Obstetric Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing focuses on the specialized care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the care of newborns. This course covers the physiological and psychological changes that occur during pregnancy, assessment and management of normal and high-risk pregnancies, labor and delivery processes, and postpartum care. Students learn to provide holistic, family-centered care by developing clinical skills in prenatal assessment, fetal monitoring, maternal-fetal health promotion, and complication management. Emphasis is placed on patient education, support, and advocacy, preparing students to function effectively as members of the multidisciplinary obstetric healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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49 Chapters
1708 Verified Questions
1708 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1706 Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33867
Sample Questions
Q1) From the nurse's perspective,what measure should be the focus of the health care system to reduce the rate of infant mortality further?
A) Implementing programs to ensure women's early participation in ongoing prenatal care.
B) Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days.
C) Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
D) Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician.
Answer: A
Q2) An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care,which:
A) seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups.
B) blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment.
C) focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the patient.
D) has been mandated by Congress.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Family, culture, spirituality, and Home Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33868
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on family:
A) rituals and customs.
B) values and beliefs.
C) boundaries and channels.
D) socialization processes.
Answer: B
Q2) The woman's family members are present when the home care maternal-child nurse arrives for a after birth and newborn visit.What should the nurse do?
A) Observe the family members' interactions with the newborn and one another.
B) Ask the woman to meet with her and the baby alone.
C) Do a brief assessment on all family members present.
D) Reschedule the visit for another time so that the mother and infant can be assessed privately.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Assessment and Health Promotion
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33869
Sample Questions
Q1) Unique muscle fibers make the uterine myometrium ideally suited for:
A) menstruation.
B) the birth process.
C) ovulation.
D) fertilization.
Answer: B
Q2) Physiologically,sexual response can be characterized by:
A) coitus, masturbation, and fantasy.
B) myotonia and vasocongestion.
C) erection and orgasm.
D) excitement, plateau, and orgasm.
Answer: B
Q3) A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy,soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle.
A) menstrual
B) proliferative
C) secretory
D) ischemic
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Reproductive System Concerns
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33870
Sample Questions
Q1) Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach.The nurse who provides care for a patient with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
A) acetaminophen.
B) oral contraceptives (OCPs).
C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). D) aspirin.
Q2) To detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),most laboratory tests focus on the: A) virus.
B) HIV antibodies.
C) CD<sub>4</sub> counts.
D) CD<sub>8</sub> counts.
Q3) Black cohosh
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Anti-inflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
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6
Chapter 5: Infertility, contraception, and Abortion
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33871
Sample Questions
Q1) A physician prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid,Serophene)for a woman experiencing infertility.She is very concerned about the risk of multiple births.The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A) "This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins?"
B) "No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid."
C) "Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound so that this will not happen."
D) "Ten percent is a very low risk, so you don't need to worry too much."
Q2) A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem.They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium.The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A) "Tell your friends and family so they can help you."
B) "Talk only to other friends who are infertile because only they can help."
C) "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names."
D) "Start adoption proceedings immediately because it is very difficult to obtain an infant."
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Chapter 6: Genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33872
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to chromosome abnormalities,nurses should be aware that:
A) they occur in approximately 10% of newborns.
B) abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss.
C) Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosome structure.
D) unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.
Q2) In practical terms regarding genetic health care,nurses should be aware that:
A) genetic disorders affect people of all socioeconomic backgrounds, races, and ethnic groups equally.
B) genetic health care is more concerned with populations than individuals.
C) the most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling.
D) taking genetic histories is the province of large universities and medical centers.
Q3) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by:
A) fetal intestines.
B) fetal kidneys.
C) amniotic fluid.
D) the placenta.
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Chapter 7: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?
A) Viability-22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g).
B) Full Term-Pregnancy from the beginning of week 39 of gestation to the end of week 40.
C) Preterm-Pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks.
D) Postdate-Pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks.
Q2) The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy.A woman can expect to experience what change?
A) Her center of gravity will shift backward.
B) She will have increased lordosis.
C) She will have increased abdominal muscle tone.
D) She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.
Q3) During a patient's physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation.The nurse would document this finding as:
A) Hegar's sign.
B) McDonald's sign.
