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Obstetric Nursing is a specialized course that prepares nursing students to provide comprehensive care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. The course covers topics such as prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, high-risk pregnancies, and newborn care. Students will learn about physiological and psychological changes in pregnancy, fetal development, and complications that may arise. Emphasis is placed on patient education, evidence-based practices, and interdisciplinary teamwork to ensure the health and safety of both mother and infant. Clinical experiences and simulations allow students to develop critical skills in assessment, support, and intervention across all stages of the perinatal continuum.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Perry
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Q1) Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators.Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum.Therefore it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in:
A)The reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care.
B)Low birth weight and preterm birth.
C)Elimination of health disparities based on race.
D)Infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects.
Answer: A
Q2) An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care,which:
A)Seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups.
B)Blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment.
C)Focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the client.
D)Has been mandated by Congress.
Answer: B
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Q1) Step Five
A)Introduce yourself to the interpreter and converse informally.
B)Outline your statements and questions, listing the key pieces of information you need to know.
C)Make sure the interpreter is comfortable with technical terms.
D)Learn something about the culture of the patient.
E)Make notes on what you learned for future reference.
F)Stop every now and then and ask the interpreter "How is it going?"
Answer: F
Q2) While working in the prenatal clinic,you care for a very diverse group of patients.When planning interventions for these families,you realize that acceptance of the interventions will be most influenced by:
A)Educational achievement.
B)Income level.
C)Subcultural group.
D)Individual beliefs.
Answer: D
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Q1) During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful?
A)Battering phase
B)Honeymoon phase
C)Tension-building phase
D)Increased drug-taking phase
Answer: B
Q2) The uterus is a muscular,pear-shaped organ that is responsible for:
A)Cyclic menstruation.
B)Sex hormone production.
C)Fertilization.
D)Sexual arousal.
Answer: A
Q3) A pregnant woman who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit.This behavior places her at a greater risk for:
A)Depression of the central nervous system
B)Hypotension and vasodilation
C)Sexually transmitted diseases
D)Postmature birth
Answer: C
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Q1) A 36-year-old woman has been given a diagnosis of uterine fibroids.When planning care for this patient,the nurse should know that:
A)Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus that require radiation or chemotherapy.
B)Fibroids increase in size during the perimenopausal period.
C)Menorrhagia is a common finding.
D)The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in her uterus.
Q2) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is called:
A)Ductal ectasia.
B)Intraductal papilloma.
C)Chronic cystic disease.
D)Fibroadenoma.
Q3) With regard to dysmenorrhea,nurses should be aware that:
A)It is more common in older women.
B)It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously.
C)Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle.
D)Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.
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Q1) A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility.Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to avoid while trying to conceive?
A)"You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant."
B)"You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive."
C)"You should not take anything with vitamin E, calcium, or magnesium. They will make you infertile."
D)"Herbs have no bearing on fertility."
Q2) Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
A)Standard days
B)Periodic abstinence
C)Postovulation
D)Coitus interruptus
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Q1) Along with gas exchange and nutrient transfer,the placenta produces many hormones necessary for normal pregnancy.These include (select all that apply)
A)Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B)Insulin
C)Estrogen
D)Progesterone
E)Testosterone
Q2) The nurse must be cognizant that an individual's genetic makeup is known as his or her:
A)Genotype.
B)Phenotype.
C)Karyotype.
D)Chromotype.
Q3) The measurement of lecithin in relation to sphingomyelin (L/S ratio)is used to determine fetal lung maturity.Which ratio reflects maturity of the lungs?
A)1.4:1
B)1.8:1
C)2:1
D)1:1
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Q1) Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is:
A)Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right.
B)Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left.
C)Deep at McBurney point.
D)Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.
Q2) The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy.A woman can expect to experience what change?
A)Her center of gravity will shift backward.
B)She will have increased lordosis.
C)She will have increased abdominal muscle tone.
D)She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.
Q3) The nurse caring for the pregnant client must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is:
A)Estrogen.
B)Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
C)Oxytocin.
D)Progesterone.
