Obstetric Nursing Review Questions - 512 Verified Questions

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Obstetric Nursing Review Questions

Course Introduction

Obstetric Nursing is a specialized course focused on the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. The course covers the physiological, psychological, and social aspects of maternal health, emphasizing prenatal assessment, labor and delivery processes, newborn care, and the identification and management of common complications. Students will learn to provide patient-centered care, promote safe motherhood, educate families, support breastfeeding, and collaborate effectively within healthcare teams to ensure the well-being of both mother and child throughout the childbirth continuum.

Recommended Textbook

Maternity Nursing 8th Edition by Deitra Leonard Lowdermilk

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24 Chapters

512 Verified Questions

512 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1554

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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing: Culturally

Competent, Family and Community Focused

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30715

Sample Questions

Q1) When attempting to communicate with a patient who speaks a different language, the nurse should:

A) Respond promptly and positively to project authority.

B) Never use a family member as an interpreter.

C) Talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the patient.

D) Provide as much privacy as possible.

Answer: D

Q2) When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best action would be to:

A) Ask another nurse.

B) Discuss the procedure with the patient's physician.

C) Look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.

D) Consult the agency procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the procedure.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Assessment and Health Promotion

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30716

Sample Questions

Q1) A fully matured endometrium that resembles the thickness of heavy, soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle.

A) Menstrual

B) Proliferative

C) Secretory

D) Ischemic

Answer: C

Q2) As a powerful central nervous system stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, premature separation of the placenta, and stillbirth?

A) Heroin

B) Alcohol

C) PCP

D) Cocaine

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Common Concerns

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30717

Sample Questions

Q1) When assessing the patient for amenorrhea, the nurse should be aware that this may be caused by all conditions except:

A) Anatomic abnormalities.

B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

C) Lack of exercise.

D) Hysterectomy.

Answer: C

Q2) A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

A) Endometriosis.

B) PMS.

C) Primary dysmenorrhea.

D) Secondary dysmenorrhea.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Contraception, Abortion, and Infertility

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30718

Sample Questions

Q1) A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurse's most appropriate response is:

A) "Your sperm count seems to be okay based on the first semen analysis."

B) "Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count."

C) "Smoking can give you lung cancer, even though it has no effect on sperm."

D) "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm."

Q2) Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

A) Hysterosalpingogram

B) Endometrial biopsy

C) Laparoscopy

D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level

Q3) A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse's most appropriate reply is:

A) "They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant."

B) "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation."

C) "These methods have a few advantages and several health risks."

D) "You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Genetics, Conception, and Fetal Development

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30719

Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to prenatal genetic testing, nurses should be aware that:

A) Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome.

B) Carrier screening tests look for gene mutations of people already showing symptoms of a disease.

C) Predisposition testing predicts with near certainty that symptoms will appear.

D) Presymptomatic testing is used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer.

Q2) A woman who is 8 months pregnant asks the nurse, "Does my baby have any antibodies to fight infection?" The most appropriate response by the nurse is:

A) "Your baby has all the immune globulins (Ig) necessary: IgG, IgM, and IgA."

B) "Your baby won't receive any antibodies until he is born and you breastfeed him."

C) "Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection."

D) "Your baby has IgG and IgM."

Q3) ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins. These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.

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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30720

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that:

A) This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen.

B) This is an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign.

C) The woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner.

D) The woman has been using cocaine intranasally.

Q2) Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is:

A) Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right.

B) Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left.

C) Deep at McBurney point.

D) Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.

Q3) The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called:

A) The operculum.

B) Leucorrhea.

C) The funic souffle.

D) Ballottement.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30721

Sample Questions

Q1) Which symptom is considered a first-trimester warning sign and should be reported immediately by the pregnant woman to her health care provider?

A) Nausea with occasional vomiting

B) Fatigue

C) Urinary frequency

D) Vaginal bleeding

Q2) With regard to the father's acceptance of the pregnancy and preparation for childbirth, the maternity nurse should know that:

A) The father goes through three phases of acceptance of his own.

