Obstetric Nursing Exam
Answer Key
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing is a specialized course that focuses on the holistic care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. The course covers prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, and postnatal care, emphasizing both normal and high-risk situations. Students learn about fetal development, maternal health, common complications, and evidence-based nursing interventions. The curriculum integrates theoretical knowledge with hands-on clinical practice, preparing students to support childbearing women, provide education, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to promote the health and well-being of mothers and newborns.
Recommended Textbook Maternity and Womens Health Care 10th Edition by Kathryn Rhodes Alden
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38 Chapters
817 Verified Questions
817 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health
Nursing
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to ensure client safety,the practicing nurse must have knowledge of The Joint Commission's current "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations.Which term is acceptable for use regarding medication administration?
A)q.o.d.or Q.O.D
B)MSO4 or MgSO4
C)International Unit
D)Lack of a leading zero
Answer: C
Q2) The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called:
A)The standard of care
B)Risk management
C)A sentinel event
D)Failure to rescue
Answer: A
Q3) Researchers have found that most client education materials used are written at too high a reading level for the average adult.Is this true or false?
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Community Care: the Family and Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a limitation of a home postpartum visit?
A)The nurse's ability to teach is limited by many distractions.
B)Identified problems cannot be resolved in the home setting.
C)Necessary items for infant care are not available.
D)Home visits to different families may require the nurse to travel a great distance.
Answer: D
Q2) Healthy People 2010 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators.Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum.Therefore,it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in:
A)The reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care
B)Low birth weight and preterm birth
C)Elimination of health disparities based on race
D)Infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Clinical Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Human Genome Project,which began in 1990:
A)Expected to complete a map of the entire human genome by 2010
B)Found that all human beings are 99.9% identical at the DNA level
C)Has not yet been able to translate the accumulating raw research into anything medically practical
D)Put its research relevant to nursing in a document published by the International Society of Nurses in Genetics (ISONG)
Answer: B
Q2) In practical terms regarding genetic health care,nurses should be aware that:
A)Genetic disorders affect equally people of all socioeconomic backgrounds,races,and ethnic groups
B)Genetic health care is more concerned with populations than individuals
C)The most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling
D)Taking genetic histories is the province of large universities and medical centers
Answer: C
Q3) The karyotype designated as female is ___________________.
Answer: 46 XX
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Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a girl progresses through development,she may be at risk for a number of age-related conditions.While preparing a 21-year-old client for her first adult physical examination and Pap test,the nurse is aware of excessive shyness.The young woman states that she will not remove her bra because,"There is something wrong with my breasts;one is way bigger." What is the best response by the nurse in this situation?
A)"Please reschedule your appointment until you are more prepared."
B)"It is okay;the provider will not do a breast examination."
C)"I will explain normal growth and breast development to you."
D)"That is unfortunate;this must be very stressful for you."
Q2) The stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)is part of the:
A)Menstrual cycle
B)Endometrial cycle
C)Ovarian cycle
D)Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle
Q3) In order to effectively screen a client at risk for an eating disorder,the nurse should use the ________________ questionnaire.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to violence against women,intimate partner violence (IPV)nurses should be aware that:
A)Relationship violence usually consists of a single episode that the couple can put behind them
B)Violence often declines or ends with pregnancy
C)Economic coercion is considered part of IPV
D)Battered women generally are poorly educated and come from a deprived social background
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis would be most applicable for battered women? Choose all that apply.
A)Loss of trust
B)Ineffective family coping
C)Situational low self-esteem
D)Risk for self-directed violence
E)Enhanced communication
Q3) Nurses who are part of a collaborative team that cares for victims of sexual assault and who have special education and training in forensic nursing are called
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Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications can be taken by postmenopausal women to treat and/or prevent osteoporosis? Choose all that apply.
A)Calcium
B)Evista
C)Fosamax
D)Actonel
E)Calcitonin
Q2) Nafarelin (Synarel)is used to treat mild to severe endometriosis.The nurse should tell the woman taking this medication that the drug:
A)Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH),thereby stimulating ovarian activity
B)Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day
C)Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue bid
D)Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness
Q3) The absence or cessation of menstrual flow is known as:
A)Amenorrhea
B)Dysmenorrhea
C)Menorrhagia
D)Metrorrhagia
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rates of syphilis in the United States among women,especially African-Americans,have continued to rise since 2004.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which sexually transmitted infection is not bacterial and thus not treatable with antibiotics?