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Q1) With regard to the initial physical examination of a woman beginning prenatal care,maternity nurses should be cognizant of:
A)Only women who show physical signs or meet the sociologic profile should be assessed for physical abuse.
B)The woman should empty her bladder before the pelvic examination is performed.
C)The distribution, amount, and quality of body hair are of no particular importance.
D)The size of the uterus is discounted in the initial examination.
Q2) Signs and symptoms that a woman should report immediately to her health care provider include (Select all that apply):
A)Vaginal bleeding.
B)Rupture of membranes.
C)Heartburn accompanied by severe headache.
D)Decreased libido.
E)Urinary frequency.
Q3) A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test.The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP)was September 10,2013.Her expected date of birth (EDB)would be?
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Q1) The major source of nutrients in the diet of a pregnant woman should be composed of:
A)Simple sugars
B)Fats
C)Fiber
D)Complex carbohydrates
Q2) A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI)of 18.0.The nurse knows that this woman's total recommended weight gain during pregnancy should be at least:
A)20 kg (44 lb).
B)16 kg (35 lb).
C)12.5 kg (27.5 lb).
D)10 kg (22 lb).
Q3) Which minerals and vitamins usually are recommended to supplement a pregnant woman's diet?
A)Fat-soluble vitamins A and D
B)Water-soluble vitamins C and B6
C)Iron and folate
D)Calcium and zinc
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST)in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR)accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is:
A)Nonreactive
B)Positive
C)Negative
D)Reactive
Q2) Compared with contraction stress test (CST),nonstress test (NST)for antepartum fetal assessment:
A)Has no known contraindications.
B)Has fewer false-positive results.
C)Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.
D)Is slightly more expensive.
Q3) Fetal congenital anomalies
A)Polyhydramnios
B)Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause)
C)Oligohydramnios
D)Chromosomal abnormalities
E)Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)
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Q1) When the pregnant diabetic woman experiences hypoglycemia while hospitalized,the nurse should intervene by having the patient:
A)Eat six saltine crackers.
B)Drink 8 oz of orange juice with 2 tsp of sugar added.
C)Drink 4 oz of orange juice followed by 8 oz of milk.
D)Eat hard candy or commercial glucose wafers.
Q2) A woman has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester.What is an appropriate action?
A)Provide a low-protein diet.
B)Offer the vaccine.
C)Discuss the recommendation to bottle-feed her baby.
D)Practice respiratory isolation.
Q3) Which heart condition is not a contraindication for pregnancy?
A)Peripartum cardiomyopathy
B)Eisenmenger syndrome
C)Heart transplant
D)All of these contraindicate pregnancy.
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Q1) What finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks could suggest a hydatidiform mole?
A)Complaint of frequent mild nausea
B)Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
C)Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
D)History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago
Q2) Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication?
A)Complete hydatidiform mole
B)Missed abortion
C)Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
D)Abruptio placentae
Q3) In caring for the woman with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC),what order should the nurse anticipate?
A)Administration of blood
B)Preparation of the client for invasive hemodynamic monitoring
C)Restriction of intravascular fluids
D)Administration of steroids
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Q1) The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called:
A)Lightening.
B)Molding.
C)Ferguson reflex.
D)Valsalva maneuver.
Q2) To teach patients about the process of labor adequately,the nurse knows that which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A)Bloody show
B)Cervical dilation and effacement
C)Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D)Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q3) Which factors influence cervical dilation (Select all that apply)?
A)Strong uterine contractions
B)The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix
C)The size of the female pelvis
D)The pressure applied by the amniotic sac
E)Scarring of the cervix
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Q1) If an opioid antagonist is administered to a laboring woman,she should be told that:
A)Her pain will decrease.
B)Her pain will return.
C)She will feel less anxious.
D)She will no longer feel the urge to push.
Q2) A woman in labor has just received an epidural block.The most important nursing intervention is to:
A)Limit parenteral fluids.
B)Monitor the fetus for possible tachycardia.
C)Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension.
D)Monitor the maternal pulse for possible bradycardia.
Q3) A woman is experiencing back labor and complains of intense pain in her lower back.An effective relief measure would be to use:
A)Counterpressure against the sacrum.
