Obstetric Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing is a specialized area of nursing that focuses on providing care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. This course covers fundamental concepts in maternal health, including prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, and postnatal care for both mother and neonate. Students will learn about normal and high-risk pregnancies, evidence-based interventions, and the crucial role of the nurse in supporting maternal and fetal well-being. The course emphasizes patient education, multidisciplinary teamwork, cultural sensitivity, and up-to-date practices in obstetric emergencies, preparing students to deliver safe and compassionate care throughout the childbirth continuum.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient makes the statement: "I'm afraid to take the baby home tomorrow." Which response by the nurse would be the most therapeutic?
A) "You're afraid to take the baby home?"
B) "Don't you have a mother who can come and help?"
C) "You should read the literature I gave you before you leave."
D) "I was scared when I took my first baby home, but everything worked out."
Answer: A
Q2) Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, "Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?" Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?
A)Birth center
B)Home birth
C)Traditional hospital birth
D)Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While teaching an Asian patient regarding prenatal care, the nurse notes that the patient refuses to make eye contact. Which is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A) A submissive attitude
B) Lack of understanding
C) Embarrassment about the subject
D) Cultural beliefs about eye contact
Answer: D
Q2) Which issue is a major concern among members of lower socioeconomic groups?
A) Practicing preventive health care
B) Meeting health needs as they occur
C) Maintaining an optimistic view of life
D) Maintaining group health insurance for their families
Answer: B
Q3) At the present time, which agency governs surrogate parenting?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman's menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation mostly likely have occurred?
A) June 10
B) June 16
C) June 29
D) July 5
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is describing the size and shape of the nonpregnant uterus to a patient. Which is an accurate description?
A) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a pear.
B) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a cantaloupe.
C) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a grapefruit.
D) The non-pregnant uterus is the size and shape of a large orange.
Answer: A
Q3) Which characteristic best describes the levator ani?
A) Division of the fallopian tube
B) Collection of three pairs of muscles
C) Imaginary line that divides the true pelvis and false pelvis
D) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) the baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) Which information should the nurse include when discussing the prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders with an expectant couple?
A) The diagnosis may be slow and could be inconclusive.
B) A comprehensive evaluation will result in an accurate diagnosis.
C) Common disorders can be quickly diagnosed through blood tests.
D) Diagnosis can be obtained promptly through most hospital laboratories.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting prenatal education classes for a group of expectant parents. Which information should the nurse include in her discussion of the purpose of amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cushions the fetus
B) Protects the skin of the fetus
C) Provides nourishment for the fetus
D) Allows for buoyancy for fetal movement
E) Maintains a stable temperature for the fetus
Q2) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant due to which anatomical adaptation?
A) Maternal blood flow is lower.
B) Placenta attaches most firmly.
C) Uterine endometrium is softer.
D) Developing baby is best nourished.
Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old divorcee with a successful modeling career finds out that her 18-year-old daughter is expecting her first child. Which is a major factor in determining how this woman will respond to becoming a grandmother?
A) Her age
B) Her career
C) Being divorced
D) Age of the daughter
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient in her 37th week of pregnancy for the psychological responses commonly experienced as birth nears. Which psychological responses should the nurse expect to evaluate? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient is excited to see her baby.
B) The patient has not started to prepare the nursery for the new baby.
C) The patient expresses concern about how to know if labor has started.
D) The patient and her spouse are concerned about getting to the birth center in time.
E) The patient and her spouse have not discussed how they will share household tasks.
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the patient health behaviors in the first trimester would the nurse identify as a risk factor in pregnancy?
A) Sexual intercourse two or three times weekly
B) Moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily
C) Working 40 hours a week as a secretary in a travel agency
D) Relaxing in a hot tub for 30 minutes a day, several days a week
Q2) Which complaint made by a patient at 35 weeks of gestation requires additional assessment?
A) Abdominal pain
B) Ankle edema in the afternoon
C) Backache with prolonged standing
D) Shortness of breath when climbing stairs
Q3) Which advice to the patient is one of the most effective methods for preventing venous stasis?
A) Sit with the legs crossed.
B) Rest often with the feet elevated.
C) Sleep with the foot of the bed elevated.
D) Wear elastic stockings in the afternoon.
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Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy?
A) Prevents excessive adipose tissue deposits
B) Determines cultural influences on the woman's diet
C) Assesses the need to limit caloric intake in obese women
D) Identifies potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy
Q2) A patient postdelivery is concerned about getting back to her prepregnancy weight as soon as possible. She had only gained 15 lb during her pregnancy. Which assessment factor would be of concern at her 6-week postpartum checkup?
A) Patient has lost 30 lb during the 6-week period prior to her scheduled checkup.
B) Patient states that she is eating healthy and limiting intake of processed foods.
C) Patient relates increased consumption of fruits and vegetables in her diet postbirth.
D) Patient has resumed her usual exercise pattern of walking around the neighborhood for 10 minutes each night.