A)Chlamydia
B)Gonorrhea
C)Genital herpes
D)Syphilis
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)recommends that human papillomavirus (HPV)be treated with client-applied:
A)Miconazole ointment
B)Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
C)Penicillin given intramuscularly for two doses
D)Metronidazole by mouth
Q4) TORCH stands for:
T
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Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________________ _______________ _________________ (LAM)can be a highly effective,temporary method of birth control.
Q2) While instructing a couple regarding birth control,the nurse should be aware that the method called natural family planning:
A)Is the same as coitus interruptus,or "pulling out"
B)Uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon
C)Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church
D)Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases
Q3) A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control.During the assessment process,it is most important that the nurse:
A)Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months
B)Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year
C)Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes
D)Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control
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Chapter 9: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally a fertile couple has approximately a 50% chance of conception each ovulatory cycle.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ___________________ __________ is one method used to evaluate the adequacy of coital technique,cervical mucous,sperm quality and penetration.
Q3) In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET)is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or with unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts.A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview.The husband asks the nurse to explain what the procedure entails.The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A)"IVF is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries,fertilizing them in the lab with your sperm,and transferring the embryo to her uterus."
B)"A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus."
C)"Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife."
D)"Don't worry about the technical stuff;that's what we are here for."
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Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's oncologist has just finished explaining the diagnostic workup results to her,and she still has questions.The woman states,"The doctor says I have a slow-growing cancer.Very few cells are dividing.How does she know this?" What is the name of the test that gave the physician this information?
A)Tumor ploidy
B)S-phase index
C)Nuclear grade
D)Estrogen receptor assay
Q2) A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable,immobile,and nontender.This is most likely:
A)Fibroadenoma
B)Lipoma
C)Intraductal papilloma
D)Mammary duct ectasia
Q3) Being overweight or obese is linked to a lower risk of breast cancer,especially for postmenopausal women.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common reproductive tract cancer associated with pregnancy?
A)Cervical cancer
B)Uterine cancer
C)Ovarian cancer
D)Fallopian tube cancer
Q2) During internal radiation therapy for cervical cancer,the nurse should:
A)Wear gloves when assessing the cervical intracavity implant
B)Instruct the client to urinate in the lead-lined bedpan or "hat" every 2 hours
C)Prepare the client for an enema before insertion
D)Limit staff or visitor exposure to 30 minutes or less per 8 hours
Q3) Tumors that are on pedicles (stalks)and present in either the endometrium or cervix are more commonly known as ________________ ______________.
Q4) With regard to planning treatment for a pregnant woman with breast cancer,which statement about timing or type of treatment is correct?
A)The fetus is most at risk during the first trimester.
B)The fetus is most at risk during the second trimester.
C)The fetus is most at risk during the third trimester.
D)Surgery is more risky than chemotherapy in the first trimester.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman asks the nurse,"What protects my baby's umbilical cord from being squashed while the baby's inside of me?" The nurse's best response is:
A)"Your baby's umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly,which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby."
B)"Your baby's umbilical floats around in blood anyway."
C)"You don't need to be worrying about things like that."
D)"The umbilical cord is a group of blood vessels that are very well protected by the placenta."
Q2) The fetal concentration of glucose is lower than the glucose level in the maternal blood because of its rapid metabolism by the fetus.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ability of the fetus to survive outside the uterus is called
Q4) ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins.These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman's obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time,and all her children from previous pregnancies are living.One was born at 39 weeks of gestation,twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation,and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation.What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?
A)3-1-1-1-3
B)4-1-2-0-4
C)3-0-3-0-3
D)4-2-1-0-3
Q2) ____________________ is when the fetus begins to descend and drop into the pelvis.
