Obstetric Nursing Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing is a specialized course that focuses on the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. The course covers essential topics such as prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, newborn care, and the identification and management of complications in both mothers and infants. Students learn about the physiological changes of pregnancy, the stages of labor, and strategies for promoting maternal and newborn health. Emphasis is also placed on patient education, emotional support, current practices in safe delivery, and the ethical considerations in obstetric care. The course integrates clinical experiences to prepare students for effective, compassionate nursing care in maternity settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is formulating a nursing care plan for a postpartum patient. Which actions by the nurse indicate use of critical thinking skills when formulating the care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Using a standardized postpartum care plan
B) Determining priorities for each diagnosis written
C) Writing interventions from a nursing diagnosis book
D) Reflecting and suspending judgment when writing the care plan
E) Clustering data during the assessment process according to normal versus abnormal
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, "Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?" Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?
A)Birth center
B)Home birth
C)Traditional hospital birth
D)Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is interviewing a patient who is 6-weeks pregnant. The patient asks the nurse, "Why is elective abortion considered such an ethical issue?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Abortion requires third-party consent.
B) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
C) Abortion law is unclear about a woman's constitutional rights.
D) There is a conflict between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
Answer: D
Q2) While teaching an Asian patient regarding prenatal care, the nurse notes that the patient refuses to make eye contact. Which is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A) A submissive attitude
B) Lack of understanding
C) Embarrassment about the subject
D) Cultural beliefs about eye contact
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly pregnant patient asks the nurse, "What is a false pelvis?" Which statement by the nurse will best explain this anatomy to the patient?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Answer: C
Q2) The clinic nurse is reviewing breastfeeding with a pregnant patient. Which hormone will the nurse explain is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic nurse is reviewing charts on prenatal patients. Which patient histories indicate that a referral to a genetic counselor is warranted? (Select all that apply.)
A) A father who is aged 35
B) A patient having a first baby at age 30
C) A family history of unexplained stillbirths
D) A patient with a family history of birth defects
E) A patient who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder
Q2) A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session for childbearing-age female patients. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to avoiding exposing a fetus to teratogens?
A)Eliminate use of acne medications.
B)Immunizations should be updated during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C)Use of saunas and hot tubs during pregnancy should be during the winter months only.
D)Alcoholic beverages can be consumed in the first and third trimesters of pregnancy.
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant mother, diagnosed with oligohydramnios, asks the nurse what this condition means for the baby. Which statement should the nurse provide for the patient?
A) Oligohydramnios can cause poor fetal lung development.
B) Oligohydramnios means that the fetus is excreting excessive urine.
C) Oligohydramnios could mean that the fetus has a gastrointestinal blockage.
D) Oligohydramnios is associated with fetal central nervous system abnormalities.
Q2) Which statement best describes the changes that occur during the fetal period of development?
A) Maturation of organ systems
B) Development of basic organ systems
C) Resistance of organs to damage from external agents
D) Development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange
Q3) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant due to which anatomical adaptation?
A) Maternal blood flow is lower.
B) Placenta attaches most firmly.
C) Uterine endometrium is softer.
D) Developing baby is best nourished.
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
Q2) What is the physiologic reason for vascular volume increasing by 40% to 60% during pregnancy?
A) Prevents maternal and fetal dehydration
B) Eliminates metabolic wastes of the mother
C) Provides adequate perfusion of the placenta
D) Compensates for decreased renal plasma flow
Q3) Which findings are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Quickening
B) Amenorrhea
C) Ballottement
D) Goodell's sign
E) Chadwick's sign
Q4) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
Q2) When a pregnant woman develops ptyalism, which guidance should the nurse provide?
A) Chew gum or suck on lozenges between meals.
B) Eat nutritious meals that provide adequate amounts of essential vitamins and minerals.
C) Take short walks to stimulate circulation in the legs and elevate the legs periodically.
D) Use pillows to support the abdomen and back during sleep.
Q3) Determine the obstetric history of a patient in her fifth pregnancy who has had two spontaneous abortions in the first trimester, one infant at 32 weeks' gestation, and one infant at 38 weeks' gestation.
A) G5 T1 P2 A2 L 2
B) G5 T1 P1 A1 L2
C) G5 T0 P2 A2 L2
D) G5 T1 P1 A2 L2
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy?
A) Prevents excessive adipose tissue deposits
B) Determines cultural influences on the woman's diet
C) Assesses the need to limit caloric intake in obese women
D) Identifies potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy
Q2) The nurse is teaching a breastfeeding patient about substances to avoid while she is breastfeeding. Which substances should the nurse include in the teaching session?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Omega-6 fatty acids
D) Appetite suppressants
E) Polyunsaturated omega-3 fatty acids
Q3) Which effect is a common response to both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant patient?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Increased appetite
C) Increased metabolism
D) Changes in insulin metabolism
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which patient would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered abnormal?