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
A) NST positive, nonreassuring
B) NST negative, reassuring
C) NST reactive, reassuring
D) NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
Q2) Which factors should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
A) Rh-negative mother
B) Gestation less than 15 weeks
C) Maternal age younger than 35 years
D) Positive for group B Streptococcus
Q3) Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most important to expectant parents?
A) Safety of the fetus
B) Duration of the test
C) Cost of the procedure
D) Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if A) the pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
B) the fetus weighs less than 1000 G
C) the products of conception are passed intact.
D) there is no evidence of intrauterine infection.
Q2) Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the A) fetus is Rh-negative.
B) fetus is Rh-positive.
C) father is Rh-positive.
D) father and fetus are both Rh-negative.
Q3) A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
A) Increase the patient's IV fluids.
B) Administer calcium gluconate.
C) Vigorously stimulate the patient.
D) Instruct the patient to take deep breaths.
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12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2159
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of healthy grieving?
A) The mother exhibits an absence of crying or expression of feelings.
B) The parents do not mention the baby in conversation with family members.
C) The mother asks that the baby be taken away from the delivery area quickly.
D) While holding the baby, the mother says to her husband, "He has your eyes and nose."
Q2) Which is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a patient who smokes cigarettes while pregnant?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction
B) Genetic changes and anomalies
C) Extensive central nervous system damage
D) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
Q3) Many teens wait until the second or even third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Continuing to deny the pregnancy
B) Uncertainty about where to go for care
C) Lack of realization that they are pregnant
D) A desire to gain control over their situation
E) Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) The primiparous patient at 39 weeks' gestation states to the nurse, "I can breathe easier now." What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Your labor will start any day now since the baby has dropped."
B) "That process is called lightening. Do you have to urinate more frequently?"
C) "Contact your health care provider when your contractions are every 5 minutes for 1 hour."
D) "You will likely not feel you baby's movements as much now, so do not be concerned."
Q2) After birth of the placenta the patient states, "All of a sudden I feel very cold." What is the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
A) Place a warm blanket over the patient.
B) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen.
C) Tell the patient that chills are expected after birth.
D) "What do you mean by your words 'very cold'?"
Q3) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent during labor?
A) A full bladder
B) Decreased peristalsis
C) Rupture of membranes
D) Reduction in internal uterine size
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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) A major advantage of nonpharmacologic pain management is
A) a more rapid labor is likely.
B) more complete pain relief is possible.
C) the woman remains fully alert at all times.
D) there are no side effects or risks to the fetus.
Q2) A patient in labor is approaching the transition stage and already has an epidural in place. An additional dose of medication has been prescribed and administered to the patient. Which priority intervention should be performed in order to evaluate the clinical response to treatment?
A) Obtain a pain scale response from the patient based on a 0 to 10 scale.
B) Document maternal blood pressure and fetal heart rates following medication administration and observe for any variations.
C) Document intake and output on the electronic health record (EHR).
D) Increase the flow rate of prescribed parenteral fluid to maintain hydration.
Q3) The nurse is administering fentanyl (Sublimaze) to a patient in labor. The health care provider's prescription reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 100 mcg IV stat. The medication vial reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 50 mcg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ mL
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is A) Inside the uterus.
B) On the fetal scalp.
C) Over the uterine fundus.
D) Over the mother's lower abdomen.
Q2) In which situation would a baseline fetal heart rate of 160 to 170 bpm be considered a normal finding?
A) The fetus is at 30 weeks of gestation.
B) The mother has a history of fast labors.
C) The mother has been given an epidural block.
D) The mother has mild preeclampsia but is not in labor.
Q3) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
Q4) A nurse documents that the fetal heart rate variability is marked. This indicates that the range is greater than how many beats per minute? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ bpm
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2163
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining the technique of internal version to a nursing orientee. Which statement best describes the technique of internal version?
A) Manipulation of the fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor begins
B) Manipulation of the fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before cesarean birth
C) Manipulation of the second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins
D) Manipulation of the second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during vaginal birth
Q2) The nurse assesses the amniotic fluid. Which characteristic presents the lowest risk of fetal complications?
A) Bloody
B) Clear with bits of vernix caseosa
C) Green and thick
D) Yellow and cloudy with foul odor
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is 32 weeks pregnant telephones the nurse at her obstetrician's office and complains of constant backache. She asks what pain reliever is safe for her to take. The best nursing response is
A) "You should come into the office and let the doctor check you."
B) "Acetaminophen is acceptable during pregnancy. You should not take aspirin, however."
C) "Back pain is common at this time during pregnancy because you tend to stand with a sway back."
D) "Avoid medication because you are pregnant. Try soaking in a warm bath or using a heating pad on low before taking any medication."
Q2) Which patient is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2165
Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum nurse has completed discharge teaching for a patient being discharged after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?
A) "I may not have a bowel movement until the 2nd postpartum day."
B) "If I breastfeed and supplement with formula, I won't need any birth control."