Q3) Probable signs of pregnancy are:
A)Determined by ultrasound
B)Observed by the health care provider
C)Reported by the client
D)Diagnostic tests
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Chapter 14: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman's diet consists almost entirely of whole grain breads and cereals,fruits,and vegetables.The nurse is most concerned about this woman's intake of:
A)Calcium
B)Protein
C)Vitamin B12
D)Folic acid
Q2) Which nutrient's recommended dietary allowance (RDA)is higher during lactation than during pregnancy?
A)Energy (kcal)
B)Iron
C)Vitamin A
D)Folic acid
Q3) While taking a diet history the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips,cornstarch,and baking soda.This represents a nutritional problem known as:
A)Preeclampsia
B)Pyrosis
C)Pica
D)Purging
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the initial visit with a client who is beginning prenatal care,nurses should be aware that:
A)The first interview is a relaxed,get-acquainted affair in which nurses gather some general impressions
B)If nurses observe handicapping conditions,they should be sensitive and not inquire about them because the client will do that in her own time
C)Nurses should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems,such as depression or lack of family support
D)Because of legal complications,nurses should not ask about illegal drug use;that is left to physicians
Q2) An obese woman who has become pregnant is at the same risk for delivering an infant with congenital anomalies as a woman who is not obese.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a woman in labor,the nurse is aware that the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another is called fetal:
A)Lie
B)Presentation
C)Attitude
D)Position
Q2) To adequately care for a laboring woman,the nurse should know which stage of labor varies the most in length?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
Q3) The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called:
A)Lightening
B)Molding
C)Ferguson reflex
D)Valsalva maneuver
Q4) Which pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth? __________________
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Chapter 17: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conscious relaxation is associated with which method of childbirth preparation?
A)Grantly Dick-Read method
B)Lamaze method
C)Bradley method
D)Psychoprophylactic method
Q2) Nursing care measures are commonly offered to women in labor.Which nursing measure reflects application of the gate-control theory?
A)Massage the woman's back.
B)Change the woman's position.
C)Give the prescribed medication.
D)Encourage the woman to rest between contractions.
Q3) A laboring woman received meperidine (Demerol)IV 90 minutes before she gave birth.Which medication should be available to reduce the postnatal effects of meperidine on the neonate?
A)Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
B)Promethazine (Phenergan)
C)Naloxone (Narcan)
D)Nalbuphine (Nubain)
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Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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Q1) Which characteristic correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause?
A)Early deceleration-umbilical cord compression
B)Late deceleration-uteroplacental insufficiency
C)Variable deceleration-head compression
D)Prolonged deceleration-cause unknown
Q2) A nurse might be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp:
A)As part of fetal scalp blood sampling
B)In response to tocolysis
C)In preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring
D)To elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR)
Q3) External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.
Q4) The nurse caring for a woman in labor understands that prolonged decelerations:
A)Are a continuing pattern of benign decelerations that do not require intervention
B)Constitute a baseline change when they last longer than 5 minutes
C)Are caused by a disruption to the fetal O2 supply
D)Require the usual fetal monitoring by the nurse
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning the third stage of labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)The placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus
B)An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications
C)It is important that the dark,roughened maternal surface of the placenta appears before the shiny fetal surface
D)The major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate
Q2) With regard to a woman's intake and output during labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)The tradition of restricting the laboring woman to clear liquids and ice chips is being challenged because regional anesthesia is used more often than general anesthesia
B)IV fluids usually are necessary to ensure that the laboring woman stays hydrated
C)Routine use of an enema empties the rectum and is very helpful for producing a clean,clear delivery
D)When a nulliparous woman experiences the urge to defecate,it often means birth will follow quickly
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21
Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) To provide optimum care for the postpartum woman,the nurse understands that the most common causes of subinvolution are:
A)Postpartum hemorrhage and infection
B)Multiple gestation and postpartum hemorrhage
C)Uterine tetany and overproduction of oxytocin
D)Retained placental fragments and infection
Q2) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A)A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B)A woman who is a gravida 4,para 4-0-0-4
C)A woman who is bottle feeding her infant
D)A woman whose infant weighed 5 lb,3 oz
Q3) Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant.Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis.One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early postpartum period is:
A)Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection
B)Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth
C)Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy
D)Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many new mothers experience some type of nipple pain during the first weeks of initiating breastfeeding.Should this pain be severe or persistent,it may discourage or inhibit breastfeeding altogether.The nurse should be aware of a variety of factors that may contribute to nipple pain.These include:
A)Improper feeding position
B)Large-for-gestational age infant
C)Fair skin
D)Progesterone deficiency
E)Flat or retracted nipples
Q2) Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally,nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible.If all else fails,the last thing the nurse might try is:
A)Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman's perineum
B)Placing oil of peppermint in a bedpan under the woman
C)Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics
D)Inserting a sterile catheter
Q3) The _________________________ test is used to detect the amount of fetal blood in the maternal circulation.