B) The father's attachment to the fetus cannot be as strong as that of the mother because it does not start until after birth.

C) In the last 2 months of pregnancy, most expectant fathers suddenly get very protective of their established lifestyle and resist making changes to the home.

D) Typically men remain ambivalent about fatherhood right up to the birth of their child.

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9

Chapter 8: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30722

Sample Questions

Q1) Pregnant adolescents are at high risk for _____ because of lower body mass indices (BMIs) and "fad" dieting.

A) Obesity

B) Diabetes

C) Low-birth-weight babies

D) High-birth-weight babies

Q2) Which statement made by a lactating woman would lead the nurse to believe that the woman might have lactose intolerance?

A) "I always have heartburn after I drink milk."

B) "If I drink more than a cup of milk, I usually have abdominal cramps and bloating."

C) "Drinking milk usually makes me break out in hives."

D) "Sometimes I notice that I have bad breath after I drink a cup of milk."

Q3) Which nutrient's recommended dietary allowance (RDA) is higher during lactation than during pregnancy?

A) Energy (kcal)

B) Iron

C) Vitamin A

D) Folic acid

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Chapter 9: Labor and Birth Processes

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30723

Sample Questions

Q1) To adequately care for a laboring woman, the nurse should know which stage of labor varies the most in length?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

Q2) With regard to the turns and other adjustments of the fetus during the birth process, known as the mechanism of labor, nurses should be aware that:

A) The seven critical movements must progress in a more or less orderly sequence.

B) Asynclitism sometimes is achieved by means of the Leopold maneuver.

C) The effects of the forces determining descent are modified by the shape of the woman's pelvis and the size of the fetal head.

D) At birth the baby is said to achieve "restitution" (i.e., a return to the C-shape of the womb).

Q3) The _________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.

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Chapter 10: Management of Discomfort

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30724

Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to a pregnant woman's anxiety and pain experience, nurses should be aware that:

A) Even mild anxiety must be treated.

B) Severe anxiety increases tension, which increases pain, which in turn increases fear and anxiety, and so on.

C) Anxiety may increase the perception of pain, but it does not affect the mechanism of labor.

D) Women who have had a painful labor will have learned from the experience and have less anxiety the second time because of increased familiarity.

Q2) An 18-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 1, is admitted to the labor and birth unit with moderate contractions every 5 minutes that last 40 seconds. The woman states, "My contractions are so strong that I don't know what to do." The nurse should:

A) Assess for fetal well-being.

B) Encourage the woman to lie on her side.

C) Disturb the woman as little as possible.

D) Recognize that pain is personalized for each individual.

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Chapter 11: Fetal Assessment During Labor

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30725

Sample Questions

Q1) In assessing the immediate condition of the newborn after birth, a sample of cord blood may be a useful adjunct to the Apgar score. Cord blood is then tested for pH, carbon dioxide, oxygen, and base deficit or excess. Clinical situations that warrant this additional testing include (choose all that apply):

A) Low 5 minute Apgar score.

B) IUGR.

C) Maternal thyroid disease.

D) Intrapartum fever.

E) Multiple gestation.

F) Abnormal fetal heart rate tracing.

G) None of the above

Q2) During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have:

A) Bradycardia.

B) A normal baseline heart rate.

C) Tachycardia.

D) Hypoxia.

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Chapter 12: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30726

Sample Questions

Q1) When assessing a multiparous woman who has just given birth to an 8-pound boy, the nurse notes that the woman's fundus is firm and has become globular in shape. A gush of dark red blood comes from her vagina. The nurse concludes that:

A) The placenta has separated.

B) A cervical tear occurred during the birth.

C) The woman is beginning to hemorrhage.

D) Clots have formed in the upper uterine segment.

Q2) When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman's risk for _____ has increased.

A) Intrauterine infection

B) Hemorrhage

C) Precipitous labor

D) Supine hypotension

Q3) A means of controlling the birth of the fetal head with a vertex presentation is:

A) The Ritgen maneuver.

B) Fundal pressure.

