Obstetric Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing focuses on the specialized care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the care of newborns. This course covers key concepts such as prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, postnatal care, and the identification and management of obstetric complications. Students will learn to apply evidence-based practices to support maternal and fetal health, promote safe birthing experiences, and provide education and emotional support to families. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary teamwork, patient advocacy, and culturally competent care within a diverse population.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal and Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Marcia L London
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57 Chapters
1275 Verified Questions
1275 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternal, Newborn, and Child Health Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female client is considering ovulation-inducing medications to achieve pregnancy. What should the nurse explain as potential adverse effects of this type of assisted reproductive technology (ART)? Select all that apply.
A) Miscarriage
B) Preterm birth
C) Neonatal morbidity
D) Multifetal pregnancy
E) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) The nurse is assisting with the design of a study to analyze changes in maternal mortality. What should the nurse keep in mind when planning the design? Select all that apply.
A) The marital status of maternity clients
B) The use of hospitals by maternity clients
C) The prevention of infection with antibiotics
D) The availability of blood products for transfusions
E) The establishment of care centers for high-risk mothers
Answer: B,C,D,E
3
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Chapter 2: Culture and the Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an assessment, the nurse notices that an African American baby has a darker, slightly bluish patch about 5 by 7 cm on the buttocks and lower back. What should the nurse do?
A) Record the presence of a Mongolian spot.
B) Ask the mother about the cause of the bruise.
C) Confer with the physician about the possibility of a bleeding tendency.
D) Call the Department of Social Services (DSS) to report this sign of abuse.
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is preparing a teaching session for staff nurses on cultural influences of childbearing practices. Which topics should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
A) Gender of children
B) Number of children
C) Use of contraception
D) Achievement of developmental milestones
E) Pregnancy as an illness or expected condition
Answer: A,B,C,E
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Chapter 3: Genetic and Genomic Influences in Maternal, Newborn, and Child Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) After genetic testing, a patient is suspected of having mitochondrial gene alteration. When reviewing the test result with the patient, which body systems are noted as being affected by this alteration? Select all that apply.
A) Brain
B) Renal
C) Cardiac
D) Genitourinary
E) Musculoskeletal
Answer: A,C,E
Q2) The nurse learns that a patient from a different country and culture was married to her first cousin before moving to the United States. The couple is expecting their first child in 4 months. What should the nurse consider when counseling this patient?
A) Birth control
B) Carrier testing
C) Pregnancy termination
D) Legal issues in the United States
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is presenting a community education session on female hormones. Which participant statement indicates the need for further information?
A) "Estrogen is what causes females to look female."
B) "Prostaglandin is responsible for achieving conception."
C) "Progesterone is present at the end of the menstrual cycle."
D) "The presence of some hormones causes others to be secreted."
Q2) A woman is experiencing mittelschmerz and increased vaginal discharge. Her temperature has increased by 0.6°C (1.0°F) for the past 36 hours. What should these findings indicate to the nurse?
A) Ovulation has occurred.
B) Ovulation will occur soon.
C) Menstruation is about to begin.
D) She is pregnant and will not menstruate.
Q3) The nurse is preparing a handout on the ovarian cycle for a group of middle school girls. Which information should the nurse include?
A) There are two phases of the ovarian cycle: luteal and follicular.
B) The hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulates ovulation.
C) The ovum travels from the ovary to the tube during the luteal phase.
D) Irregular menstrual cycles have varying lengths of the follicular phase.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Promotion for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a wellness visit a young adult client asks for information regarding weight management and exercise prior to pregnancy. What should the nurse explain to this client? Select all that apply.
A) Reduce the intake of complex carbohydrates.
B) Achieve normal weight for height before conceiving.
C) Begin an exercise program a month before conceiving.
D) Select an exercise program to be followed throughout the pregnancy.
E) Reduce weight to below normal for height to compensate for pregnancy weight gain.
Q2) A client comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps. She has never been pregnant, has been diagnosed with ovarian cysts, and has had an intrauterine device (IUD) for 2 years. What is the most likely reason for this client's complaint?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Hypermenorrhea
C) Primary dysmenorrhea
D) Secondary dysmenorrhea
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Chapter 6: Common Gynecologic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which .client in the gynecology clinic should the nurse assess first?
A) 31-year-old, reports increasing dyspareunia
B) 15-year-old, no menses for past 4 months
C) 22-year-old, using tampons, T = 102°F, P = 122, BP = 70/55
D) 18-year-old seeking information on contraception methods
Q2) The nurse is teaching a class to women who were recently diagnosed with benign breast disease (BBD), commonly known as fibrocystic breast disease. One of the participants reports increased swelling, pain, and pressure in her breasts just before menstruation. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "It's best to make an appointment with an oncologist."
B) "The pain may be caused by thinning of the normal breast tissue."
C) "Consider asking your healthcare provider about adding a mild diuretic to your regimen."
D) "Breast swelling and pressure are expected symptoms, but pain is abnormal and should be evaluated by your physician."
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Chapter 7: Conception and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the structures of the developing fetus with a group of pregnant clients. What should the nurse emphasize about the function of the placenta? Select all that apply.
A) It produces hormones.
B) It produces glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids.
C) It maintains fetal respiration, nutrition, and excretion.
D) It provides a circulatory pathway from the chorionic villi to the embryo.
E) It contains a specialized mucoid connective tissue known as Wharton jelly.
Q2) At her first prenatal visit, the patient states, "I'm 5 weeks' pregnant now and I would like to hear my baby's heartbeat today." How should the nurse respond?
A) Anticipate that the patient will be scheduled for Doppler ultrasound.
