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Obstetric Nursing focuses on the nursing care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, along with the care of newborns. The course covers essential concepts such as maternal physiological and psychological changes, prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, postpartum care, neonatal adaptation, and family-centered approaches. Students learn to identify and manage common obstetric complications, provide patient education, and promote maternal and infant health, ensuring safe and effective care throughout the childbearing process.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is formulating a nursing care plan for a postpartum patient. Which actions by the nurse indicate use of critical thinking skills when formulating the care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Using a standardized postpartum care plan
B) Determining priorities for each diagnosis written
C) Writing interventions from a nursing diagnosis book
D) Reflecting and suspending judgment when writing the care plan
E) Clustering data during the assessment process according to normal versus abnormal
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's use of complementary and alternative therapies. Which should the nurse document as an alternative or complementary therapy practice? (Select all that apply.)
A) Practicing yoga daily
B) Drinking green tea in the morning
C) Taking omeprazole (Prilosec) once a day
D) Using aromatherapy during a relaxing bath
E) Wearing a lower back brace when lifting heavy objects
Answer: A, B, D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which step of the nursing process is being used when the nurse decides whether an ethical dilemma exists?
A) Analysis
B) Planning
C) Evaluation
D) Assessment
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based teaching and learning principles. Which situation is most conducive to learning with patients of other cultures?
A) An auditorium is being used as a classroom for 300 students.
B) A teacher who speaks very little Spanish is teaching a class of Hispanic students.
C) A class is composed of students of various ages and educational backgrounds.
D) An Asian nurse provides nutritional information to a group of pregnant Asian women.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents. Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) Maturation of ova
B) Production of sperm
C) Female breast development
D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Answer: C
Q2) Which 16-year-old female patient is most likely to experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) 5 ft 9 in, 180 lb
C) 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) 5 ft 4 in, 125 lb
Answer: C
Q3) Which characteristic best describes the levator ani?
A) Division of the fallopian tube
B) Collection of three pairs of muscles
C) Imaginary line that divides the true pelvis and false pelvis
D) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
Q2) A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session for childbearing-age female patients. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to avoiding exposing a fetus to teratogens?
A)Eliminate use of acne medications.
B)Immunizations should be updated during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C)Use of saunas and hot tubs during pregnancy should be during the winter months only.
D)Alcoholic beverages can be consumed in the first and third trimesters of pregnancy.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Q1) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
Q2) A nurse is conducting prenatal education classes for a group of expectant parents. Which information should the nurse include in her discussion of the purpose of amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cushions the fetus
B) Protects the skin of the fetus
C) Provides nourishment for the fetus
D) Allows for buoyancy for fetal movement
E) Maintains a stable temperature for the fetus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old divorcee with a successful modeling career finds out that her 18-year-old daughter is expecting her first child. Which is a major factor in determining how this woman will respond to becoming a grandmother?
A) Her age
B) Her career
C) Being divorced
D) Age of the daughter
Q2) During vital sign assessment of a pregnant patient in her third trimester, the patient complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Have the patient stand up and retake her blood pressure.
B) Have the patient sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position.
C) Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes.
D) Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms.
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Q1) The nurse is planning care for a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy. The patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which interventions should the nurse plan to share with this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Suck on hard candy.
B) Take prenatal vitamins in the morning.
C) Try some herbal tea to relieve the nausea.
D) Drink fluids frequently but separate from meals.
E) Eat crackers or dry cereal before arising in the morning.
Q2) Use Nägele's rule to determine the EDD (estimated day of birth) for a patient whose last menstrual period started on April 12.
A) February 19
B) January 19
C) January 21
D) February 7
Q3) What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?
A) Avoidance of an episiotomy
B) Determining the outcome of the birth
C) Assuming complete control of the situation
D) Taking an active part in planning the birth experience
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Q1) Which clinical finding is associated with inadequate maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Prolonged labor
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Low-birth-weight infant
Q2) Which guidance related to a healthy diet during pregnancy will the nurse provide to a patient in her 1st trimester?
A) "Every day you need to have at least 6 ounces of protein from sources such as meat, fish, eggs, beans, nuts, soybean products, and tofu."
B) "High-dose vitamin A supplements will promote optimal vision while preventing a common cause of blindness in neonates."
C) "Meals such as sushi with a cold deli salad made with raw sprouts combine high-fiber foods with protein sources to meet multiple nutritional needs."
D) "Vitamin and mineral supplements can meet your nutrient needs if you have inadequate intake because of nausea or a sensation of fullness."