A) A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation
B) A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes
C) A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term
D) An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term
Q2) Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. A 6-week-gestation patient expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be necessary to determine which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Multifetal gestation
B) Bicornuate uterus
C) Presence and location of pregnancy
D) Amniotic fluid volume
E) Presence of ovarian cysts
Q3) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
A) Increase placental blood flow.
B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.
C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.
D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?
A) Female fetus, Mexican-American, primigravida
B) Male fetus, Asian-American, previous preterm birth
C) Male fetus, African-American, previous cesarean birth
D) Female fetus, European-American, previous spontaneous abortion
Q2) The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of preeclampsia?
A) Edema
B) Proteinuria
C) Glucosuria
D) Hypertension
Q3) Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Delivery of the fetus
C) Antihypertensive medications
D) Administration of aspirin (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy because
A) prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.
B) personal risk behaviors influence fertility.
C) contraceptives have been used for an extended period of time.
D) the ovaries may be affected by the normal aging process.
Q2) Which nursing diagnoses may apply to the childbearing family with special needs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Risk for spiritual distress
B) Risk for injury
C) Readiness for enhanced nutrition
D) Ineffective breathing pattern
E) Situational low self-esteem
Q3) Which health concern is most likely to be an issue for the older mother?
A) Nutrition and diet planning
B) Exercise and fitness
C) Having enough rest and sleep
D) Effective contraceptive methods
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess in the third stage of labor that indicates the placenta has separated from the uterine wall? (Select all that apply.)
A) A gush of blood appears.
B) The uterus rises upward in the abdomen.
C) The fundus descends below the umbilicus.
D) The cord descends further from the vagina.
E) The uterus becomes boggy and soft, with an elongated shape.
Q2) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
Q3) Which physiologic event is the key indicator of the commencement of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) A multipara's labor plan includes the use of jet hydrotherapy during the active phase of labor. What is the priority patient assessment prior to assisting the patient with this request?
A) Maternal pulse
B) Maternal temperature
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Maternal blood glucose level
Q2) Which physiologic effect may occur in the presence of increased maternal pain perception during labor?
A) Increase in uterine contractions in response to catecholamine secretion
B) Decrease in blood pressure in response to alpha receptors
C) Decreased perfusion to the placenta in response to catecholamine secretion
D) Increased uterine blood flow, causing increase in maternal blood pressure
Q3) Which of the following factors would affect pain perception or tolerance for the laboring patient?
A) Right occiput posterior fetal position during labor
B) Bishop score of 10 prior to the induction of labor
C) Gynecoid pelvis
D) Absence of Ferguson's reflex
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is A) Inside the uterus.
B) On the fetal scalp.
C) Over the uterine fundus.
D) Over the mother's lower abdomen.
Q2) The nurse evaluates a pattern on the fetal monitor that appears similar to early decelerations. The deceleration begins near the acme of the contraction and continues well beyond the end of the contraction. Which nursing action indicates the proper evaluation of this situation?
A) This pattern reflects variable decelerations. No interventions are necessary at this time.
B) Document this Category I fetal heart rate pattern and decrease the rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid.
C) Continue to monitor these early decelerations, which occur as the fetal head is compressed during a contraction.
D) This deceleration pattern is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. The nurse must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse in the birth room receives an order to give a newborn 0.3 mg of naloxone (Narcan) intramuscularly. The medication vial reads naloxone (Narcan), 0.4 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank and record your answer using two decimal places. _____ mL
Q2) Which assessment finding is an indication of hemorrhage in the recently delivered postpartum patient?
A) Elevated pulse rate
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Firm fundus at the midline
D) Saturation of two perineal pads in 4 hours
Q3) The nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous (IV) access on a patient in the active phase of labor. Which size IV cannula is best for this patient?
A) 18-gauge
B) 20-gauge
C) 22-gauge
D) 24-gauge
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After birth, the nurse monitors the mother for postpartum hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony. Which clinical finding would increase the nurse's concern regarding this risk?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Iron-deficiency anemia
C) Prolonged use of oxytocin
D) Uteroplacental insufficiency
Q2) When reviewing the prenatal record of a patient at 42 weeks' gestation, the nurse recognizes that induction of labor is based upon which indication
A) reduced amniotic fluid volume.
B) cervix 2 cm at last prenatal visit.
C) fundal height measured at the xyphoid process.
D) 1-lb weight gain at each of the last two weekly visits.
Q3) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To facilitate adequate urinary elimination during the postpartum period, the nurse should incorporate which intervention into the plan of care?
A) Have the patient drink carbonated beverages to promote urinary excretion.
B) Tell the patient that because of postpartum diuresis there is less risk to develop dehydration.
C) Limit fluid intake to prevent polyuria.