B) Prepare to assist with auscultation of the fetal heartbeat using a fetoscope.
C) Explain to the patient that the fetal heartbeat is not yet detectable at 5 weeks' gestation.
D) Explain to the patient that the fetal heart does not begin to beat until approximately 7 weeks' gestation.
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Chapter 8: Physical and Psychologic Changes of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old client who is at 10 weeks' gestation confides that the pregnancy was unplanned and is unsure about continuing it or sharing news about it with her partner. How should the nurse respond to this client?
A) "You should go to a pregnancy support group to be a good mother."
B) "It's common to feel ambiguous about pregnancy in the first trimester."
C) "These thoughts are because your mother died when you were 4 years old."
D) "It's really unusual for a pregnant woman to feel this way early in the pregnancy."
Q2) During an interview the nurse asks the partner of a woman in the second trimester of pregnancy what changes they have noticed during the pregnancy. Which answer would indicate a typical response to pregnancy?
A) "She daydreams about what kind of parent she is going to be."
B) "I have not noticed anything. I just found out she is pregnant."
C) "She has been having dreams at night about misplacing the baby."
D) "She has been more tense and anxious than usual, and she is not sleeping well."
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Chapter 9: Antepartum Nursing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is working with a prenatal client. Which statement indicates that additional teaching about prenatal screening tests is necessary?
A) "My blood will be checked for hemoglobin level."
B) "Because I am married, I won't have the STI screening."
C) "My vagina will be cultured at 36 weeks for group B strep."
D) "I will have Rh testing, even though this is my first pregnancy."
Q2) Which phone call should the prenatal clinic nurse return first?
A) Primipara at 32 weeks, reports headache and blurred vision
B) Primipara at 16 weeks, reports increased urinary frequency
C) Multipara at 18 weeks, reports no fetal movement this pregnancy
D) Multipara at 40 weeks, reports sudden gush of fluid and contractions
Q3) The pregnant client's prenatal record indicates that she is a gravida 4 para
2022. How should the nurse interpret these data about the client?
A) Is pro-abortion
B) Has four living children
C) Delivered two term infants
D) Delivered two infants preterm
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Chapter 10: The Expectant Family: Needs and Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of prenatal education provided to the spouse of a pregnant client. Which observations indicate that this education was effective? Select all that apply.
A) Client is relaxed.
B) Client and spouse are arguing.
C) Spouse is looking forward to the birth.
D) Spouse expresses fear of being a father.
E) Client is following prenatal recommendations.
Q2) The nurse is preparing teaching for a pregnant client with a history of preterm labor. What information should the nurse specifically provide regarding sexual activity? Select all that apply.
A) Avoid intercourse.
B) Avoid nipple stimulation.
C) Avoid intercourse if vaginal bleeding occurs.
D) Avoid intercourse after the membranes rupture.
E) There are no restrictions to intercourse during pregnancy.
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Chapter 11: Maternal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly pregnant client weighs 75.0 kg and has a body mass index of 28.5. What is the maximum amount of weight in pounds that this client should weigh during the pregnancy?
Q2) A client who became pregnant at a weight of 60 kg and a BMI of 16 has gained 4 kg at the end of the 5th gestational month. How many more pounds of weight should the nurse counsel this client to gain to achieve the least amount of weight that an underweight person should gain while pregnant?
Q3) It has been identified that a pregnant client's diet is low in zinc. Which food should the nurse suggest to increase intake of this mineral?
A) Yogurt
B) Bananas
C) Cabbage
D) Shellfish
Q4) Which statement is best to include when teaching a pregnant adolescent about nutritional needs?
A) "You just need to pay attention to what you eat now."
B) "Folic acid intake is the key to having a healthy baby."
C) "It is important eat iron-rich foods like meat every day."
D) "Calcium and milk aren't needed until the third trimester."
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Chapter 12: Pregnancy in Selected Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning a community adolescent pregnancy prevention program aimed toward parents. Which recommendation should be included in the program in order to be effective?
A) Parents should encourage steady dating.
B) Parents should not allow their son to develop an intense relationship with a girl who is much younger.
C) Rather than embarrassing an adolescent by addressing specific topics related to sex, parents should speak in broad, general terms.
D) Instead of bringing up the topic of sex, parents should allow their children to reach a point where the children initiate the discussion.
Q2) The nurse is working with a group of pregnant teens. Which statement indicates that teaching has been successful?
A) "My baby could come late because I am a teenager."
B) "Because I am young, I have a low risk for preeclampsia."
C) "I am more likely to use birth control after I have this baby."
D) "Pregnant teens are more likely to quit school prior to graduation."
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Chapter 13: Assessment of Fetal Well-Being
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client at 20 weeks' gestation is scheduled for a transabdominal ultrasound. What should the nurse instruct this client about the examination? Select all that apply.
A) "The entire procedure takes between 20 and 30 minutes."
B) "Arrive 30 minutes before the examination so pain medication will be effective."
C) "Transmission gel will be spread over the abdomen during the examination."
D) "Use an over-the-counter enema to empty the colon before the examination."
E) "Drink 1.5 quarts of water 2 hours before the exam and refrain from voiding."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing nursing documentation related to the care of a client who had an amniocentesis. Which nursing note reflects appropriate client care?
A) Prior to discharge, the client demonstrated vaginal spotting.
B) An Rh-positive client received RhoGAM after the amniocentesis.
C) The client was monitored for 30 minutes after completion of the test.
D) The client reported that she takes insulin before each meal and at bedtime.