B)Pant-blow (breaths and puffs) breathing techniques.
C)Effleurage.
D)Conscious relaxation or guided imagery.
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Q1) Why is continuous electronic fetal monitoring usually used when oxytocin is administered?
A)The mother may become hypotensive.
B)Uteroplacental exchange may be compromised.
C)Maternal fluid volume deficit may occur.
D)Fetal chemoreceptors are stimulated.
Q2) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by:
A)Altered fetal cerebral blood flow.
B)Umbilical cord compression.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
Q3) Generally ranging from two to five contractions per 10 minutes of labor
A)Frequency
B)Duration
C)Strength
D)Resting tone
E)Relaxation time
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Q1) When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor,the nurse initially should:
A)Tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture.
B)Emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop.
C)Arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation.
D)Ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.
Q2) It is paramount for the obstetric nurse to understand the regulatory procedures and criteria for admitting a woman to the hospital labor unit.Which guideline is an important legal requirement of maternity care?
A)The patient is not considered to be in true labor (according to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act [EMTALA]) until a qualified health care provider says she is.
B)The woman can have only her male partner or predesignated "doula" with her at assessment.
C)The patient's weight gain is calculated to determine whether she is at greater risk for cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) and cesarean birth.
D)The nurse may exchange information about the patient with family members.
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Q1) The least common cause of long,difficult,or abnormal labor (dystocia)is:
A)Midplane contracture of the pelvis.
B)Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication.
C)Disproportion of the pelvis.
D)Low-lying placenta.
Q2) With regard to the process of augmentation of labor,the nurse should be aware that it:
A)Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory.
B)Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed.
C)Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forceps-assisted birth.
D)Uses vacuum cups.
Q3) The priority nursing intervention after an amniotomy should be to:
A)Assess the color of the amniotic fluid.
B)Change the patient's gown.
C)Estimate the amount of amniotic fluid.
D)Assess the fetal heart rate.
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Q1) The interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state is called the:
A)Involutionary period because of what happens to the uterus.
B)Lochia period because of the nature of the vaginal discharge.
C)Mini-tri period because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks.
D)Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.
Q2) Knowing that the condition of the new mother's breasts will be affected by whether she is breastfeeding,nurses should be able to tell their clients all the following statements except:
A)Breast tenderness is likely to persist for about a week after the start of lactation.
B)As lactation is established, a mass may form that can be distinguished from cancer by its position shift from day to day.
C)In nonlactating mothers colostrum is present for the first few days after childbirth.
D)If suckling is never begun (or is discontinued), lactation ceases within a few days to a week.
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Q1) Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is:
A)Vaginal or vulvar hematomas.
B)Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix.
C)Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly.
D)Retained placental fragments.
Q2) Chinese
A)Prefer not to give babies colostrum
B)Eat only warm foods and hot drinks
C)Take the placenta home to bury
D)Will not eat pork or pork products
E)Have an IUD inserted after the first child
Q3) Discharge instruction,or teaching the woman what she needs to know to care for herself and her newborn,officially begins:
A)At the time of admission to the nurse's unit.
B)When the infant is presented to the mother at birth.
C)During the first visit with the physician in the unit.
D)When the take-home information packet is given to the couple.
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Q1) A nurse is observing a family.The mother is holding the baby she delivered less than 24 hours ago.Her husband is watching his wife and asking questions about newborn care.The 4-year-old brother is punching his mother on the back.The nurse should:
A)Report the incident to the social services department.
B)Advise the parents that the toddler needs to be reprimanded.
C)Report to oncoming staff that the mother is probably not a good disciplinarian.
D)Realize that this is a normal family adjusting to family change.
Q2) The best way for the nurse to promote and support the maternal-infant bonding process is to:
A)Help the mother identify her positive feelings toward the newborn.
B)Encourage the mother to provide all newborn care.
C)Assist the family with rooming-in.
D)Return the newborn to the nursery during sleep periods.
Q3) The nurse can help a father in his transition to parenthood by:
A)Pointing out that the infant turned at the sound of his voice.