C) Chadwick's sign.
D) Goodell's sign.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33874
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a newly pregnant woman would advise her that ideally prenatal care should begin:
A) before the first missed menstrual period.
B) after the first missed menstrual period.
C) after the second missed menstrual period.
D) after the third missed menstrual period.
Q2) A woman has just moved to the United States from Mexico.She is 3 months pregnant and has arrived for her first prenatal visit.During her assessment interview,you discover that she has not had any immunizations.Which immunizations should she receive at this point in her pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tetanus
B) Diphtheria
C) Chickenpox
D) Rubella
E) Hepatitis B
Q3) A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test.The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP)was September 10,2013.Her expected date of birth (EDB)would be?
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Chapter 9: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33875
Sample Questions
Q1) Which meal would provide the most absorbable iron?
A) Toasted cheese sandwich, celery sticks, tomato slices, and a grape drink
B) Oatmeal, whole wheat toast, jelly, and low-fat milk
C) Black bean soup, wheat crackers, orange sections, and prunes
D) Red beans and rice, cornbread, mixed greens, and decaffeinated tea
Q2) A pregnant patient would like to know a good food source of calcium other than dairy products.Your best answer is:
A) legumes.
B) yellow vegetables.
C) lean meat.
D) whole grains.
Q3) Which pregnant woman should restrict her weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Woman pregnant with twins
B) Woman in early adolescence
C) Woman shorter than 62 inches or 157 cm
D) Woman who was 20 lbs overweight before pregnancy
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Chapter 10: Assessment of High-Risk Pregnancy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33876
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant.The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI)of 17.5.She admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally.Her blood pressure (BP)is 108/70 mm Hg,her pulse rate is 72 beats/min,and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min.The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer.Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD).Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category?
A) Blood pressure, age, and BMI
B) Drug/alcohol use, age, and family history
C) Family history, blood pressure, and BMI
D) Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse
Q2) Advanced maternal age
A)Polyhydramnios
B)Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause)
C)Oligohydramnios
D)Chromosomal abnormalities
E)Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)
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Page 12
Chapter 11: High-Risk Perinatal Care: Preexisting Conditions
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33877
Sample Questions
Q1) Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).In planning her care,the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM.The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for:
A) macrosomia.
B) congenital anomalies of the central nervous system.
C) preterm birth.
D) low birth weight.
Q2) Glucose metabolism is profoundly affected during pregnancy because:
A) pancreatic function in the islets of Langerhans is affected by pregnancy.
B) the pregnant woman uses glucose at a more rapid rate than the nonpregnant woman.
C) the pregnant woman increases her dietary intake significantly.
D) placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, thus resulting in insulin resistance.
Q3) The most common neurologic disorder accompanying pregnancy is:
A) eclampsia.
B) Bell's palsy.
C) epilepsy.
D) multiple sclerosis.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: High-Risk Perinatal Care: Gestational Conditions
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33878
Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased placental perfusion in supine position
A)Increased oxygen consumption
B)Increased heart rate
C)Decreased gastric motility
D)Displacement of abdominal viscera
E)Increase in clotting factors
Q2) As related to the care of the patient with miscarriage,nurses should be aware that:
A) it is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins.
B) it occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies.
C) it often can be attributed to careless maternal behavior such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise.
D) if it occurs before the 12th week of pregnancy, it may manifest only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.
Q3) A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is more commonly known as:
A) total.
B) partial.
C) complete.
D) marginal.
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Chapter 13: Labor and Birth Processes
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33879
Sample Questions
Q1) One
A)Flexion
B)Internal rotation
C)External rotation
D)Expulsion
E)Engagement
F)Descent
G)Extension
Q2) Which presentation is described accurately in terms of both presenting part and frequency of occurrence?
A) Cephalic: occiput; at least 95%
B) Breech: sacrum; 10% to 15%
C) Shoulder: scapula; 10% to 15%
D) Cephalic: cranial; 80% to 85%
Q3) Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth?
A) The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination.
B) Bloody mucus discharge increases.
C) The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.
D) The membranes rupture during a contraction.