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Q1) With regard to parents' early and extended contact with their infant and the relationships built,nurses should be aware that:
A)Immediate contact is essential for the parent-child relationship
B)Skin-to-skin contact is preferable to contact with the body totally wrapped in a blanket
C)Extended contact is especially important for adolescents and low-income women because they are at risk for parenting inadequacies
D)Mothers need to take precedence over their partners and other family matters
Q2) With regard to the adaptation of other family members (mainly siblings and grandparents)to the newborn,nurses should be aware that:
A)Sibling rivalry cannot be dismissed as overblown psychobabble;negative feelings and behaviors can take a long time to blow over
B)Participation in preparation classes helps both siblings and grandparents
C)In the United States,paternal and maternal grandparents consider themselves of equal importance and status
D)Since 1990,the number of grandparents providing permanent care to their grandchildren has been declining
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primiparous woman is watching her newborn sleep.She wants him to wake up and respond to her.The mother asks the nurse how much he will sleep every day.The nurse's best response to her is:
A)"He will only wake up to be fed,and you should not bother him between feedings."
B)"The newborn sleeps about 17 hours a day,with periods of wakefulness gradually increasing."
C)"He will probably follow your same sleep and wake patterns,and you can expect him to be awake soon."
D)"He is being stubborn by not waking up when you want him to.You should try to keep him awake during the daytime so that he will sleep through the night."
Q2) One reason the brain is vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies and trauma in early infancy is the:
A)Incompletely developed neuromuscular system
B)Primitive reflex system
C)Presence of various sleep-wake states
D)Cerebellum growth spurt
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Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Q1) A mother is changing the diaper of her newborn son.She notices that his scrotum appears large and swollen.She asks the nurse,"What is that?" The best response from the nurse is:
A)"That is a hydrocele,which is a common finding in newborn males.The swelling usually decreases without intervention."
B)"I don't know,but I'm sure it is nothing."
C)"Your baby might have testicular cancer."
D)"Your baby's urine is backing up into his scrotum."
Q2) The nurse is using the New Ballard Scale to determine the gestational age of a newborn.Which assessment finding is consistent with a gestational age of 40 weeks?
A)Flexed posture
B)Abundant lanugo
C)Smooth,pink skin with visible veins
D)Faint red marks on the soles of the feet
Q3) Sucking is an infant's chief pleasure.Sucking that is not satisfied by either breastfeeding or a bottle is referred to as ____________________ sucking.
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Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of appropriate techniques to wake a sleepy infant for breastfeeding include (choose all that apply):
A)Unwrap the infant
B)Change the diaper
C)Talk to the infant
D)Slap the infant's hands and feet
E)Apply a cold towel to the infant's abdomen
Q2) According to the recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)on infant nutrition:
A)Infants should be given only human milk for the first 6 months of life
B)Infants fed on formula should be started on solid food sooner than breastfed infants
C)If infants are weaned from breast milk before 12 months,they should receive cow's milk,not formula
D)After 6 months,mothers should shift from breast milk to cow's milk
Q3) A newborn weight loss of _____% in a breastfeeding infant during the first 3 days of life should be investigated.Most often the excessive weight loss is associated with poor breastfeeding techniques.
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Chapter 26: Assessment for Risk Factors in Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The timing of childbirth for women at risk for uteroplacental insufficiency (UPI)is often determined by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)is associated with what pregnancy-related risk factors? Choose all that apply.