B)Encouraging him to go home to get some sleep.
C)Telling him to tape the infant's diaper a different way.
D)Suggesting that he let the infant sleep in the bassinet.
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Q1) A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests:
A)Uterine atony.
B)Lacerations of the genital tract.
C)Perineal hematoma.
D)Infection of the uterus.
Q2) After giving birth to a stillborn infant,the woman turns to the nurse and says,"I just finished painting the baby's room.Do you think that caused my baby to die?" The nurse's best response to this woman is:
A)"That's an old wives' tale; lots of women are around paint during pregnancy, and this doesn't happen to them."
B)"That's not likely. Paint is associated with elevated pediatric lead levels."
C)Silence.
D)"I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?"
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Q1) Which statement describing physiologic jaundice is incorrect?
A)Neonatal jaundice is common, but kernicterus is rare.
B)The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours or beyond day 7 indicates a pathologic process.
C)Because jaundice may not appear before discharge, parents need instruction on how to assess it and when to call for medical help.
D)Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice.
Q2) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn,the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms,his fingers fan out and form a "C" with the thumb and forefinger,and he has a slight tremor.The nurse would document this finding as a positive:
A)Tonic neck reflex.
B)Glabellar (Myerson) reflex.
C)Babinski reflex.
D)Moro reflex.
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Q1) A mother expresses fear about changing her infant's diaper after he is circumcised.What does the woman need to be taught to take care of the infant when she gets home?
A)Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours.
B)Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5 minutes if bleeding occurs.
C)Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change.
D)Wash off the yellow exudate that forms on the glans at least once every day to prevent infection.
Q2) A newborn is jaundiced and receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights.An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy by this method would be to:
A)Apply an oil-based lotion to the newborn's skin to prevent dying and cracking.
B)Limit the newborn's intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C)Place eye shields over the newborn's closed eyes.
D)Change the newborn's position every 4 hours.
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Q1) A new mother wants to be sure that she is meeting her daughter's needs while feeding her commercially prepared infant formula.The nurse should evaluate the mother's knowledge about appropriate infant care.The mother meets her child's needs when she:
A)Adds rice cereal to her formula at 2 weeks of age to ensure adequate nutrition.
B)Warms the bottles using a microwave oven.
C)Burps her infant during and after the feeding as needed.
D)Refrigerates any leftover formula for the next feeding.
Q2) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible.The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant:
A)With his arms folded together over his chest.
B)Curled up in a fetal position.
C)With his head cupped in her hand.
D)With his head and body in alignment.
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Q1) HIV may be perinatally transmitted:
A)Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation.
B)From the use of unsterile instruments.
C)Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid.
D)Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.
Q2) An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)is not responding to conventional treatment.Which highly technical method of treatment may be necessary for an infant who does not respond to conventional treatment?
A)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
B)Respiratory support with a ventilator
C)Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea
D)Insertion of an endotracheal tube
Q3) The nurse practicing in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care regardless of an infant's gestational age.This intervention:
A)Is adopted from classical British nursing traditions.
B)Helps infants with motor and central nervous system impairment.
C)Helps infants to interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation.
D)Gets infants ready for breastfeeding.
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Q1) From a worldwide perspective,infant mortality in the United States:
A)Is the highest of the other developed nations.
B)Lags behind five other developed nations.
C)Is the lowest infant death rate of developed nations.
D)Lags behind most other developed nations.
Q2) A nurse is planning a class on accident prevention for parents of toddlers.Which safety topic is the priority for this class?
A)Appropriate use of car seat restraints
B)Safety crossing the street
C)Helmet use when riding a bicycle
D)Poison control numbers
Q3) A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session about childhood obesity prevention for parents of school-age children.The nurse should include which associated risk of obesity in the teaching plan?
A)Type I diabetes
B)Respiratory disease
C)Celiac disease
D)Type II diabetes
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Q1) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup.She comments,"I want to go back to work,but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." The nurse's most appropriate answer is:
A)"I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good babysitter."
B)"You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C)"You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
D)"Let's talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric."