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Chapter 14: Maximizing Comfort for the Laboring Woman
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33880
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring woman received an opioid agonist (meperidine)intravenously 90 minutes before she gave birth.Which medication should be available to reduce the postnatal effects of Demerol on the neonate?
A) Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
B) Promethazine (Phenergan)
C) Naloxone (Narcan)
D) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
Q2) Less pain and anxiety during the first stage of labor.
A)Walking
B)Massage
C)Acupuncture
D)Water immersion
E)Aromatherapy
Q3) The role of the nurse with regard to informed consent is to:
A) inform the patient about the procedure and have her sign the consent form.
B) act as a patient advocate and help clarify the procedure and the options.
C) call the physician to see the patient.
D) witness the signing of the consent form.
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16
Chapter 15: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33881
Sample Questions
Q1) A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by:
A) contractions every 2 to 5 minutes.
B) contractions lasting about 2 minutes.
C) contractions about 1 minute apart.
D) a contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.
Q2) While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced,the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR)begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends.The nurse should:
A) change the woman's position.
B) discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
C) insert an internal monitor.
D) document the finding in the patient's record.
Q3) The nurse providing care for the laboring woman comprehends that accelerations with fetal movement:
A) are reassuring.
B) are caused by umbilical cord compression.
C) warrant close observation.
D) are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33882
Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning the third stage of labor,nurses should be aware that:
A) the placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus.
B) an expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications.
C) it is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface.
D) the major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.
Q2) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is the:
A) amount of cervical dilation.
B) total duration of labor.
C) level of pain experienced.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
Q3) When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor,the nurse initially should:
A) tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture.
B) emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop.
C) arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation.
D) ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Labor and Birth Complications
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33883
Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses should be aware that the induction of labor:
A) can be achieved by external and internal version techniques.
B) is also known as a trial of labor (TOL).
C) is almost always done for medical reasons.
D) is rated for viability by a Bishop score.
Q2) While caring for the patient who requires an induction of labor,the nurse should be cognizant that:
A) ripening the cervix usually results in a decreased success rate for induction.
B) labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents.
C) oxytocin is less expensive than prostaglandins and more effective but creates greater health risks.
D) amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.
Q3) The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin (Pitocin)infusion is:
A) measuring urinary output.
B) increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes.
C) monitoring uterine response.
D) evaluating cervical dilation.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Physiologic Changes
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33884
Sample Questions
Q1) Which documentation on a woman's chart on after birth day 14 indicates a normal involution process?
A) Moderate bright red lochial flow
B) Breasts firm and tender
C) Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable
D) Episiotomy slightly red and puffy
Q2) Post birth uterine/vaginal discharge,called lochia:
A) is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours.
B) is usually greater after cesarean births.
C) will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding.
D) should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.
Q3) Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant.Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis.One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early after birth period is:
A) elevated temperature caused by after birth infection.
B) increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth.
C) loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy.
D) increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33885
Sample Questions
Q1) A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week after birth checkup.The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman:
A) discusses her labor and birth experience excessively.
B) believes that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others.
C) has not given the baby a name.
D) has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby.
Q2) When caring for a newly delivered woman,the nurse is aware that the best measure to prevent abdominal distention after a cesarean birth is:
A) rectal suppositories.
B) early and frequent ambulation.
C) tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles.
D) carbonated beverages.
Q3) Rh? immune globulin will be ordered after birth if which situation occurs?
A) Mother Rh-, baby Rh+
B) Mother Rh-, baby Rh-
C) Mother Rh+, baby Rh+
D) Mother Rh+, baby Rh-
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Chapter 20: Transition to Parenthood
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Other early sensual contacts between infant and mother involve sound and smell.Nurses should be aware that,despite what folk wisdom may say:
A) high-pitched voices irritate newborns.
B) infants can learn to distinguish their mother's voice from others soon after birth.
C) all babies in the hospital smell alike.
D) a mother's breast milk has no distinctive odor.
Q2) During which phase of maternal adjustment will the mother relinquish the baby of her fantasies and accept the real baby?
A) Letting go
B) Taking hold
C) Taking in
D) Taking on
Q3) The best way for the nurse to promote and support the maternal-infant bonding process is to:
A) help the mother identify her positive feelings toward the newborn.