D) Teach the patient to perform pelvic floor exercises to combat potential stress incontinence.
Q2) A new father calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He states, "She was never like this before the baby was born." How should the nurse best respond?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum patient has developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and treatment with warfarin (Coumadin) has been initiated. Which dietary selection should be modified in view of this treatment regimen?
A) Fresh fruits
B) Milk
C) Lentils
D) Soda
Q2) The nurse suspecting a uterine infection in a postpartum patient should assess the A) episiotomy site.
B) odor of the lochia.
C) abdomen for distention.
D) pulse and blood pressure.
Q3) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
Q2) The nurse is explaining how a newly delivered baby initiates respirations. Which statement explains this process most accurately?
A) Drying off the infant
B) Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors
C) An increase in the PO2 and a decrease in the PCO2
D) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale
Q3) A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because the meconium stool is
A) seen at 3 days of age.
B) the residue of a milk curd.
C) passed in the first 24 hours of life.
D) lighter in color and looser in consistency.
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical findings are early signs of hypoglycemia in the newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Jitteriness
B) Poor feeding
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) An increase in temperature
E) A capillary refill of 2 seconds
Q2) The hips of a newborn are examined for developmental dysplasia. Which clinical finding indicates an incomplete development of the acetabulum?
A) Negative Barlow test
B) Equal knee heights
C) Negative Ortolani sign
D) Thigh and gluteal creases are asymmetric.
Q3) Which nursing action is designed to avoid unnecessary heat loss in the newborn?
A) Maintain room temperature at 21°C (70°F).
B) Place a blanket over the scale before weighing the infant.
C) Take the rectal temperature every hour to detect early changes.
D) Undress the infant completely for assessments so that they can be finished quickly.
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is optimal for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscle
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
Q2) The nurse is evaluating a newborn's circumcision 30 minutes after the procedure. The nurse notes excessive bleeding coming from the circumcised area. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement at this time?
A) Apply pressure to the site.
B) Continue to observe for another 30 minutes.
C) Apply the diaper tightly over the circumcised area.
D) Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a small piece of gauze.
Q3) Which information should the nurse teach to new parents regarding the use of a bulb syringe?
A) Use it only once per day.
B) Suction the back of the throat vigorously.
C) Insert the syringe into the sides of the mouth.
D) Always suction the mouth before suctioning the nose.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A breastfeeding mother asks the postpartum nurse if any supplementation is necessary once her breast milk comes in. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Are you concerned about your ability to adequately nurse your baby?"
B) "Do you eat a well-balanced diet, high in protein and carbohydrates?"
C) "Breast milk is low in vitamin D and supplementation with 400 IU is recommended."
D) "Your breast milk has all the vitamins and will adequately meet your baby's needs."
Q2) The patient should be taught that when her infant falls asleep after feeding for only a few minutes, she should do which of the following?
A) Unwrap and gently arouse the infant.
B) Wait an hour and attempt to feed again.
C) Try offering a bottle at the next feeding.
D) Put the infant in the crib and try again later.
Q3) Which is an important consideration regarding the storage of breast milk?
A) Can be thawed and refrozen
B) Can be frozen for up to 6 months
C) Should be stored only in glass bottles
D) Can be kept refrigerated for 72 hours
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?
A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.
B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.
C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.
D) Three successive temperature measurements were 36.1°C, 35.5°C, and 36.1°C (97, 96, and 97°F).
Q2) Which is the most useful factor in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
Q3) A preterm infant is on a ventilator, with intravenous lines and other medical equipment. When the parents come to visit for the first time, what is the most important action by the nurse?
A) Encourage the parents to touch their infant.
B) Reassure the parents that the infant is progressing well.
C) Discuss the care they will give their infant when the infant goes home.
D) Suggest that the parents visit for only a short time to reduce their anxiety.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection can be transmitted to the neonate from mother during the pregnancy or birth or from the mother, family members, visitors, or agency staff after birth. Which viral infections are most likely to be transmitted during the birth process? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hepatitis B
B) Rubella
C) Herpes
D) Varicella Zoster
E) Cytomegalovirus
Q2) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q3) When a cardiac defect causes the mixing of arterial and venous blood in the right side of the heart, the nurse might expect to find
A) cyanosis.
B) diuresis.
C) signs of congestive heart failure.
D) increased oxygenation of the tissues.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should understand that
A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.
B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.
C) her temperature will increase about 0.2 to 0.4°C (0.4 to 0.8°F) after ovulation.
D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.
Q2) Which contraceptive method should be contraindicated in a patient with a history of toxic shock syndrome?
A) Condom
B) Spermicide
C) Cervical cap
D) Oral contraceptives
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
Q2) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
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28
Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is
A) "No, it is part of the aging process."
B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."
C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."
D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."
Q2) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
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