Q2) A Hispanic toddler has pneumonia.The nurse notices that the parent consistently feeds the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray.Food items such as Jell-O,Popsicles,and juices are left.What would best explain this?
A)The parent is trying to feed child only what child likes most.
B)The parent is trying to restore normal balance through appropriate "hot" remedies.
C)Hispanics believe that the "evil eye" enters when a person gets cold.
D)Hispanics believe that an innate energy called chi is strengthened by eating soup.
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Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a Denver II.Which statement(s)about the Denver II test is (are)accurate (Select all that apply)?
A)All items intersected by the age line should be administered.
B)There is no correction for a child born prematurely.
C)The tool is an intelligence test.
D)Toddlers and preschoolers should be prepared by presenting the test as a game.
E)Presentation of the toys from the kit should be done one at a time.
Q2) Lymphoid tissues such as lymph nodes are:
A)Adult size by age 1 year.
B)Adult size by age 13 years.
C)Half their adult size by age 5 years.
D)Twice their adult size by age 10 to 12 years.
Q3) At what age do children tend to imitate the religious gestures and behaviors of others without understanding their significance?
A)Toddlerhood
B)Young school-age period
C)Older school-age period
D)Adolescence
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Q1) During examination of a toddler's extremities,the nurse notes that the child is bowlegged.The nurse should recognize that this finding is:
A)Abnormal and requires further investigation.
B)Abnormal unless it occurs in conjunction with knock-knee.
C)Normal if the condition is unilateral or asymmetric.
D)Normal because the lower back and leg muscles are not yet well developed.
Q2) When the nurse interviews an adolescent,it is especially important to:
A)Focus the discussion on the peer group.
B)Allow an opportunity to express feelings.
C)Emphasize that confidentiality will always be maintained.
D)Use the same type of language as the adolescent.
Q3) Which age group is most concerned with body integrity?
A)Toddler
B)Preschooler
C)School-age child
D)Adolescent
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Q1) When assessing pain in any child,the nurse should consider that:
A)Any pain assessment tool can be used to assess pain in children.
B)Children as young as 1 year old use words to express pain.
C)The child's behavioral, physiologic, and verbal responses are valuable when assessing pain.
D)Pain assessment tools are minimally effective for communicating about pain.
Q2) Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are:
A)The best indicator of pain in children of all ages.
B)Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain.
C)Of most value when children also report having pain.
D)Of limited value as sole indicator of pain.
Q3) A lumbar puncture is needed on a school-age child.The most appropriate action to provide analgesia during this procedure is to apply:
A)4% Liposomal Lidocaine (LMX) 15 minutes before the procedure.
B)A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
C)Eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA) 1 hour before the procedure.
D)EMLA 30 minutes before the procedure.
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Q1) When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet?
A)2 to 3 months
B)4 to 6 months
C)When birth weight has tripled
D)When tooth eruption has started
Q2) Third
A)Voluntary palmar grasp
B)Reflex palmar grasp
C)Puts objects into a container
D)Neat pincer grasp
E)Builds a tower of two blocks
Q3) Second
A)Voluntary palmar grasp
B)Reflex palmar grasp
C)Puts objects into a container
D)Neat pincer grasp
E)Builds a tower of two blocks
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Q1) A toddler's parent asks the nurse for suggestions on dealing with temper tantrums.The most appropriate recommendation is to:
A)Punish the child.
B)Leave the child alone until the tantrum is over.
C)Ignore the behavior, provided that it is not injurious.
D)Explain to child that this is wrong.
Q2) Which should the nurse teach to parents of toddlers about accidental poison prevention (select all that apply)?
A)Keep toxic substances in the garage.
B)Discard empty poison containers.
C)Know the number of the nearest poison control center.
D)Remove colorful labels from containers of toxic substances.
E)Caution child against eating nonedible items, such as plants.
Q3) A father tells the nurse that his daughter wants the same plate and cup used at every meal,even if they go to a restaurant.The nurse should explain that this is:
A)A sign that the child is spoiled.
B)A way to exert unhealthy control.
C)Regression, common at this age.
D)Ritualism, common at this age.