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Q1) When is the earliest interval that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy?
A) 4 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 14 weeks
Q2) What does optimal nursing care after an amniocentesis include?
A) Pushing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
Q3) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
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Q1) Nursing intervention for pregnant patients with diabetes is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin is
A) varied depending on the stage of gestation.
B) increased throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.
C) decreased throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.
D) should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin.
Q2) Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching a pregnant patient with Class II heart disease?
A) Advise her to gain at least 30 lb.
B) Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity.
C) Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.
D) Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium.
Q3) A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called A) total.
B) partial.
C) low-lying.
D) marginal.
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Q1) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
Q2) The nurse is seeing a 17-year-old female in the clinic for complaints of acne. The nurse plans on taking advantage of this teachable moment with the teen. Which topics will the nurse include in the teen's teaching plan?
A) Smoking habits, folic acid intake, and heart disease
B) Hyperlipidemia, distracted driving, and menstrual history
C) Sexual activity, contraception, and screening for violence
D) Optimum weight, hypothyroidism, and sexually transmitted diseases
Q3) Which health concern is most likely to be an issue for the older mother?
A) Nutrition and diet planning
B) Exercise and fitness
C) Having enough rest and sleep
D) Effective contraceptive methods
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Q1) The nurse is assessing the duration of a patient's labor contractions. Which method does the nurse implement to assess the duration of labor contractions?
A) Assess the strongest intensity of each contraction.
B) Assess uterine relaxation between two contractions.
C) Assess from the beginning to the end of each contraction.
D) Assess from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
Q2) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
Q3) Which assessment finding would cause a concern for a patient who had delivered vaginally?
A) Estimated blood loss (EBL) of 500 mL during the birth process
B) White blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth
C) Patient complains of fingers tingling
D) Patient complains of thirst
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a childbirth education class. Which information regarding excessive pain in labor should the nurse include in the session?
A) It usually results in a more rapid labor.
B) It has no effect on the outcome of labor.
C) It is considered to be a normal occurrence.
D) It may result in decreased placental perfusion.
Q2) A patient in labor is approaching the transition stage and already has an epidural in place. An additional dose of medication has been prescribed and administered to the patient. Which priority intervention should be performed in order to evaluate the clinical response to treatment?
A) Obtain a pain scale response from the patient based on a 0 to 10 scale.
B) Document maternal blood pressure and fetal heart rates following medication administration and observe for any variations.
C) Document intake and output on the electronic health record (EHR).
D) Increase the flow rate of prescribed parenteral fluid to maintain hydration.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is instructing a nursing student on the application of fetal monitoring devices. Which method of assessing the fetal heart rate requires the use of a gel?
A) Doppler
B) Fetoscope
C) Scalp electrode
D) Tocodynamometer
Q2) The patient presenting at 38 weeks' gestation, gravida 1, para 0, vaginal exam 4 cm, 100% effaced, +1 station vertex. What is the most likely intervention for this fetal heart rate pattern?
A) Continue oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion.
B) Contact the anesthesia department for epidural administration.
C) Change maternal position.
D) Administer Narcan to patient and prepare for immediate vaginal delivery.
Q3) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
C) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a low-risk patient in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 45 minutes
D) Every 1 hour
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara patient with no visible support person in attendance? The patient has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor lasting 4 hours.
A) Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process
B) Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure
C) Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions
D) Anxiety related to imminent birth process
Q3) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
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Q1) Which finding would be indicative of an adverse response to terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 134 bpm
B) Heart rate of 122 bpm
C) Two episodes of diarrhea
D) Fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL
Q2) Birth for the nulliparous patient with a fetus in a breech presentation is usually
A) cesarean birth.
B) vaginal birth.
C) vacuumed extraction.
D) forceps-assisted birth.
Q3) Which patient situation presents the greatest risk for the occurrence of hypotonic dysfunction during labor?
A) A primigravida who is 17 years old
B) A 22-year-old multiparous patient with ruptured membranes
C) A primigravida who has requested no analgesia during her labor
D) A multiparous patient at 39 weeks of gestation who is expecting twins
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Q1) Which patient would be most likely to have severe afterbirth pains and request a narcotic analgesic?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Primipara who delivered a 7-lb boy
C) Patient who is bottle feeding her first child
D) Patient who is breastfeeding her second child
Q2) A postpartum patient calls the clinic and reports to the nurse feelings of fatigue, tearfulness, and anxiety. What is the nurse's most appropriate response at this time?
A) "When did these symptoms begin?"
B) "Sounds like normal postpartum depression."