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Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pregestational Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman at 30 weeks' gestation and a history of sickle cell anemia is experiencing fever, chills, and diarrhea for 3 days. What are the most serious potential complications that this client faces?
A) Severe lethargy
B) Sickle cell crisis
C) Electrolyte imbalance
D) Fetal neural tube defects
Q2) The nurse is concerned that a pregnant client is experiencing depression. Which potential health issues should the nurse include when planning care for this client?
Select all that apply.
A) Alcohol use
B) Preterm birth
C) Poor appetite
D) Poor weight gain
E) Antenatal hemorrhage
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Chapter 15: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Onset
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Q1) The nurse is supervising care in the emergency department. Which situation requires immediate intervention?
A) Bright red bleeding with clots at 32 weeks' gestation; pulse = 110, blood pressure 90/50, respirations = 20)
B) Dark red bleeding at 30 weeks' gestation with normal vital signs; client reports the presence of fetal movement.
C) Spotting of pinkish brown discharge at 6 weeks' gestation and abdominal cramping; ultrasound scheduled in 1 hour.
D) Moderate vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks' gestation; client has an IV of lactated Ringer solution running at 125 mL/hour.
Q2) A postpartum client with blood type A, Rh-negative delivered a newborn with blood type AB, Rh-positive. Which statement indicates that teaching about this blood type inconsistency has been effective?
A) "Because my baby is Rh-positive, I do not need RhoGAM."
B) "Before my next pregnancy, I will need to have a RhoGAM shot."
C) "If my baby had the same blood type I do, it might cause complications."
D) "I need to get RhoGAM so I do not have problems with my next pregnancy."
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Chapter 16: Processes and Stages of Labor and Birth
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Q1) The primiparous client at 40 weeks' gestation reports to the nurse that she has had increased pelvic pressure and increased urinary frequency. Which response by the nurse is best?
A) "Come in for an appointment today and we will check everything out."
B) "Unless you have pain with urination, we do not need to worry about it."
C) "This might indicate that the baby is no longer in a head down position."
D) "These symptoms usually mean the baby's head has descended further."
Q2) A client in the beginning stages of labor asks the nurse if the labor process will hurt the baby. What should the nurse explain to the client about the fetus's response to labor?
Select all that apply.
A) The baby's heart rate will change.
B) The baby feels no pain or sensations.
C) The baby is sensitive to light and sounds.
D) The baby's oxygen level drops about 10%.
E) The blood pressure protects the baby during labor.
Q3) Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse?
A) Primipara in active labor with urine output of 100 mL/hour
B) Primipara that delivered 1 hour ago with white blood cells (WBCs) of 50,000
C) Multipara at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg
D) Multipara at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions
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Chapter 17: Intrapartum Nursing Assessment
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Q1) The nurse is explaining Leopold maneuvers to a client who is in the early stage of labor. What should the nurse explain as being the purpose of the second maneuver?
A) Locate the fetal back
B) Identify the descent of the presenting part into the pelvis
C) Determine if the pelvic inlet contains the head or buttocks
D) Determine if the fetal head or buttocks occupies the uterine fundus
Q2) A client's fetal heart rate has a sinusoidal pattern. What should the nurse consider as being the reason for this pattern? Select all that apply.
A) Fetal anemia
B) Chronic fetal bleed
C) Severe fetal hypoxia
D) Maternal hypotension
E) Umbilical cord compression
Q3) A client's amniotic fluid is meconium stained. What should the nurse do immediately?
A) Change the client's position in bed.
B) Administer oxygen at 2 L per minute.
C) Notify the healthcare provider that birth is imminent.
D) Begin continuous fetal heart rate monitoring.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Family in Childbirth: Needs and Care
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Q1) What should be the nurse's priority when caring for an adolescent in labor?
A) Support persons
B) Developmental level
C) Cultural background
D) Plans for keeping the infant
Q2) The client in labor has moderately strong contractions lasting 60 seconds every 3 minutes. The fetal head is presenting at a -2 station. The cervix is 6 cm and 100% effaced. The membranes spontaneously ruptured prior to admission, and clear fluid is leaking. Fetal heart tones are in the 140s with accelerations to
150) Which nursing action has the highest priority?
A) Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
B) Apply an internal fetal scalp electrode.
C) Keep the patient on bed rest at this time.
D) Encourage the husband to remain in the room.
Q3) Upon delivery of the newborn, which action most promotes parental attachment?
A) Placing the newborn under the radiant warmer
B) Placing the newborn on the maternal abdomen
C) Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment
D) Allowing the mother a chance to rest immediately after delivery
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pharmacologic Pain Management
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Q1) A client at 39 weeks' gestation is having a cesarean birth with general anesthesia. Which potential challenge is most relevant to the anesthesia care of this client?
A) Broad ligament hematoma
B) Difficulty with maternal intubation
C) Hypotension due to the intense blockade of sympathetic fibers
D) Fetal depression that is inversely proportional to maternal anesthetic depth and duration
Q2) The blood pressure of a client receiving continuous epidural anesthesia for labor has changed from 132/78 mmHg to 78/42 mmHg. What action should the nurse perform first?
A) Administer oxygen.
B) Administer ephedrine 5 to 10 mg intravenously.
C) Verify the client is positioned to promote left uterine displacement.
D) Increase the flow rate of infusion of intravenous crystalloid solution.
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Chapter 20: Childbirth at Risk: Prelabor and Intrapartum
Complications
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Q1) A client pregnant with twins asks if the pregnancy will be uncomplicated. How should the nurse respond to this client?
A) "The perinatal mortality rate for monoamniotic siblings is 50%."