B) encourage the mother to provide all newborn care.
C) assist the family with rooming-in.
D) return the newborn to the nursery during sleep periods.
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Chapter 21: Postpartum Complications
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33887
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the first symptoms of puerperal infection to assess for in the after birth woman is:
A) fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week.
B) pain with voiding.
C) profuse vaginal bleeding with ambulation.
D) temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher on two successive days starting 24 hours after birth.
Q2) The first and most important nursing intervention when a nurse observes profuse after birth bleeding is to:
A) call the woman's primary health care provider.
B) administer the standing order for an oxytocic.
C) palpate the uterus and massage it if it is boggy.
D) assess maternal blood pressure and pulse for signs of hypovolemic shock.
Q3) Presence or absence of anxiety
A)Palpation
B)Auscultation
C)Inspection
D)Observation
E)Measurement
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Chapter 22: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33888
Sample Questions
Q1) One reason the brain is vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies and trauma in early infancy is the:
A) incompletely developed neuromuscular system.
B) primitive reflex system.
C) presence of various sleep-wake states.
D) cerebellum growth spurt.
Q2) A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby's hands and feet are blue.The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called: A) acrocyanosis.
B) erythema neonatorum.
C) harlequin color.
D) vernix caseosa.
Q3) The transition period between intrauterine and extrauterine existence for the newborn:
A) consists of four phases, two reactive and two of decreased responses.
B) is referred to as the neonatal period and lasts from birth to day 28 of life.
C) applies to full-term births only.
D) varies by socioeconomic status and the mother's age.
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Chapter 23: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33889
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing follow-up care often includes home visits for the new mother and her infant.Which information related to home visits is correct?
A) Ideally, the visit is scheduled within 72 hours after discharge.
B) Home visits are available in all areas.
C) Visits are completed within a 30-minute time frame.
D) Blood draws are not a part of the home visit.
Q2) A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage.There was a nuchal cord.After birth the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back.Information given to the infant's parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae:
A) are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth.
B) result from increased blood volume.
C) should always be further investigated.
D) usually occur with forceps delivery.
Q3) At 1 minute after birth,the nurse assesses the infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min,some flexion of the extremities,a weak cry,grimacing,and a pink body with blue extremities.The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of ________.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33890
Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother wants to be sure that she is meeting her daughter's needs while feeding her commercially prepared infant formula.The nurse should evaluate the mother's knowledge about appropriate infant care.The mother meets her child's needs when she:
A) adds rice cereal to her formula at 2 weeks of age to ensure adequate nutrition.
B) warms the bottles using a microwave oven.
C) burps her infant during and after the feeding as needed.
D) refrigerates any leftover formula for the next feeding.
Q2) The nurse is discussing storage of breast milk with a mother whose infant is preterm and in the special care unit.What statement would indicate that the mother needs additional teaching?
A) "I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months."
B) "I can store my breast milk in the freezer for 3 months."
C) "I can store my breast milk at room temperature for 8 hours."
D) "I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days."
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Chapter 25: The High-Risk Newborn
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 7
A)Secure the infant in the car seat per guidelines using blanket rolls on the side.
B)Leave the infant undisturbed for 90 to 120 minutes.
C)Set the heart rate alarm at 80 beats/min and the apnea alarm at 20 seconds.
D)Document the infant's tolerance to the test.
E)Perform the evaluation 1 to 7 days before discharge.
F)Use the parent's car seat.
G)Set the pulse oximeter low alarm at 88%.
Q2) A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery.After stabilization the infant is weighed,and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lbs,6 ounces).The nurse's most appropriate action is to:
A) leave the infant in the room with the mother.
B) take the infant immediately to the nursery.
C) perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age.
D) monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 26: 21st Century Pediatric Nursing
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of deaths caused by unintentional injuries?
A) More deaths occur in males.
B) More deaths occur in females.
C) The pattern of deaths varies widely in Western societies.
D) The pattern of deaths does not vary according to age and sex.
Q2) Which statement best describes the process of critical thinking?
A) It is a simple developmental process.
B) It is purposeful and goal directed.
C) It is based on deliberate and irrational thought.
D) It assists individuals in guessing what is most appropriate.