C) The lithotomy position.

D) The De Lee apparatus.

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Chapter 13: Maternal Physiologic Changes

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30727

Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to the condition and reconditioning of the urinary system after childbirth, nurses should be aware that:

A) Kidney function returns to normal a few days after birth.

B) Diastasis recti abdominis is a common condition that alters the voiding reflex.

C) Fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight loss of over 2 kg during the puerperium.

D) With adequate emptying of the bladder, bladder tone usually is restored 2 to 3 weeks after childbirth.

Q2) Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early postpartum period is:

A) Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection.

B) Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth.

C) Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy.

D) Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.

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Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During the Fourth Trimester

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30728

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman gave birth 48 hours ago to a healthy infant girl. She has decided to bottle-feed. During your assessment you notice that both of her breasts are swollen, warm, and tender on palpation. The woman should be advised that this condition can best be treated by:

A) Running warm water on her breasts during a shower.

B) Applying ice to the breasts for comfort.

C) Expressing small amounts of milk from the breasts to relieve pressure.

D) Wearing a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.

Q2) Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally, nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible. If all else fails, the last thing the nurse might try is:

A) Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman's perineum.

B) Placing oil of peppermint in a bedpan under the woman.

C) Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics.

D) Inserting a sterile catheter.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Transition to Parenthood

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30729

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse hears a primiparous woman talking to her son and telling him that his chin is just like his dad's chin. This woman's statement reflects:

A) Mutuality.

B) Synchrony.

C) Claiming.

D) Reciprocity.

Q2) After giving birth to a healthy infant boy, a primiparous woman, 16, is admitted to the postpartum unit. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for her at this time is risk for impaired parenting related to deficient knowledge of newborn care. In planning for the woman's discharge, what should the nurse be certain to include in the plan of care?

A) Tell the woman how to feed and bathe her infant.

B) Give the woman written information on bathing her infant.

C) Advise the woman that all mothers instinctively know how to care for their infants.

D) Provide time for the woman to bathe her infant after she views an infant bath demonstration.

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Chapter 16: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30730

Sample Questions

Q1) One reason the brain is vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies and trauma in early infancy is the:

A) Incompletely developed neuromuscular system.

B) Primitive reflex system.

C) Presence of various sleep-wake states.

D) Cerebellum growth spurt.

Q2) The parents of a newborn ask the nurse how much the newborn can see. The parents specifically want to know what type of visual stimuli they should provide for their newborn. The nurse responds to the parents by telling them:

A) "Infants can see very little until about 3 months of age."

B) "Infants can track their parent's eyes and distinguish patterns; they prefer complex patterns."

C) "The infant's eyes must be protected. Infants enjoy looking at brightly colored stripes."

D) "It's important to shield the newborn's eyes. Overhead lights help them see better."

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Chapter 17: Assessment and Care of the Newborn and Family

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30731

Sample Questions

Q1) Pain should be assessed regularly in all newborn infants. If the infant is displaying physiologic or behavioral cues indicating pain, measures should be taken to manage the pain. Examples of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques include (choose all that apply):

A) Swaddling.

B) Nonnutritive sucking.

C) Skin-to-skin contact with the mother.

D) Sucrose.

E) Acetaminophen.

Q2) A newborn is jaundiced and receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights. An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy by this method would be to:

A) Apply an oil-based lotion to the newborn's skin to prevent drying and cracking.

B) Limit the newborn's intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

C) Place eye shields over the newborn's closed eyes.

D) Change the newborn's position every 4 hours.

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Chapter 18: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30732

Sample Questions

Q1) In helping the breastfeeding mother position the baby, nurses should keep in mind that:

A) The cradle position usually is preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth.

B) Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position.

C) Whatever the position used, the infant is "belly to belly" with the mother.

D) While supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput.

Q2) According to the recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics on infant nutrition:

A) Infants should be given only human milk for the first 6 months of life.

B) Infants fed on formula should be started on solid food sooner than breastfed infants.

C) If infants are weaned from breast milk before 12 months, they should receive cow's milk, not formula.