B) "Twins are less likely to have complications than are singleton births."
C) "Spontaneously conceived twins are less likely to develop complications."
D) "Primiparous women pregnant with twins are less likely to develop complications."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client at 30 weeks' gestation who is experiencing preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). Which statement indicates that the client needs additional teaching?
A) "If I have bleeding in the third trimester of my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes again."
B) "If I want to become pregnant again, I will have to plan on being on bed rest for the whole pregnancy."
C) "If I develop a urinary tract infection in my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes early again."
D) "If I were having a singleton pregnancy instead of twins, my membranes would probably not have ruptured."
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Childbirth at Risk: Labor-Related Complications
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Q1) A primiparous client is at 42 weeks' gestation. What order should the nurse question?
A) Begin non-stress test now.
B) Return to the clinic in 1 week.
C) Obtain biophysical profile today.
D) Schedule labor induction for tomorrow.
Q2) A client with a suspected small pelvis is dilated at 6 cm. The fetus has an estimated weight of 4200 g (9 lb, 4 oz). What is the most important action for the client at this time?
A) Encourage oral fluids and carbohydrate intake.
B) Assess the cervix for change every 8 hours.
C) Inform the couple that labor might be prolonged.
D) Assist the client to squat during the second stage.
Q3) The multiparous client at 33 weeks has experienced an intrauterine fetal demise. What finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Temperature 99°F
B) Fibrinogen level 50 mg/dL
C) Platelet count 210,000/cmm
D) Family refusing fetal autopsy
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Chapter 22: Birth-Related Procedures
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Q1) The clinical nurse coordinator is reviewing the care of clients who undergo artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) by way of amniotomy with a group of nursing students. Which student statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
A) "Amniotomy is contraindicated for use in labor augmentation."
B) "For women who undergo artificial rupture of membranes, vaginal examinations should be limited."
C) "Women who undergo artificial rupture of membranes should be advised that they will experience a 'dry birth.'"
D) "In most cases, it is appropriate to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) right after the artificial rupture of membranes is performed."
Q2) The nurse manager observes care being provided by a graduate nurse who is caring for a client undergoing a forceps delivery. Which action requires intervention?
A) Bladder is emptied using a straight catheter.
115)
B) The client is instructed to push between contractions.
C) Fetal heart tones are consistently between 110 and D) Regional anesthesia is administered via pudendal block.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Physiologic Responses of the Newborn to Birth
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medical records of several newborns. Which infant requires immediate intervention?
A) 24-hour-old term male with total bilirubin level of 2
B) 3-day-old term bottle-fed female with bilirubin of 11
C) 2-week-old postterm breastfed male with bilirubin of 10
D) 12-hour-old preterm female exhibiting icterus and lethargy
Q2) The newborn at 24 hours of age has a red blood cell (RBC) count of
A)4 million per milliliter. Which entry should the nurse expect to find in the newborn's chart to explain this laboratory value?
B) Cord clamping delayed until pulsation ceased.
C) Infant is breastfed 15 to 20 minutes every 3 hours.
D) CBC drawn from the anterior surface of the left hand.
E) Placental abruption noted to be 80% at time of delivery.
Q3) A postpartum client calls the nursery to report that her 3-day-old newborn has passed a bright green stool. How should the nurse respond to the client?
A) "Your newborn has diarrhea."
B) "This is a normal occurrence."
C) "There may be a possible food allergy."
D) "Take your newborn to the pediatrician."
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Nursing Assessment of the Newborn
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Q1) A new mother is concerned because the anterior fontanelle swells when the newborn cries. What normal findings should the nurse include when teaching the new mother about this concern? Select all that apply.
A) The fontanelles might bulge.
B) The fontanelles might be depressed.
C) The fontanelles can swell with crying.
D) The fontanelles can pulsate with the heartbeat.
E) The fontanelles can swell when stool is passed.
Q2) The nursing instructor is demonstrating a newborn assessment using the Ballard gestational assessment tool. Which assessment should be performed after the first hour of birth?
A) Scarf sign
B) Arm recoil
C) Popliteal angle
D) Square window sign
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Chapter 25: The Normal Newborn: Needs, Care, and Feeding
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Q1) Which statement by a breastfeeding class participant indicates that teaching was effective? Select all that apply.
A) "Breastfeeding is worthwhile, even if it costs more overall."
B) "Breastfed infants get more skin-to-skin contact and sleep better."
C) "Breastfed infants have fewer digestive and respiratory illnesses."
D) "Breastfeeding raises the level of a hormone that makes me feel good."
E) "Breastfeeding is complex and difficult, and I probably will not succeed."
Q2) The elderly grandmother of a newborn tells the client that rubbing alcohol should be applied to the cord stump to make it dry and fall off faster. What should the nurse instruct the client about cord care? Select all that apply.
A) Keep the umbilical cord stump clean.
B) Allow the umbilical cord stump to air dry.
C) Fold the diaper down under the cord stump.
D) Notify the healthcare provider if the cord stump appears dark in color.
E) Apply topical antibiotic ointment to the cord stump after each diaper change.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: The Newborn at Risk: Conditions Present at Birth
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing clients scheduled for prenatal care. Which client should the nurse identify as being most likely to have a newborn at risk for mortality or morbidity?
A) 37-year-old G8 P2323, works in a chemical factory
B) 16-year-old primipara, began prenatal care at 30 weeks
C) 28-year-old G2 P1001, history of gestational diabetes
D) 23-year-old primipara, low socioeconomic status, unmarried
Q2) What should be considered as potentially infectious when providing care to a newborn of a client who is HIV positive? Select all that apply.