Q3) In addition to injuries,the leading causes of death in adolescents ages 15 to 19 years are:
A) suicide, cancer.
B) homicide, suicide
C) homicide, heart disease.
D) drowning, cancer.
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Chapter 27: Family, social, cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup.She comments,"I want to go back to work,but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." The nurse's most appropriate answer is:
A) "I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good baby-sitter."
B) "You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C) "You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
D) "Let's talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric."
Q2) The mother of a school-age child tells the school nurse that she and her spouse are going through a divorce.The child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble sleeping.The nurse should recognize this as:
A) indicative of maladjustment.
B) common reaction to divorce.
C) suggestive of lack of adequate parenting.
D) unusual response that indicates need for referral.
Q3) What type of family is one in which all members are related by blood?
A) Consanguineous
B) Affinal
C) Family of origin
D) Household
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Chapter 28: Developmental and Genetic Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33894
Sample Questions
Q1) How does the onset of the pubertal growth spurt compare in girls and boys?
A) It occurs earlier in boys.
B) It occurs earlier in girls.
C) It is about the same in both boys and girls.
D) In both boys and girls it depends on their growth in infancy.
Q2) Frequent developmental assessments are important for which reason?
A) Stable developmental periods during infancy provide an opportunity to identify any delays or deficits.
B) Infants need stimulation specific to the stage of development.
C) Critical periods of development occur during childhood.
D) Child development is unpredictable and needs monitoring.
Q3) In what type of play are children engaged in similar or identical activity without organization,division of labor,or mutual goal?
A) Solitary
B) Parallel
C) Associative
D) Cooperative
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Communication and Physical Assessment of the Child and Family
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is seeing an adolescent boy and his parents in the clinic for the first time.What should the nurse do first?
A) Introduce himself or herself.
B) Make the family comfortable.
C) Explain the purpose of the interview.
D) Give an assurance of privacy.
Q2) Which age-group is most concerned with body integrity?
A) Toddler
B) Preschooler
C) School-age child
D) Adolescent
Q3) The nurse is interviewing the mother of an infant.She reports,"I had a difficult delivery,and my baby was born prematurely." This information should be recorded under which heading?
A) Birth history
B) Present illness
C) Chief complaint
D) Review of systems
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Chapter 30: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 1
A)Initiate resuscitation efforts as appropriate
B)Administer the prescribed naloxone (Narcan) dose by slow IV push
C)Prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan) as needed every 2 minutes until desired effect
Q2) The nurse caring for the child in pain understands that distraction:
A) can give total pain relief to the child.
B) is effective when the child is in severe pain.
C) is the best method for pain relief.
D) must be developmentally appropriate to refocus attention.
Q3) Which drug is usually the best choice for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)for a child in the immediate postoperative period?
A) Codeine
B) Morphine
C) Methadone
D) Meperidine
Q4) A dose of oxycodone (OxyContin)2 mg/kg has been ordered for a child weighing 33 lbs.The nurse should administer ______ mg of OxyContin.(Record your answer as a whole number.)
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Chapter 31: The Infant and Family
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Piaget,the 6-month-old infant would be in what stage of the sensorimotor phase?
A) Use of reflexes
B) Primary circular reactions
C) Secondary circular reactions
D) Coordination of secondary schemata
Q2) The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant's stool.The nurse bases her explanation on what fact?
A) Children should not be given fibrous foods until the digestive tract matures at age 4 years.
B) The infant should not be given any solid foods until this digestive problem is resolved.
C) This is abnormal and requires further investigation.
D) This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age.
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33
Chapter 32: The Toddler and Family
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a newborn say that their toddler "hates the baby and suggested that we put the baby in the trash can so the trash truck could take him away." What is the nurse's best response to the parent's concern?
A) "Let's see if we can figure out why your toddler hates the new baby."
B) "That's a strong statement to come from such a small child."
C) "Let's refer your child to counseling to work this hatred out. It's not a normal response."
D) "That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this."
Q2) Which is the most fatal type of burn in the toddler age-group?
A) Flame burn from playing with matches.
B) Scald burn from high-temperature tap water.
C) Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons.
D) Electric burn from electrical outlets.