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Q1) Which statement,made by a 4-year-old child's father,is true about the care of the preschooler's teeth?
A)"Because the 'baby teeth' are not permanent, they are not important to the child."
B)"My son can be encouraged to brush his teeth after I have thoroughly cleaned his teeth."
C)"My son's 'permanent teeth' will begin to come in at 4 to 5 years of age."
D)"Fluoride supplements can be discontinued when my son's 'permanent teeth' erupt."
Q2) By what age would the nurse expect that most children could understand prepositional phrases such as "under," "on top of," "beside," and "in back of"?
A)18 months
B)24 months
C)3 years
D)4 years
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Q1) A nurse planning care for a school-age child should take into account that which thought process is seen at this age?
A)Animism
B)Magical thinking
C)Ability to conserve
D)Thoughts are all-powerful
Q2) When teaching injury prevention during the school-age years,the nurse should include:
A)Teaching the need to fear strangers.
B)Teaching basic rules of water safety.
C)Avoiding letting children cook in microwave ovens.
D)Cautioning children against engaging in competitive sports.
Q3) The father of 12-year-old Ryan tells the nurse that he is concerned about his son getting "fat." Ryan's body mass index for age is at the 60th percentile.The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A)Reassure the father that Ryan is not "fat."
B)Reassure the father that Ryan is just a growing child.
C)Suggest a low-calorie, low-fat diet.
D)Explain that this is typical of the growth pattern of boys at this age.
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Q1) Which is the most commonly used method in completed suicides?
A)Firearms
B)Drug overdose
C)Self-inflected laceration
D)Carbon monoxide poisoning
Q2) The school nurse tells adolescents in the clinic that confidentiality and privacy will be maintained unless a life-threatening situation arises.This practice is:
A)Not appropriate in a school setting.
B)Never appropriate because adolescents are minors.
C)Important in establishing trusting relationships.
D)Suggestive that the nurse is meeting his or her own needs.
Q3) Which statement is most descriptive of bulimia during adolescence?
A)Strong sense of control over eating behavior
B)Feelings of elation after the binge-purge cycle
C)Profound lack of awareness that the eating pattern is abnormal
D)Weight that can be normal, slightly above normal, or below normal
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Q1) Kelly,age 8 years,will soon be able to return to school after an injury that resulted in several severe,chronic disabilities.What is the most appropriate action by the school nurse?
A)Recommending that Kelly's parents attend school at first to prevent teasing
B)Preparing Kelly's classmates and teachers for changes they can expect
C)Referring Kelly to a school where the children have chronic disabilities similar to hers
D)Discussing with Kelly and her parents the fact that her classmates will not accept her as they did before
Q2) Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote normalization in a school-age child with a chronic illness?
A)Give child as much control as possible.
B)Ask child's peer to make child feel normal.
C)Convince child that nothing is wrong with him or her.
D)Explain to parents that family rules for the child do not need to be the same as for healthy siblings.
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Q1) An appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with a cognitive dysfunction who has a limited ability to anticipate danger is:
A)Impaired Social Interaction.
B)Deficient Knowledge.
C)Risk for Injury.
D)Ineffective Coping.
Q2) The major consideration when selecting toys for a child who is cognitively impaired is:
A)Safety.
B)Age appropriateness.
C)Ability to provide exercise.
D)Ability to teach useful skills.
Q3) An adolescent gets hit in the eye during a fight.The school nurse,using a flashlight,notes the presence of gross hyphema (hemorrhage into anterior chamber).The nurse should:
A)Apply a Fox shield.
B)Instruct the adolescent to apply ice for 24 hours.
C)Have adolescent rest with eye closed and ice applied.
D)Notify parents that adolescent needs to see an ophthalmologist.
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Q1) Amy,age 6 years,needs to be hospitalized again because of a chronic illness.The clinic nurse overhears her school-age siblings tell her,"We are sick of Mom always sitting with you in the hospital and playing with you.It isn't fair that you get everything and we have to stay with the neighbors." The nurse's best assessment of this situation is that:
A)The siblings are immature and probably spoiled.