A) Feces
B) Urine
C) Blood
D) Soiled linens
E) Feeding bottle
Q3) An infant of a diabetic mother (IDM) weighing 11 lb is prescribed to receive an infusion of dextrose 10% and water at the rate of 5 mg/kg/min until blood glucose level remains about 45 mg/dL. How many milligrams of dextrose will the infant receive in 30 minutes? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Page 28
Chapter 27: The Newborn at Risk: Birth-Related Stressors
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70680
Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a 4-day-old infant is concerned that the infant's skin tone is yellow and asks if the baby should be hospitalized. What should the nurse consider as being the cause of this infant's skin color change?
A) Pathologic jaundice
B) Physiologic jaundice
C) Acute bilirubin encephalopathy
D) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Q2) Place the following nursing interventions related to resuscitation in the correct order according to complexity of the method and seriousness of the infant's condition.
A) Perform chest compressions.
B) Administer epinephrine.
C) Rub the infant's back with a blanket.
D) Administer 21% oxygen in a positive-pressure ventilator.
E) Administer 100% oxygen in a positive-pressure ventilator.
Q3) A newborn weighing 8 lb, 4 oz is prescribed intravenous vancomycin 30 mg/kg/day in divided doses every 8 hours. How many milligrams of the medication should the nurse prepare to administer to this infant for every dose? (Calculate to the nearest tenth decimal point.)
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29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Adaptation and Nursing Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the first postpartum day, the nurse teaches a client about breastfeeding. Two hours later, the mother seems to remember very little of the teaching. What should the nurse identify as the reason for the client's memory lapse?
A) Epidural anesthesia
B) The taking-in phase
C) The taking-hold phase
D) Postpartum hemorrhage
Q2) The nurse is assessing the episiotomy of a client who is 2 days postpartum. In which order should the nurse complete this assessment?
A. Edema
B. Redness
C. Ecchymosis
D. Approximation
E. Discharge/drainage
A) B, A, C, E, D
B) A, B, D, E, C
C) B, A, D, E, C
D) D, E, C, B, A
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Chapter 29: The Postpartum Family: Early Care Needs and Home Care
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70682
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the obese postpartum client at a greater risk for experiencing? Select all that apply.
A) Injury
B) Infection
C) Breast engorgement
D) Deep vein thrombosis
E) Respiratory complications
Q2) The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a postpartum client who has an episiotomy. Which client actions indicate correct understanding of the information presented? Select all that apply.
A) Using topical anesthetics regularly
B) Remaining in the sitz bath for 20 minutes
C) Using the peri-bottle to cleanse the site after urination
D) Stating that she will loosen her buttocks prior to sitting down
E) Stating that she will continue to use an ice pack for pain after discharge
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Chapter 30: The Postpartum Family at Risk
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method of initial assessment would best indicate whether a postpartum client is experiencing a urinary complication?
A) Urine pH
B) Calculation of urine output
C) Urine specific gravity
D) Calculation of intake
Q2) The postpartum client who delivered a newborn 2 days ago develops endometritis. Which entry in the medical record would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the client's history?
A) "Cesarean birth performed secondary to arrest of dilation."
B) "Rupture of membranes occurred 2 hours prior to delivery."
C) "External fetal monitoring used throughout labor."
D) "History of pregnancy-induced hypertension."
Q3) The postpartum client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis in the right leg. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) Acute pain
B) Redness
C) Chest pressure
D) Edema
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Chapter 31: Growth and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic administrator has suggested that the nurse teach all children newly diagnosed with diabetes in a single class to save nursing time. The children recently diagnosed range in age from 6 to 15) Which is the rationale for the nursing staff to continue with more than one group session?
A) Freud's theory of psychosexual development, which states that the 6-year-old child's sexual energy is at rest while the adolescent has developed mature sexuality.
B) Erikson's psychosocial theory, which discusses how children learn to relate to others.
C) Piaget's cognitive development theory, which says the 6-year-old child learns by concrete examples, while the 15-year-old adolescent can think abstractly.
D) Kohlberg's theory, which says the young children are conventional in their thinking and will want to learn to please others, while older children can internalize values and will learn for their own principles.
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Chapter 32: Infant, Child, and Adolescent Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse collects the weight and height measurements of a child, and calculates the child's body mass index (BMI) to be in the 10th percentile. Previous assessments indicate that the child's BMI was also in the 10th percentile. Which should the nurse include in the discussion of this child's BMI with the parents?
A) Undernutrition
B) Inconsistent growth
C) Consistent growth
D) Overnutrition
Q2) Which instruction from the nurse is appropriate when conducting teaching to new parents regarding infant care and feeding?
A) Delay supplemental foods until the infant is 4 to 6 months old.
B) Begin diluted fruit juice at 2 months of age, but wait 3 to 5 days before trying a new food.
C) Add rice cereal to the nighttime feeding if the infant is having difficulty sleeping after 2 months of age.
D) Delay supplemental foods until the infant reaches 15 pounds or greater.
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Chapter 33: Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which question from the nurse during a health history and physical assessment for the school-age child would best determine cognitive development?
A) "What grade are you in?"
B) "What is your least favorite class?"
C) "What books have you read lately?"
D) "What classes are you taking, and what are your grades in them?"
Q2) The nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newborn client. Which physical findings suggest the newborn is preterm? Select all that apply.
A) The ear pinna quickly returns to original position after being bent manually.
B) The infant's resting position is tightly flexed.
C) Labia are widely separated with clitoris prominent.
D) Breast area is barely perceptible with flat areola, no bud.
E) Sole creases do not extend the length of the foot.