Q3) What is the primary purpose of a transitional object?
A) It helps the parents deal with the guilt when leaving the child.
B) It keeps the child quiet at bedtime.
C) It is effective in decreasing anxiety in the toddler.
D) It decreases negativism and tantrums in the toddler.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: The Preschooler and Family
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33899
Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of language and cognitive development,a 4-year-old child would be expected to have which traits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Think in abstract terms
B) Sexual curiosity
C) Understand conservation of matter
D) Use sentences of eight words
E) Tell exaggerated stories
Q2) When is a child with chickenpox considered to be no longer contagious?
A) When fever is absent
B) When lesions are crusted
C) 24 hours after lesions erupt
D) 8 days after onset of illness
Q3) Which is probably the most important criterion on which to base the decision to report suspected child abuse?
A) Inappropriate parental concern for the degree of injury
B) Absence of parents for questioning about child's injuries
C) Inappropriate response of child
D) Incompatibility between the history and injury observed
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35
Chapter 34: The School-Age Child and Family
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is excited by speed and motion
A)Motor vehicle accidents
B)Drowning
C)Burns
D)Poisoning
E)Bodily damage
Q2) What describes moral development in younger school-age children?
A) The standards of behavior now come from within themselves.
B) They do not yet experience a sense of guilt when they misbehave.
C) They know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons behind them.
D) They no longer interpret accidents and misfortunes as punishment for misdeeds.
Q3) May be easily influenced by peers
A)Motor vehicle accidents
B)Drowning
C)Burns
D)Poisoning
E)Bodily damage
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36
Chapter 35: The Adolescent and Family
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which predisposes the adolescent to feel an increased need for sleep?
A) An inadequate diet
B) Rapid physical growth
C) Decreased activity that contributes to a feeling of fatigue
D) The lack of ambition typical of this age-group
Q2) An adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had homosexual feelings.The nurse's response should be based on what knowledge?
A) This indicates that the adolescent is homosexual.
B) This indicates that the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult.
C) The adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy.
D) The adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences.
Q3) How may anorexia nervosa best be described?
A) Occurring most frequently in adolescent males.
B) Occurring most frequently in adolescents from lower socioeconomic groups.
C) Resulting from a posterior pituitary disorder.
D) Resulting in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes.
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Chapter 36: Impact of Chronic Illness, disability, or
End-Of-Life Care for the Child and Family
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33902
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a child who is near death.Which physical signs indicate the child is approaching death? (Select all that apply.)
A) Body feels warm
B) Tactile sensation decreasing
C) Speech becomes rapid
D) Change in respiratory pattern
E) Difficulty swallowing
Q2) At what age do most children have an adult concept of death as being inevitable,universal,and irreversible?
A) 4 to 5 years
B) 6 to 8 years
C) 9 to 11 years
D) 12 to 16 years
Q3) Most parents of children with special needs tend to experience chronic sorrow.How may chronic sorrow be characterized?
A) Lack of acceptance of the child's limitation.
B) Lack of available support to prevent sorrow.
C) Periods of intensified sorrow when experiencing anger and guilt.
D) Periods of intensified sorrow and loss that occur in waves over time.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child
and Family
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distortion of sound and problems in discrimination are characteristic of which type of hearing loss?
A) Conductive
B) Sensorineural
C) Mixed conductive-sensorineural
D) Central auditory imperceptive
Q2) The child diagnosed with Down syndrome should be evaluated for which characteristic before participating in some sports?
A) Hyperflexibility
B) Cutis marmorata
C) Atlantoaxial instability
D) Speckling of iris (Brushfield's spots)
Q3) A nurse would suspect possible visual impairment in a child who displays:
A) excessive rubbing of the eyes.
B) rapid lateral movement of the eyes.
C) delay in speech development.
D) lack of interest in casual conversation with peers.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Family-Centered Care of the Child During
Illness and Hospitalization
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33904
Sample
Questions
Q1) A previously "potty-trained" 30-month-old child has reverted to wearing diapers while hospitalized.The nurse should reassure the parents based on what knowledge concerning regressive behaviors?
A) Regression is seen during hospitalization.
B) Developmental delays occur because of the hospitalization.