C) "Are you having trouble getting enough sleep?"
D) "Are you able to get out of bed and provide care for your baby?"
Q3) A pregnant patient asks when the dark line on her abdomen (linea nigra) will go away. The nurse knows the pigmentation will fade after birth due to
A) increased estrogen.
B) increased progesterone.
C) decreased human placental lactogen.
D) decreased melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
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Q1) A patient with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid.
B) Organisms that cause mastitis are not passed through the milk.
C) The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis.
D) The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk.
Q2) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
Q3) Which statement by a postpartum patient indicates that further teaching regarding thrombus formation is unnecessary?
A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."
B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."
C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."
D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."
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Q1) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
Q2) A newborn is admitted to the special care nursery with hypothermia. Which complication should the nurse monitor for closely?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
Q3) A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because the meconium stool is
A) seen at 3 days of age.
B) the residue of a milk curd.
C) passed in the first 24 hours of life.
D) lighter in color and looser in consistency.
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Q1) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristic indicates the greatest gestational maturity?
A) The infant's arms and legs are extended.
B) There is some peeling and cracking of the skin.
C) There are few rugae on the scrotum and the testes are high in the scrotum.
D) The arm can be positioned with the elbow beyond the midline of the chest.
Q2) The nurse is receiving shift report on her mother-baby couplet assignment. Which infant should the nurse evaluate first?
A) 38-weeks' gestation female newborn with a blood sugar level of 60 mg/dL
B) Term male newborn with a noted axillary temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
C) 40-weeks' gestation female newborn with reported poor feed at last attempt
D) 39-weeks' gestation male newborn who has been crying prior to initial bath
Q3) A new patient asks, "Why are you doing a gestational age assessment on my baby?" The nurse's best response is
A) "It was ordered by your physician."
B) "This must be done to meet insurance requirements."
C) "It helps us identify infants who are at risk for any problems."
D) "The gestational age determines how long the infant will be hospitalized."
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Q1) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean birth and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
Q2) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q3) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is optimal for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscle
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
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Q1) A breastfeeding patient who was discharged yesterday calls to ask about a tender hard area on her right breast. What should the nurse's first response be?
A) "This is a normal response in breastfeeding mothers."
B) "Notify your doctor so he can start you on antibiotics."
C) "Stop breastfeeding because you probably have an infection."
D) "Try massaging the area and apply heat; it is probably a plugged duct."
Q2) Which is the first step in assisting the breastfeeding mother to nurse her infant?
A) Assess the woman's knowledge of breastfeeding.
B) Provide instruction on the composition of breast milk.
C) Discuss the hormonal changes that trigger the milk-ejection reflex.
D) Help her obtain a comfortable position and place the infant to the breast.
Q3) In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?
A) Triplet birth
B) Flat or inverted nipples
C) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
D) Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis
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Q1) A newborn assessment finding that would support the nursing diagnosis of postmaturity would be
A) loose skin.
B) ruddy skin color.
C) presence of vernix.
D) absence of lanugo.
Q2) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is
A) soft and supple skin.
B) a hematocrit level of 55%.
C) lack of subcutaneous fat.
D) an abundance of vernix caseosa.
Q3) Which statement regarding large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants is most accurate?
A) They weigh more than 3500 G
B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.
C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.
D) Postmaturity syndrome is the most common complication.
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Q1) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. If breastfeeding must be supplemented, formula should be used instead of water. The purpose of this plan is to
A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q2) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hct 50%
B) Hct 55%
C) Hct 62%
D) Hct 70%
Q3) The difference between nonphysiologic jaundice (pathologic jaundice) and physiologic jaundice is that nonphysiologic jaundice
A) may result in kernicterus.
B) appears during the first 24 hours of life.
C) begins on the head and progresses down the body.
D) results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
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Q1) A male patient asks, "Why do I have to use another contraceptive? I had a vasectomy last week." The best response is
A) "A vasectomy is only 80% effective."
B) "A vasectomy is not effective in all men."
C) "Semen may contain sperm for 6 months following a vasectomy."
D) "Complete sterilization doesn't occur until all sperm have left the system."
Q2) A patient is using Depo-Provera as her method of birth control. Which clinical finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) Mid-cycle bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
D) Irregular periods
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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Q1) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).
B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).
C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q3) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
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Q1) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a patient who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy
Q2) Which patient is most likely to develop osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old patient on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old patient with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old patient who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old patient who takes supplemental calcium
Q3) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is
A) "No, it is part of the aging process."
B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."
C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."
D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."
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