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Chapter 34: Health Promotion and Maintenance: General
Concepts, the Newborn, and the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of making general observations during the assessment process for an infant during a scheduled health maintenance visit? Select all that apply.
A) To invite discussion with the parents
B) To validate positive parenting efforts
C) To promote a partnership between healthcare providers and parents
D) To decrease the risk of communicable diseases
E) To meet standards required for The Joint Commission accreditation
Q2) A nurse assesses the height and weight measurements on an infant and documents these measurements at the 75th percentile. The nurse notes that the measurements 2 months ago were at the 25th percentile. Which interpretation of these data by the nurse is accurate?
A) The infant is not gaining enough weight.
B) The infant has gained a significant amount of weight.
C) These measurements most likely are inaccurate.
D) The previous measurements were most likely inaccurate.
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36
Chapter 35: Health Promotion and Maintenance: the
Toddler and the Preschooler
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching the parents of a toddler-age child about injury prevention. Which statement by the parent indicates the need for further education?
A) "I will turn the handles of the pots outward while I am cooking dinner."
B) "We will make sure that our child always wears a life vest when we are out in the boat."
C) "I will keep all our medications out of reach and ensure child-resistant containers."
D) "We will provide safe climbing toys for our child."
Q2) Which action should the nurse include when providing education regarding methods to enhance health promotion during a scheduled health maintenance visit for a 4-year-old child?
A) Recognizing that food jags are common
B) Involving the child in snack selection and preparation
C) Encouraging the use of a highchair with a safety strap
D) Recommending the child consumes high-fat foods
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Chapter 36: Health Promotion and Maintenance: the
School-Age Child and the Adolescent
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which screenings are appropriate for an adolescent client who admits to being sexually active during a scheduled health maintenance visit? Select all that apply.
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Gonorrhea
C) Chlamydia
D) Impetigo
E) Mononucleosis
Q2) The nurse is assessing an adolescent client during a scheduled health maintenance appointment. Which issues should the nurse address when the parents are not present?
A) The adolescent's role in the family
B) Teen job responsibilities
C) Possible domestic violence
D) Activities done as a family
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Chapter 37: Family Assessment and Concepts of Nursing
Care in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-month-old infant with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) is being prepared for discharge from the neonatal intensive care unit. The infant will continue to receive oxygen via nasal cannula at home. Prior to discharge, the home health nurse assesses the home. Which finding poses the greatest risk to this infant?
A) Paint peeling on the walls
B) A wood stove used for heating
C) A sibling who has an ear infection
D) Small toys strewn on the floor
Q2) A child who has had a tracheostomy for several years is scheduled to begin kindergarten in the fall. The teacher is concerned about this child being in the class, and consults the school nurse. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A) Making arrangements for the child to go to a special school
B) Recommending that the child be home schooled
C) Asking the parents of the child to provide a caregiver during school hour
D)Teaching the teacher how to care for the child in the classroom
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Nursing Considerations for the Child and
Family With a Chronic Condition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes that over time, the parents of a child with a chronic condition have experienced a pattern of periodic grieving alternating with denial. Which will the nurse include in the child's updated plan of care?
A) Pathologic Grieving
B) Compassion Fatigue
C) Chronic Sorrow
D) Dysfunctional Parenting
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a school-age child who requires oxygen, enteral tube feedings, and IV medications during the school day. To which category of chronic illness does this child belong?
A) Dependent on special diet
B) Dependent on medical technology
C) Increased use of healthcare services
D) Functional limitations
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Chapter 39: Nursing Considerations for the Hospitalized Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalized preschool-age child will be left alone for short periods of time for the mother to return home to care for the child's siblings. The mother asks the nurse what is the best way to leave. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? Select all that apply.
A) "Leave after your child falls asleep so he won't know you are going."
B) "Tell your child you are leaving and identify when you will return after dinner."
C) "Leave an article of clothing behind to comfort your child."
D) "Tell the nurse on duty when you are leaving so that the nurse can stay with your child while you are gone."
E) "Plan to leave when your child is having procedures performed as the child will be busy and less aware of the parents' absence."
Q2) A preschool-age child is admitted to the pediatric unit for surgery. The parents request to stay with their child. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) Tell the parents they can stay in the hospital but not on the unit.
B) Read the rules and regulations of rooming in with the child.
C) Let the parents know they are allowed to stay with the child.
D) Explain to the parents why they cannot stay with the child.
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Chapter 40: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which distraction techniques should the nurse to use for a school-age child during a painful procedure? Select all that apply.
A) Blowing bubbles
B) Music therapy
C) Guided imagery
D) Hypnosis
E) Sucrose solution
Q2) A 5-year-old child is hospitalized with a fractured femur. Which tool should the nurse use to assess this child's pain?
A) CRIES Scale
B) Faces Pain Rating Scale
C) SUN Scale
D) PIPP Scale
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child who has been sedated for a painful procedure. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Placing the child on a cardiac monitor
B) Allowing parents to stay with the child
C) Monitoring pulse oximetry
D) Assessing the child's respiratory effort
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Child With a Life-Threatening Condition and
End-Of-Life Care
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school bus carrying children in grades K-12 crashed into a ravine. The critically injured children are transported by ambulance and admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit (PICU). Which is the most effective nursing intervention to calm the frightened children?
A) Explain that the equipment being used is state-of-the-art.
B) Tell the children that the providers are competent.
C) Call the children's parents to come to the unit.
D) Assure the children that the nurses are caring.
Q2) Which topics should the nurse include in a discussion with parents of a terminally ill child regarding parental feelings that may occur upon the child's death? Select all that apply.