B)Jealousy and resentment are common reactions to the illness or hospitalization of a sibling.
C)The family has ineffective coping mechanisms to deal with chronic illness.
D)The siblings need to better understand their sister's illness and needs.
Q2) Ryan has just been unexpectedly admitted to the intensive care unit after abdominal surgery.The nursing staff has completed the admission process,and Ryan's condition is beginning to stabilize.When speaking with the parents,the nurses should expect which stressors to be evident (select all that apply)?
A)Unfamiliar environment
B)Usual day-night routine
C)Strange smells
D)Provision of privacy
E)Inadequate knowledge of condition and routine
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Q1) A child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN; hyperalimentation).At the end of 8 hours,the nurse observes the solution and notes that 200 mL/8 hr is being infused rather than the ordered amount of 300 mL/8 hr.The nurse should adjust the rate so that how much will infuse during the next 8 hours?
A)200 mL
B)300 mL
C)350 mL
D)400 mL
Q2) Step three
A)Lubricate the nasogastric tube with water-soluble lubricant.
B)Tape the nasogastric tube securely to the child's face.
C)Check the placement of the tube by aspirating stomach contents.
D)Place the child in the supine position with head slightly hyperflexed.
E)Insert the nasogastric tube through the nares.
F)Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the midpoint between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.
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Q1) A parent whose two school-age children have asthma asks the nurse in what sports,if any,they can participate.The nurse should recommend:
A)Soccer.
B)Running.
C)Swimming.
D)Basketball.
Q2) Which consideration is the most important in managing tuberculosis (TB)in children?
A)Skin testing annually
B)Pharmacotherapy
C)Adequate nutrition
D)Adequate hydration
Q3) Which statement best describes why children have fewer respiratory tract infections as they grow older?
A)The amount of lymphoid tissue decreases.
B)Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity.
C)Viral organisms are less prevalent in the population.
D)Secondary infections rarely occur after viral illnesses.
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Q1) Which intervention should be included in the nurse's plan of care for a 7-year-old child with encopresis who has cleared the initial impaction?
A)Have the child sit on the toilet for 30 minutes when he gets up in the morning and at bedtime.
B)Increase sugar in the child's diet to promote bowel elimination.
C)Use a Fleet enema daily.
D)Give the child a choice of beverage to mix with a laxative.
Q2) What is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process that may involve any part of the gastrointestinal (GI)tract from mouth to anus?
A)Crohn's disease
B)Ulcerative colitis
C)Meckel's diverticulum
D)Irritable bowel syndrome
Q3) The viral pathogen that frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children is:
A)Giardia organisms.
B)Shigella organisms.
C)Rotavirus.
D)Salmonella organisms.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing an adolescent for discharge after a cardiac catheterization.Which statement by the adolescent would indicate a need for further teaching?
A)"I should avoid tub baths but may shower."
B)"I have to stay on strict bed rest for 3 days."
C)"I should remove the pressure dressing the day after the procedure."
D)"I may attend school but should avoid exercise for several days."
Q2) Which clinical changes occur as a result of septic shock?
A)Hypothermia
B)Increased cardiac output
C)Vasoconstriction
D)Angioneurotic edema
Q3) The most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis is:
A)Staphylococcus albus.
B)Streptococcus hemolyticus.
C)Staphylococcus albicans.
D)Streptococcus viridans.
Q4) Which is the acceptable mg/dl level,or below this level,low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol level for a child from a family with heart disease? _____ Record your answer as a whole number.
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Q1) Several blood tests are ordered for a preschool child with severe anemia.She is crying and upset because she remembers the venipuncture done at the clinic 2 days ago.The nurse should explain that:
A)Venipuncture discomfort is very brief.
B)Only one venipuncture will be needed.
C)Topical application of local anesthetic can eliminate venipuncture pain.
D)Most blood tests on children require only a finger puncture because a small amount of blood is needed.
Q2) A school-age child with leukemia experienced severe nausea and vomiting when receiving chemotherapy for the first time.The most appropriate nursing action to prevent or minimize these reactions with subsequent treatments is to:
A)Encourage drinking large amounts of favorite fluids.