C) "I know my normal pattern of bowel elimination won't return until about 8 to 10 days."
D) "If I am not breastfeeding, I should use birth control when I resume sexual relations with my husband."
Q2) Which patient is more likely to have less stress adjusting to her role as a mother?
A) A 26-year-old woman who is returning to work in 10 weeks
B) A 35-year-old anxious mother who has had no contact with babies or children
C) A 16-year-old teenager who lives with her parents and has a strained relationship with her mother
D) A 25-year-old woman who knew at 16 weeks of gestation that she was pregnant with twins, who were delivered by cesarean birth
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2166
Sample Questions
Q1) A white blood cell (WBC) count of 35,000 cells/mm³ on the morning of the first postpartum day indicates
A) possible infection.
B) normal WBC limit.
C) serious infection.
D) suspicion of a sexually transmitted disease.
Q2) Which measure may prevent mastitis in a breastfeeding patient?
A) Wearing a tight-fitting bra.
B) Applying ice packs prior to feeding.
C) Initiating early and frequent feedings.
D) Nursing the infant for 5 minutes on each breast.
Q3) A multiparous patient is admitted to the postpartum unit after a rapid labor and birth of a 4000-g infant. Her fundus is boggy, lochia is heavy, and vital signs are unchanged. The nurse has the patient void and massages her fundus; however, the fundus remains difficult to find and the rubra lochia remains heavy. Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Recheck vital signs.
B) Insert a Foley catheter.
C) Notify the health care provider.
D) Continue to massage the fundus.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During fetal circulation the pressure is greatest in the A) left atrium.
B) right atrium.
C) hepatic system.
D) pulmonary veins.
Q2) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
Q3) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?
A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma
B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth
C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature
D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q2) The hips of a newborn are examined for developmental dysplasia. Which clinical finding indicates an incomplete development of the acetabulum?
A) Negative Barlow test
B) Equal knee heights
C) Negative Ortolani sign
D) Thigh and gluteal creases are asymmetric.
Q3) An infant at term was born at 0105 hours. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the newborn. During which time range will the nurse plan on performing the assessment to determine a Ballard score?
A) 0115 to 0130
B) 0200 to 0600
C) 1400 to 1800
D) 2000 to 2300
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q2) Which statement is true regarding growth and development during the first 6 months?
A) The infant will grow 1 cm in length per month.
B) The infant will gain about 2 lb per month.
C) The infant will regain weight lost after birth within 1 week.
D) The infant will have a 1-inch increase in head circumference per month.
Q3) Which statement made by a new mother should be a cause of concern to the nurse?
A) "I will start my baby on solid foods at 5 months."
B) "I usually keep the temperature in my house at 22.2°C (72°F)."
C) "I plan to position my infant on his back when sleeping."
D) "I don't intend to spoil my baby by picking him up every time he cries."
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which infant should the nurse anticipate the use of soy formula? (Select all that apply.)
A) Preterm infant
B) Infant with galactosemia
C) Infant with phenylketonuria
D) Infant with lactase deficiency
E) Infant with a malabsorption disorder
Q2) Which technique should the nurse recommend to the postpartum patient in order to prevent nipple trauma?
A) Assess the nipples before each feeding.
B) Limit the feeding time to less than 5 minutes.
C) Wash the nipples daily with mild soap and water.
D) Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth.
Q3) Which hormone is essential for milk production?
A) Estrogen
B) Prolactin
C) Progesterone
D) Lactogen
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24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most useful factor in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
Q2) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
Q3) What will the nurse note when assessing an infant with asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction?
A) All body parts appear proportionate.
B) The extremities are disproportionate to the trunk.
C) The head seems large compared with the rest of the body.
D) One side of the body appears slightly smaller than the other.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. If breastfeeding must be supplemented, formula should be used instead of water. The purpose of this plan is to A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q2) The nurse notes that the infant has been feeding poorly over the last 24 hours. The nurse should immediately assess for other signs of A) hyperglycemia.
B) neonatal infection.
C) hemolytic anemia.
D) increased bilirubin levels.
Q3) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which contraceptive method provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases?
A) Oral contraceptives
B) Tubal ligation
C) Male or female condoms
D) Intrauterine device (IUD)
Q2) Which contraceptive method should be contraindicated in a patient with a history of toxic shock syndrome?
A) Condom
B) Spermicide
C) Cervical cap
D) Oral contraceptives
Q3) The patient who has had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted should be instructed to
A) use a vinegar douche weekly for 4 weeks.
B) have the IUD replaced every 2 to 4 years.
C) check the placement of the string once a week for 4 weeks.
D) use another method of contraception for 2 weeks after insertion.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q2) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q2) Which patient is most likely to develop osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old patient on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old patient with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old patient who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old patient who takes supplemental calcium
Q3) Which sexually transmitted disease can be treated and eradicated?
A) Herpes
B) AIDS
C) Chlamydia
D) Venereal warts
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