A) Loneliness
B) Guilt
C) Anger
D) High energy
E) Depression
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43
Chapter 42: Social and Environmental Influences on the Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a child who is admitted to the hospital due to environmental exposure to a toxic agent. Which questions should the nurse ask the child and the parent during the assessment process?
A) "Do you work around harmful substances that could have been brought to the home environment?"
B) "What year was your home built?"
C) "Does your child have a hobby that includes working with glue?"
D) "Does your home have a smoke detector?"
E) "Does your home have a carbon monoxide detector?"
Q2) The nurse is providing care to homeless adolescents at an outreach clinic. Which concept is important for the nurse to consider when providing care to this population?
A) Teens who are homeless will get a job and somewhere to live.
B) Teens who are homeless will seek help when needed.
C) Teens who are homeless will not be fearful of authority figures.
D) Teens who are homeless are most likely to have unprotected sex.
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Chapter 43: Immunizations and Communicable Diseases
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32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70696
Sample Questions
Q1) Which common mode of infectious disease should the nurse include in a teaching session with parents within the community?
A) Playing with the same toy
B) Coughing without covering the mouth
C) Sitting together eating meals
D) Playing board games
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a child who is diagnosed with Lyme disease. The mother wants to know how to protect her other children from contracting this disease from the infected child. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session regarding the transmission of this disease process?
A) Lyme disease is passed from person to person.
B) Lyme disease is passed from animals to person.
C) Lyme disease is passed from adults to children.
D) Lyme disease is passed from person to insects.
Q3) Which should the nurse use when reconstituting vaccines?
A) The diluents provided
B) Normal saline
C) Any solution available
D) Sterile water
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Chapter 44: The Child With Alterations in Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing an infant brought to the clinic because of diarrhea. The infant is alert but has dry mucous membranes. Which additional assessment data indicates to the nurse that the infant is experiencing an early to moderate stage of dehydration?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Normal fontanels
Q2) A child is admitted to the hospital for hypercalcemia and is placed on diuretic therapy. Which diuretic would the nurse expect to give?
A) Furosemide (Lasix)
B) Hydrochlorothiazide (Aquazide)
C) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
D) Mannitol (Osmitrol)
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Chapter 45: The Child With Alterations in Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which visual screenings should the school nurse conduct when conducting annual assessments for school-age children? Select all that apply.
A) Light reflex assessment
B) Cover-uncover test
C) Acuity testing
D) Visualization of the tympanic membrane
E) Cranial nerve VIII testing
Q2) Which should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client diagnosed with otitis media with effusion? Select all that apply.
A) Administration of antibiotic drops per order
B) Administration of pain relief measures
C) Assessment of hearing acuity over several months
D) Assessment of speech
E) Assessment of development
Q3) Which assessment finding is considered normal for a school-age client?
A) Tonsils are large and seem to fill the throat
B) Child is complaining of sore throat and drooling
C) White patches are observed on the tonsils
D) Throat appears red, and child has a low-grade fever
Page 47
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Chapter 46: The Child With Alterations in Respiratory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which parental statement at the conclusion of a teaching session regarding environmental controls for childhood asthma indicates correct understanding of the information presented?
A) "We're glad the dog can continue to sleep in our child's room."
B) "We'll keep the plants in our child's room dusted."
C) "We'll be sure to use the fireplace often to keep the house warm in the winter."
D) "We will replace the carpet in our child's bedroom with tile."
Q2) The nurse receives a phone call from the parent of a child who is prescribed rifampin (Rimactane) for treatment of tuberculosis because she saw that the child's urine was orange. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Encourage your child to drink cranberry juice."
B) "An orange discoloration of urine is expected while your child is on this medication."
C) "Bring your child to the clinic for a urinalysis."
D) "Bring your child to the clinic for a radiograph of the kidneys."
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Chapter 47: The Child With Alterations in Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about fetal circulation. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow that indicates the pregnant client understands the information presented?
A) Ductus arteriosus
B) Ductus venosus
C) Foramen ovale
Q2) Which is the priority nursing action when providing care to a pediatric client who is diagnosed with hypovolemic shock?
A) Assessing the cause of bleeding
B) Establishing an open airway and administering oxygen
C) Administering analgesics for pain control
D) Providing replacement of volume
Q3) Which clinical manifestation does the nurse anticipate for a pediatric client who is admitted with congestive heart failure (CHF)?
A) Tachycardia
B) Weight loss
C) Hypertension
D) Bradycardia
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Chapter 48: The Child With Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the family of a child who experienced an anaphylactic reaction. Which parental statements indicate accurate understanding of the action that histamine plays during this type of reaction? Select all that apply.
A) "Histamine releases IgE antibodies, which help to stop the reaction."
B) "Histamine causes smooth muscle contraction, which causes the wheezing."
C) "Histamine causes increased capillary permeability, which is what causes difficulty breathing."
D) "Histamine causes vasoconstriction leading to respiratory issues."
E) "Histamine causes the destruction of red blood cells, which is why we administer the EpiPen."
Q2) The nurse is providing care for the family of a child who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which priority nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Anticipatory Grieving
B) Risk for Impaired Parenting
C) Compromised Family Coping
D) Parental Role Conflict
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Chapter 49: The Child With Alterations in Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child diagnosed with hemophilia presents to the emergency department (ED) with multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash. Which injury is the priority when conducting the nursing assessment?
