.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Bacteria can become resistant to an antibiotic that is regularly used because of A)selective pressure.
B)synergism.
C)host resistance.
D)mutualism.
E)all of the above.
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14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis,which infection control procedures should be observed?
A)Standard Precautions.
B)Airborne precautions.
C)Droplet precautions.
D)Standard Precautions and airborne precautions.
E)Standard Precautions and contact precautions.
Q2) Which of the following tends to have the highest incidence of healthcare associated infections?
A)Large public hospitals.
B)Small public hospitals.
C)Small private hospitals.
D)Aged-care facilities.
E)Dental surgeries.
Q3) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci
A)are resistant to vancomycin but not to other drugs.
B)most often cause infections in healthy people.
C)can cause surgical wound infections.
D)don't survive well in the hospital environment.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An injecting drug user is at increased risk of acquiring A)tetanus.
B)malaria.
C)hepatitis C.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q2) The BCG vaccine for tuberculosis is recommended for
A)Aboriginal children in the Northern Territory.
B)all healthcare workers in Australia.
C)all overseas travellers under the age of 12 years.
D)all immigrants from South-East Asia.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following diseases is mainly seen in tropical areas of northern Australia?
A)Typhoid.
B)Melioidosis.
C)Lyme disease.
D)Q fever.
E)Tuberculosis.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood cultures
A)may not yield a result for several days or more.
B)should be collected from all patients on admission to hospital.
C)refers to a special method in which swab specimens are cultured in blood.
D)require the collection of 500 ml of blood from the patient.
E)should not be collected more than once from a patient.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections is TRUE?
A)All urine samples contain some microorganisms because the bladder has a normal microbiota.
B)A midstream specimen of urine (MSU)is usually the most appropriate specimen to collect.
C)Urine is toxic for all microorganisms and thus should not be allowed to stand after collection.
D)Any bacteria found in a urine specimen is indicative of infection.
E)Contamination of a urine specimen is usually by microorganisms from the air.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47847
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is TRUE of scabies?
A)It is spread by close personal contact.
B)It is caused by a mite.
C)Lesions are typically burrows in the epidermis.
D)Outbreaks can occur in hospitals.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Conjunctivitis is
A)rarely caused by bacteria.
B)highly contagious.
C)most frequently spread by flies.
D)best treated with intravenous antibiotics.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following would reduce a patient's risk of acquiring surgical wound infection?
A)Reducing his preoperative stay in hospital.
B)Prophylaxis with antimicrobial drugs.
C)Strict asepsis when changing his dressings.
D)Use of skin antiseptic before the surgical incision is made.
E)All of the above.
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18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes glandular fever?
A)Hendra virus.
B)Epstein-Barr (EB)virus.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Haemophilus influenzae.
E)Respiratory syncytial virus.
Q2) Most organisms that cause respiratory infections come from
A)the hospital environment.
B)aerosols from water tanks.
C)contaminated surfaces.
D)people with infections.
E)swimming pools and spas.
Q3) The reason that people repeatedly suffer from colds is because
A)the cold virus mutates so people have no immunity.
B)they get a chill.
C)many different viruses cause the common cold.
D)antibiotics don't kill viruses.
E)they haven't been vaccinated.
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19
Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Salmonellosis
A)is rare in developed countries.
B)is a food intoxication.
C)is often associated with poultry meat or foods containing eggs.
D)should always be treated with antimicrobial drugs.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Cholera is a disease which
A)only occurs in humans.
B)is often transmitted via contaminated drinking water.
C)can be prevented by vaccination.
D)is rare in Australia.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Diarrhoeal disease is more common in children attending daycare centres than those at home because
A)of close contact between children.
B)of oral exploration of objects by young children.
C)staff can spread disease between children.
D)some organisms that affect children have a low infectious dose.
E)all of the above.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is characteristically transmitted to humans in the urine of animals?
A)Leptospirosis.
B)Q fever.
C)Melioidosis.
D)Anthrax.
E)Listeriosis.
Q2) Plague is a disease that
A)causes cell masses,called buboes,to form in the lungs.
B)is caused by fleas.
C)no longer occurs in developed countries.
D)was once referred to as the Black Death.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Lyme disease
A)is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.
B)is mainly spread by mosquitoes.
C)only occurs in the United States.
D)can be spread from human to human in saliva.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests on a CSF specimen would NOT be useful in the diagnosis of meningitis?
A)Culture on agar plates.
B)Microscopic examination for host cell types.
C)Gram stain and microscopy.
D)Electron microscopy.
E)Glucose concentration.
Q2) Meningitis that can spread in epidemic form is
A)meningococcal meningitis.
B)cryptococcal meningitis.
C)viral meningitis.
D)neonatal meningitis.
E)tuberculous meningitis.
Q3) The most common route of infection in meningitis is
A)via peripheral nerves.
B)via the bloodstream.
C)via the paranasal sinuses.
D)from the ears.
E)through the skin.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47852
Sample Questions
Q1) In between attacks of genital herpes,the causative agent
A)exists within nerve cells.
B)is easily obtained by culture of nerve tissue.
C)can be found in genital secretions by Gram staining.
D)is never present in genital secretions.
E)has entered the bloodstream.
Q2) Genital warts
A)is often an asymptomatic infection.
B)are caused by papillomaviruses.
C)are strongly linked with cervical carcinoma.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Significant bacteriuria in an MSU specimen is defined as
A)10² bacteria per litre.
B)10 bacteria per litre.
C)10 bacteria per litre.
D)10 bacteria per litre.
E)any number in a properly collected MSU.
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