B)Encourage child to take nothing by mouth (remain NPO) until nausea and vomiting subside.
C)Administer an antiemetic before chemotherapy begins.
D)Administer an antiemetic as soon as child has nausea.
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Q1) A school-age child has been admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of nephrotic syndrome.Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess (Select all that apply)?
A)Weight loss
B)Facial edema
C)Cloudy, smoky brown-colored urine
D)Fatigue
E)Frothy-appearing urine
Q2) A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis and oliguria.Which dietary menu items should be allowed for this child (Select all that apply)?
A)Apples
B)Bananas
C)Cheese
D)Carrot sticks
E)Strawberries
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Q1) Fifth priority
A)Take vital signs.
B)Ease child to the floor.
C)Allow child to rest.
D)Turn child to the side.
E)Integrate child back into the school environment.
Q2) The nurse should recommend medical attention if a child with a slight head injury experiences:
A)Sleepiness.
B)Vomiting, even once.
C)Headache, even if slight.
D)Confusion or abnormal behavior.
Q3) Which type of fracture describes traumatic separation of cranial sutures?
A)Basilar
B)Compound
C)Diastatic
D)Depressed
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Q1) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent.Which clinical manifestation may be present?
A)Moist skin
B)Weight gain
C)Fluid overload
D)Poor wound healing
Q2) Glucocorticoids,mineralocorticoids,and sex steroids are secreted by the:
A)Thyroid gland.
B)Parathyroid glands.
C)Adrenal cortex.
D)Anterior pituitary.
Q3) The nurse is discussing various sites used for insulin injections with a child and her family.Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption?
A)Arm
B)Leg
C)Buttock
D)Abdomen
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Q1) Ringworm,frequently found in schoolchildren,is caused by:
A)Virus.
B)Fungus.
C)Allergic reaction.
D)Bacterial infection.
Q2) Which physiologic change causes the edema formation that occurs with burns?
A)Vasoconstriction
B)Decreased capillary permeability
C)Increased capillary permeability
D)Decreased hydrostatic pressure within capillaries
Q3) Cellulitis is often caused by:
A)Herpes zoster.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Human papillomavirus.
D)Streptococcus or Staphylococcus organisms.
Q4) An effective strategy to reduce the stress of burn dressing procedures is to:
A)Give the child as many choices as possible.
B)Reassure the child that dressing changes are not painful.
C)Explain to the child why analgesics cannot be used.
D)Encourage the child to master stress with controlled passivity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting discharge teaching for parents of an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI).Further teaching is indicated if the parents make which statement?
A)"We will be very careful handling the baby."
B)"We will lift the baby by the buttocks when diapering."
C)"We're glad there is a cure for this disorder."
D)"We will schedule follow-up appointments as instructed."
Q2) The primary method of treating osteomyelitis is:
A)Joint replacement.
B)Bracing and casting.
C)Intravenous antibiotic therapy.
D)Long-term corticosteroid therapy.
Q3) The nurse is preparing an adolescent with scoliosis for a Luque-rod segmental spinal instrumentation procedure.Which consideration should the nurse include?
A)Nasogastric intubation and urinary catheter may be required.
B)Ambulation will not be allowed for up to 3 months.
C)Surgery eliminates the need for casting and bracing.
D)Discomfort can be controlled with nonpharmacologic methods.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a newborn with myelomeningocele to the neonatal intensive care nursery.Which describes this newborn's defect?
A)Fissure in the spinal column that leaves the meninges and the spinal cord exposed
B)Herniation of the brain and meninges through a defect in the skull
C)Hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst of meninges with spinal fluid but no neural elements
D)Visible defect with an external saclike protrusion containing meninges, spinal fluid, and nerves
Q2) A young boy has just been diagnosed with pseudohypertrophic (Duchenne's)muscular dystrophy.The management plan should include:
A)Recommending genetic counseling.
B)Explaining that the disease is easily treated.
C)Suggesting ways to limit the use of muscles.
D)Assisting the family in finding a nursing facility to provide his care.
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