A) Occipital hematoma
B) Radial fracture
C) Dislocated shoulder
D) Abdominal abrasions
Q2) Which risks should the nurse closely assess a pediatric client for during the posttransplant phase of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Thrombosis
C) Pancytopenia
D) Infection
E) Fluid volume overload
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Chapter 50: The Child With Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child, diagnosed with rhabdomyosarcoma, is experiencing nausea and vomiting related to the prescribed chemotherapy in spite of the use of antiemetics. The mother is pushing the child to eat the food. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate to address this situation?
A) "Since your child is receiving IV fluids, it is not important to push oral intake of food."
B) "A food aversion may occur if you continue to force your child to eat."
C) "Emesis that is caused by your child being force-fed can damage the stomach."
D) "A psychologic conflict could occur between you and your child if you continue to push eating."
Q2) Which is the priority nursing intervention for a pediatric client, diagnosed with leukemia, who has a granulocyte count of 250/mm<sup>3</sup> and a platelet count of 150,000/mm<sup>3</sup>?
A) Fluid restriction
B) Mouth care
C) Neutropenic precautions
D) Hand hygiene
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Chapter 51: The Child With Alterations in Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate is born with a bilateral cleft lip that was not detected during the pregnancy. The parents are distressed about the appearance of their infant. Which nursing actions are appropriate to assist the parents to bond with their newborn? Select all that apply.
A) Calling the newborn by the chosen name
B) Keeping the newborn's lower face covered with the blanket
C) Smiling and talking to the newborn in the parents' presence
D) Showing the parents before and after pictures of other children with cleft lips
E) Discussing positive features of the baby
Q2) Which gastrointestinal defects, often diagnosed shortly after birth, should the nurse include in the assessment process of all newborns? Select all that apply.
A) Pyloric stenosis
B) Biliary atresia
C) Hirschsprung disease
D) Umbilical hernia
E) Diaphragmatic hernia
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Chapter 52: The Child With Alterations in Genitourinary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding, after the dialysate is drained during peritoneal dialysis for a child experiencing acute renal failure, would warrant further action by the nurse?
A) The dialysate is clear on return.
B) The volume of drained dialysate is less than the volume infused.
C) The child is restless, wanting to get up and play.
D) The child's vital signs are basically the same as were noted on infusion.
Q2) The nurse is preparing medication instruction for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the nurse about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the nurse include in the response?
A) Suppress rejection
B) Decrease pain
C) Improve circulation
D) Boost immunity
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Chapter 53: The Child With Alterations in Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing information to an adolescent newly diagnosed with diabetes. Which clinical manifestations of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply.
A) Change in mental status
B) Tachycardia
C) Fruity breath odor
D) Rapid, shallow respirations
E) Abdominal pain
Q2) A child weighing
18)2 kg with a history of diabetes insipidus (DI) has been admitted to the hospital. Which healthcare provider prescription should the nurse question?
A) Stat electrolytes
B) Urine specific gravity with each void
C) DDAVP (desmopressin) PO
D) Restrict oral fluids to 500 mL every 24 hours
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Chapter 54: The Child With Alterations in Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?
A) Decreased protein count
B) Clear, straw-colored fluid
C) Positive for red blood cells (RBCs)
D) Decreased glucose level
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a child who was treated with aspirin during a viral infection. Which clinical manifestations should cause the nurse concern?
A) Nausea, vomiting, and confusion
B) Headache, vomiting, and seizures
C) Sore throat, moist respirations, and cough
D) Fever, rash, and photophobia
Q3) Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?
A) The posterior fontanel is open.
B) The infant has good head control when held upright.
C) The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
D) The anterior fontanel is open and soft.
Page 56
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Chapter 55: The Child With Alterations in Mental Health and Cognitive Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70708
Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child who is diagnosed with an intellectual disability? Select all that apply.
A) Providing emotional support to the family
B) Maintaining a safe environment for the client
C) Educating the family that maintenance of activities of daily living (ADL) is impossible to achieve
D) Participating in the individualized education program (IEP) process
E) Recommending permanent institutionalization
Q2) A child diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is admitted to the hospital with dehydration. Which should the nurse include in the plan of care for this child?
A) Discourage the parents from bringing favorite toys from home that might be lost.
B) Take the child on a tour of the pediatric unit.
C) Assign the child to a single-bed hospital room.
D) Take the child to the playroom for arts and crafts.
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Chapter 56: The Child With Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70709
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect when assessing a pediatric client who is diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease? Select all that apply.
A) Limited abduction of the affected hip
B) Asymmetry of thigh fat folds
C) Telescoping of the thigh
D) Muscle weakness
E) Atrophy of the muscles
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a child who is diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Which parental statement regarding the child's care required further teaching from the nurse?
A) "We're glad this will only take about 6 weeks to correct."
B) "We understand abduction of the affected leg is important."
C) "We know to watch for areas on the skin that the brace might rub."
D) "We understand swimming is a good sport for Legg-Calvé-Perthes."
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Chapter 57: The Child With Alterations in Skin Integrity
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70710
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical therapy should the nurse anticipate when planning care for a toddler-age client who is admitted to the hospital unit with cellulitis of the neck?
A) Topical antibiotics
B) Intravenous antibiotics
C) Incision and drainage
D) Oral corticosteroids
Q2) Which is the priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for an infant who is diagnosed with a severe case of oral thrush (Candida albicans)?
A) Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern related to discomfort
B) Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to oral thrush
C) Activity Intolerance related to oral thrush
D) Ineffective Airway Clearance related to mucus
Q3) Which finding noted by the school nurse while conducting pediculosis capitis (head lice) checks would indicate the need for treatment?
A) White, flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region
B) Lesions on the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck
C) Maculopapular lesions behind the ears
D) Silver/white sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area
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