C) The child is experiencing urinary urgency because of hospitalization.
D) The child was too young to be "potty-trained."
Q2) What intervention should the nurse implement when a 5 year old tells the nurse,"I need a Band-Aid" after having an injection.
A) Apply a Band-Aid.
B) Ask why he/she wants a Band-Aid.
C) Explain why a Band-Aid is not needed.
D) Show he/her that the bleeding has already stopped.
Q3) Which situation poses the greatest challenge to the nurse working with a child and family?
A) Twenty-four-hour observation
B) Emergency hospitalization
C) Outpatient admission
D) Rehabilitation admission
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33905
Sample Questions
Q1) When liquid medication is given to a crying 10-month-old infant,which approach minimizes the possibility of aspiration?
A) Administering the medication with a syringe (without needle) placed along the side of the infant's tongue.
B) Administering the medication as rapidly as possible with the infant securely restrained.
C) Mixing the medication with the infant's regular formula or juice and administering by bottle.
D) Keeping the child upright with the nasal passages blocked for a minute after administration.
Q2) Using knowledge of child development,what is the best approach when preparing a toddler for a procedure?
A) Avoid asking the child to make choices.
B) Demonstrate the procedure on a doll.
C) Plan for the teaching session to last about 20 minutes.
D) Show necessary equipment without allowing child to handle it.
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Chapter 40: The Child With Respiratory Dysfunction
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33906
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a child with acute epiglottitis.Examining the child's throat by using a tongue depressor might precipitate which symptom or condition?
A) Inspiratory stridor
B) Complete obstruction
C) Sore throat
D) Respiratory tract infection
Q2) In providing nourishment for a child with cystic fibrosis (CF),what diet consideration should be stressed to both the child and caregivers?
A) Diet should be high in carbohydrates and protein.
B) Diet should be high in easily digested carbohydrates and fats.
C) Most fruits and vegetables are not well tolerated.
D) Fats and proteins must be greatly curtailed.
Q3) What distinguishing manifestation of spasmodic croup should parents be taught to identify?
A) Wheezing is heard audibly
B) It has a harsh, barky cough
C) It is bacterial in nature
D) The child has a high fever
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Chapter 41: The Child With Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss?
A) Isotonic dehydration
B) Isosmotic dehydration
C) Hypotonic dehydration
D) Hypertonic dehydration
Q2) The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis.Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?
A) Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation
B) Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
C) Visible peristalsis and weight loss
D) Distention of lower abdomen and constipation
Q3) Which description of a stool is characteristic of intussusception?
A) Ribbon-like stools
B) Hard stools positive for guaiac
C) "Currant jelly" stools
D) Loose, foul-smelling stools
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Chapter 42: The Child With Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33908
Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by the school nurse is important in the prevention of rheumatic fever?
A) Encourage routine cholesterol screenings.
B) Conduct routine blood pressure screenings.
C) Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures.
D) Recommend salicylates instead of acetaminophen for minor discomforts.
Q2) What is an expected assessment finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Systolic hypertension in the lower extremities
C) Blood pressure higher on the left side of the body
D) Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities
Q3) Seventy-two hours after cardiac surgery,a young child has a temperature of 37.7° C (101° F).The nurse should initially implement which intervention?
A) Keep the child warm with blankets
B) Apply a hypothermia blanket
C) Record the temperature on nurses' notes
D) Report findings to physician
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Chapter 43: The Child With Hematologic or Immunologic Dysfunction
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33909
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is caused by a virus that primarily infects a specific subset of T lymphocytes,the CD4<sup>+</sup> T-cells?
A) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
D) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Q2) A young child with human immunodeficiency virus is receiving several antiretroviral drugs.What is the expected outcome of these drug therapies?
A) Cure the disease
B) Delay disease progression
C) Prevent spread of disease
D) Treat Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Q3) First priority
A)Take the vital signs
B)Stop the transfusion
C)Notify the practitioner
D)Maintain a patent intravenous (IV) line with normal saline
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Page 45
Chapter 44: The Child With Cancer
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33910
Sample Questions
Q1) Which expected appearance will the nurse explain to parents of an infant returning from surgery after an enucleation was performed to treat retinoblastoma? (Select all that apply.)