A)Poor nutrition
B)Maternal collagen disease
C)Gestational hypertension
D)Premature rupture of membranes
E)Smoking
Q3) Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP):
A)Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being
B)Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy
C)Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index (AFI)
D)Involves an invasive form of ultrasonic examination
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours.On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature 37.3° C,pulse rate 88 beats/min,respiratory rate 10 breaths/min,blood pressure (BP)148/90 mm Hg,absent deep tendon reflexes,and no ankle clonus.The client complains,"I'm so thirsty and warm." The nurse:
A)Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level
B)Administers oxygen
C)Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion
D)Prepares to administer hydralazine
Q2) What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
A)Risk for injury to mother and fetus related to central nervous system (CNS)irritability
B)Risk for eclampsia
C)Risk for deficient fluid volume related to increased sodium retention secondary to administration of magnesium sulfate
D)Risk for increased cardiac output related to the use of antihypertensive drugs
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is
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29
Chapter 28: Antepartum Hemorrhagic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bleeding disorders in late pregnancy include all of these except:
A)Placenta previa
B)Abruptio placentae
C)Spontaneous abortion
D)Cord insertion
Q2) The management of the pregnant client who has experienced a pregnancy loss depends on the type of miscarriage and her signs and symptoms.While planning care for a client who desires outpatient management after a first-trimester loss,the nurse expects the plan of care to include:
A)Dilation and curettage (D&C)
B)Dilation and evacuation (D&E)
C)Misoprostol
D)Ergot products
Q3) Approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage.Possible causes of early miscarriage include all except:
A)Chromosomal abnormalities
B)Infections
C)Endocrine imbalance
D)Systemic disorders
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders in Pregnancy
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Q1) Metabolic changes throughout pregnancy that affect glucose and insulin in the mother and the fetus are complicated but important to understand.Nurses should know that:
A)Insulin crosses the placenta to the fetus only in the first trimester,after which the fetus secretes its own
B)Women with insulin-dependent diabetes are prone to hyperglycemia during the first trimester because they are consuming more sugar
C)During the second and third trimesters,pregnancy exerts a diabetogenic effect that ensures an abundant supply of glucose for the fetus
D)Maternal insulin requirements steadily decline during pregnancy
Q2) During a prenatal visit a nurse is explaining dietary management to a woman with pregestational diabetes.The nurse evaluates that teaching has been effective when the woman states:
A)"I will need to eat 600 more calories per day because I am pregnant."
B)"I can continue with the same diet as before pregnancy as long as it is well balanced."
C)"Diet and insulin needs change during pregnancy."
D)"I will plan my diet based on results of urine glucose testing."
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Problems in Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common neurologic disorder accompanying pregnancy is:
A)Eclampsia
B)Bell's palsy
C)Epilepsy
D)Multiple sclerosis
Q2) Urinary tract infections (UTIs)are the most common medical complications of pregnancy.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Congenital anomalies can occur with the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs),including (choose all that apply):
A)Cleft lip
B)Congenital heart disease
C)Neural tube defects
D)Gastroschisis
E)Diaphragmatic hernia
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Chapter 31: Obstetric Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a critically ill pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation with a pulmonary artery catheter in place obtains the following hemodynamic profile: CVP,3 mm Hg;PAP,40/18 mm Hg;PCWP,18 mm Hg;CO,7 L/min.The nurse interprets the hemodynamic profile as correlating with:
A)High left preload
B)High right preload
C)Low left preload
D)Normal right preload
Q2) A pregnant woman at term is transported to the emergency department (ED)after a severe vehicular accident.The obstetric nurse responds and rushes to the ED with a fetal monitor.Cardiopulmonary arrest occurs as the obstetric nurse arrives.The first thing for the ED and obstetric team to do is to:
A)Obtain IV access and start aggressive fluid resuscitation
B)Quickly apply the fetal monitor to determine whether the fetus is alive
C)Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
D)Transfer the woman to the operating room for an emergency cesarean delivery in case the fetus is still alive
Q3) Pregnancy is a ______________________ state,as preparation is made for the blood loss that accompanies childbirth.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse in Pregnancy
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Q1) Possible alternative and complementary therapies for postpartum depression (PPD)for breastfeeding mothers include (choose all that apply):
A)Acupressure
B)Aromatherapy
C)St.John's wort
D)Wine consumption
E)Yoga
Q2) To provide adequate postpartum care,the nurse should be aware that postpartum depression (PPD)without psychotic features:
A)Is the "baby blues" plus the woman has a visit with a counselor or psychologist
B)Is more common among older Caucasian women because they have higher expectations
C)Is distinguished by pervasive sadness along with mood swings
D)Will disappear on its own without outside help
Q3) Of all pregnant women being treated for depression,approximately one third have a first occurrence during pregnancy.All pregnant and postpartum women should be screened for perinatal mood disorders by using the _________________ Postnatal Depression Scale.