D) After 6 months, mothers should shift from breast milk to cow's milk.

Q3) The nurse providing couplet care should understand that nipple confusion results when:

A) Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings.

B) The baby is weaned too abruptly.

C) Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established.

D) Twins are breastfed together.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30733

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be:

A) Negative.

B) Positive.

C) Satisfactory.

D) Unsatisfactory.

Q2) In the United States today:

A) More than 20% of pregnancies meet the definition of high risk to either the mother or the infant.

B) Other than biophysical criteria, the greatest socioeconomic risk factor in high risk pregnancies is the inability to access prenatal care.

C) High risk pregnancy status extends from first confirmation of pregnancy to birth.

D) High risk pregnancy is a less critical medical concern because of the reduction in family size and the decrease in unwanted pregnancies.

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Chapter 20: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30734

Sample Questions

Q1) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ____________________ maintenance treatment (MMT).

Q2) Congenital anomalies can occur with the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), including (choose all that apply):

A) Cleft lip.

B) Congenital heart disease.

C) Neural tube defects.

D) Gastroschisis.

E) Diaphragmatic hernia.

Q3) Maternal phenylketonuria (PKU) is an important health concern during pregnancy because:

A) It is a recognized cause of preterm labor.

B) The fetus may develop neurologic problems.

C) A pregnant woman is more likely to die without dietary control.

D) Women with PKU are usually retarded and should not reproduce.

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Chapter 21: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30735

Sample Questions

Q1) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is

Q2) With regard to miscarriage, nurses should be aware that:

A) It is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins.

B) It occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies.

C) It often can be attributed to careless maternal behavior such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise.

D) If it occurs before the twelfth week of pregnancy, it may present only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.

Q3) The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of:

A) Eclampsia.

B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

C) HELLP syndrome.

D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.

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Chapter 22: Labor and Birth at Risk

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30736

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is most likely to be associated with a breech presentation?

A) Least common malpresentation

B) Descent is rapid

C) Diagnosis by ultrasound only

D) High rate of neuromuscular disorders

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in the active phase of labor. The woman's bag of waters spontaneously ruptures. Suddenly the woman complains of dyspnea and appears restless and cyanotic. In addition, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. The nurse immediately suspects the presence of

Q3) With regard to the process of inducing labor, nurses should be aware that:

A) Ripening the cervix usually results in a decreased success rate for induction.

B) Labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents.

C) Oxytocin is less expensive than prostaglandins and more effective but creates greater health risks.

D) Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

24

Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30737

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse should be aware that a pessary would be most effective in the treatment of what disorder?

A) Cystocele

B) Uterine prolapse

C) Rectocele

D) Stress urinary incontinence

Q2) ____________________ is the most common cause of postpartum infection.

Q3) Abnormal adherence of the placenta occurs for reasons unknown. Attempts to remove the placenta in the usual manner are unsuccessful, and laceration and perforation of the uterine wall may result, putting the woman at risk for severe PPH and infection. Placental adherence may be partial or complete. Which is not a recognized degree of placental attachment?

A) Placenta accreta

B) Placenta previa

C) Placenta increta

D) Placenta percreta

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Chapter 24: The Newborn at Risk

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30738

Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to skeletal injuries sustained by a neonate during labor or birth, nurses should be aware that:

A) A newborn's skull is still forming and fractures fairly easily.

B) Unless a blood vessel is involved, linear skull fractures heal without special treatment.

C) Clavicle fractures often need to be set with an inserted pin for stability.

D) Other than the skull, the most common skeletal injuries are to leg bones.

Q2) An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths/min with marked substernal retractions). The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure. Which arterial oxygen level would indicate hypoxia?

A) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 67

B) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 89

C) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 45

D) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 73

Q3) A major nursing intervention for an infant born with myelomeningocele is to:

A) Protect the sac from injury.

B) Prepare the parents for the child's paralysis from the waist down.

C) Prepare the parents for closure of the sac at around 2 years of age.

D) Assess for cyanosis.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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