A) A lot of drainage will come from the affected socket.
B) The face may be edematous or ecchymotic.
C) The eyelids will be sutured shut for the first week.
D) There will be an eye pad dressing taped over the surgical site.
E) The implanted sphere is covered with conjunctiva and resembles the lining of the mouth.
Q2) The nurse is administering an IV chemotherapeutic agent to a child diagnosed with leukemia.The child suddenly begins to wheeze and have severe urticaria.Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Stop drug infusion immediately.
B) Recheck rate of drug infusion.
C) Observe child closely for next 10 minutes.
D) Explain to child that this is an expected side effect.
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Chapter 45: The Child With Genitourinary Dysfunction
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33911
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse recommend to prevent urinary tract infections in young girls?
A) Wearing cotton underpants
B) Limiting bathing as much as possible
C) Increasing fluids; decreasing salt intake
D) Cleansing the perineum with water after voiding
Q2) The diet of a child with chronic renal failure is usually characterized as:
A) high in protein.
B) low in vitamin D.
C) low in phosphorus.
D) supplemented with vitamins A, E, and K.
Q3) Which factor predisposes a child to urinary tract infections?
A) Increased fluid intake
B) Short urethra in young girls
C) Prostatic secretions in males
D) Frequent emptying of the bladder
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Chapter 46: The Child With Cerebral Dysfunction
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33912
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with severe head trauma after a car accident.Which is an ominous sign that often precedes death?
A) Papilledema
B) Delirium
C) Doll's head maneuver
D) Periodic and irregular breathing
Q2) What is the priority nursing intervention when a child is unconscious after a fall?
A) Establish an adequate airway
B) Perform neurologic assessment
C) Monitor intercranial pressure
D) Determine whether a neck injury is present
Q3) The nurse is monitoring an infant for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP).Which are late signs of increased ICP in an infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tachycardia
B) Alteration in pupil size and reactivity
C) Increased motor response
D) Extension or flexion posturing
E) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
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Chapter 47: The Child With Endocrine Dysfunction
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33913
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is implementing care for a school-age child admitted to the pediatric intensive care experiencing symptomology associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Begin 0.9% saline solution intravenously as prescribed.
B) Administer regular insulin intravenously as prescribed.
C) Place child on a cardiac monitor.
D) Place child on a pulse oximetry monitor.
Q2) A child with growth hormone (GH)deficiency is receiving GH therapy.What is the best time for the GH to be administered?
A) At bedtime
B) After meals
C) Before meals
D) On arising in the morning
Q3) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent.Which clinical manifestation may be present?
A) Moist skin
B) Weight gain
C) Fluid overload
D) Poor wound healing
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Chapter 48: The Child With Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33914
Sample Questions
Q1) Four year old,placed in Buck's extension traction for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease,is crying with pain as the nurse assesses that the skin of the right foot is pale with an absence of pulse.What should the nurse do first?
A) Notify the practitioner of the changes noted.
B) Give the child medication to relieve the pain.
C) Reposition the child and notify the physician.
D) Chart the observations and check the extremity again in 15 minutes.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a family how to care for their infant in a Pavlik harness to treat developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH).What information should be included?
A) Apply lotion or powder to minimize skin irritation.
B) Remove the harness several times a day to prevent contractures.
C) Hip stabilization usually occurs within 12 weeks.
D) Place a diaper over harness, preferably using a superabsorbent disposable diaper that is relatively thin.
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Chapter 49: The Child With Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33915
Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment findings should the nurse note in a school-age child diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy (DMD)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lordosis
B) Gower's sign
C) Kyphosis
D) Scoliosis
E) Waddling gait
Q2) What is the most appropriate nursing response to the father of a newborn infant with myelomeningocele who asks about the cause of this condition?
A) "One of the parents carries a defective gene that causes myelomeningocele."
B) "A deficiency in folic acid in the father is the most likely cause."
C) "Offspring of parents who have a spinal abnormality are at greater risk for myelomeningocele."
D) "There may be a variety of different causes."
Q3) What is the most common problem for children born with a myelomeningocele?
A) Neurogenic bladder
B) Intellectual impairment
C) Respiratory compromise
D) Cranioschisis
Page 51
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