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Chapter 33: Labor and Birth Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions.What clinical cues alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation? Choose all that apply.
A)Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency
B)Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency
C)Uterine tone <20 mm Hg
D)Uterine tone >20 mm Hg
E)Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR)and pattern
Q2) A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1 1/2 to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful.Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours.The woman is crying and wants an epidural.What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
A)She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
B)She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
C)She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
D)She is experiencing pelvic dystocia.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medications used to manage postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)include (choose all that apply):
A)Oxytocin
B)Methergine
C)Terbutaline
D)Hemabate
E)Magnesium sulfate
Q2) A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg.On physical examination,the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged,hardened area.The nurse should suspect ______ and should confirm the diagnosis by ________.
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC);asking for laboratory tests
B)von Willebrand disease (vWD);noting whether bleeding times have been extended
C)Thrombophlebitis;using real-time and color Doppler ultrasound
D)Thrombocytopenic purpura;drawing blood for laboratory analysis
Q3) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to central nervous system injuries to the infant during labor and birth,nurses should be aware that:
A)Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH)as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the preterm,low-birth-weight infant
B)Subarachnoid hemorrhage (the most common form of ICH)occurs in term infants as a result of hypoxia
C)In many infants,signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and diagnosed only through laboratory tests
D)Spinal cord injuries almost always result from forceps-assisted deliveries
Q2) A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery.After stabilization,the infant is weighed,and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lb,6 oz).The nurse's most appropriate action is to:
A)Leave the infant in the room with the mother
B)Take the infant immediately to the nursery
C)Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age
D)Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital
Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis characteristically exhibits: A)Edema
B)Immature red blood cells
C)Enlargement of the heart
D)Ascites
Q2) ____________________ is a condition in which the ventricles of the brain are enlarged as a result of an imbalance between the production and absorption of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).An infant with this condition initially has a bulging anterior fontanel and a head circumference that increases at an abnormal rate,resulting from the increase in CSF pressure.
Q3) Which infant is more likely to have Rh incompatibility?
A)Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor
B)Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative
C)Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor
D)Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature infant never seems to sleep longer than an hour at a time.Each time a light is turned on,an incubator closes,or people talk near her crib,she wakes up and cries inconsolably until held.The correct nursing diagnosis is ineffective coping,related to:
A)Severe immaturity
B)Environmental stress
C)Physiologic distress
D)Behavioral responses
Q2) A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates.A nonstress test (NST)in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing.On artificial rupture of membranes,thick meconium-stained fluid was noted.The nurse caring for the infant after birth anticipates:
A)Meconium aspiration,hypoglycemia,and dry,cracked skin
B)Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin,lethargy,and respiratory distress syndrome
C)Golden yellow to green-stained skin and nails,absence of scalp hair,and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat
D)Hyperglycemia,hyperthermia,and an alert,wide-eyed appearance
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Chapter 38: Perinatal Loss and Grief
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is appropriate for a nurse to say to bereaved parents?
A)"This happened for the best."
B)"God had a purpose for him."
C)"I know how you feel."
D)"What can I do for you?"
Q2) A nurse concludes that grieving parents have progressed to the reorganization/recovery phase during a follow-up visit a year later if:
A)They say they feel no pain
B)They are discussing sex and a future pregnancy,even if they have not sorted out their feelings yet
C)They have abandoned those moments of bittersweet grief
D)Their questions have progressed from "why?" to "why us?"
Q3) Society tends to minimize perinatal loss because of the prevailing belief that there are no barriers to getting pregnant and the expectation that once a woman is pregnant,a healthy,live infant will result.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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