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Course Introduction
Obstetric and Pediatric Nursing is designed to equip students with essential knowledge and skills related to the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the comprehensive nursing care of infants, children, and adolescents. The course covers normal and complicated pregnancies, maternal and fetal assessments, labor and delivery management, and newborn care. In the pediatric component, it explores growth and development, common childhood illnesses, and strategies for promoting health and managing acute and chronic conditions in pediatric populations. Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, cultural sensitivity, patient education, and collaborative practice within the multidisciplinary healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook Study Guide for Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing 5th Edition by Gloria Leifer
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33 Chapters
845 Verified Questions
845 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student has reviewed a hospitalized child's chart, interviewed her mother, and performed a physical assessment. The next step in developing a nursing care plan for this child is to:
A) Identify measurable outcomes with a time line
B) Identify specific nursing implementations for the child
C) Determine appropriate nursing diagnoses
D) State nursing actions related to the child's medical diagnosis
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse explains that the individual who advocated the establishment of the Children's Bureau was:
A) Lillian Wald
B) Florence Nightingale
C) Florence Kelly
D) Clara Barton
Answer: A
Q3) The first White House Conference on Children and Youth was called by ______________________________.
Answer: Theodore Roosevelt
Explanation: Theodore Roosevelt called the first White House Conference in 1909.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother asks the nurse, "When will I know my child has entered puberty?" Based on an understanding of changes associated with puberty, the nurse states:
A) "When your daughter has her first period."
B) "You'll recognize puberty by the mood swings."
C) "The child becomes interested in the opposite sex."
D) "Secondary sex characteristics, such as pubic hair, appear."
Answer: D
Q2) When planning to teach couples about the physiology of the sex act, the nurse would include:
A) Fertilization of an ovum requires penetration by several sperm.
B) An ovum must be fertilized within 24 hours of ovulation.
C) It takes 4 to 5 days for sperm to reach the fallopian tubes.
D) Sperm live for only 24 hours following ejaculation.
Answer: B
Q3) When the nurse reads in the history and physical of a pregnant patient that she has a platypelloid pelvis, the nurse is aware that this pelvis has a narrow __________________ diameter, making a vaginal birth unlikely.
Answer: anterioposterior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total number of chromosomes contained in a mature sperm or ovum is:
A) 22
B) 23
C) 44
D) 46
Answer: B
Q2) A pregnant woman states, "It doesn't matter if I have a boy or a girl." The nurse explains that:
A) The sex chromosome of the fertilized ovum determines the gender of the child.
B) When the sperm and ovum are united, there is a 75% chance the child will be a girl.
C) When the pH of the female reproductive tract is acidic, the child will be a girl.
D) If a sperm carrying a Y chromosome fertilizes an ovum, then a boy is produced.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client who is 28 weeks pregnant shows a 10-pound weight gain from 2 weeks ago. The nurse should initially:
A) Assess food intake
B) Weigh client again
C) Take the blood pressure
D) Notify the physician
Q2) The patient confesses to eating crushed ice 10 or 12 times daily. The nurse assesses this behavior as ____________________.
Q3) When the nurse tells a pregnant woman that she needs 1,200 mg of calcium daily during pregnancy, the woman responds, "I don't like milk." What dietary adjustments could the nurse recommend?
A) Increase intake of organ meats
B) Eat more green leafy vegetables
C) Choose more fresh fruits, particularly citrus fruits
D) Include molasses and whole-grain breads in the diet
Q4) The nurse reminds the prenatal patient that she should add ________ kcal to her daily intake to nourish the fetus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a pregnant woman for pregnancy-induced hypertension. The first sign of fluid retention suggestive of this complication is:
A) Abdominal enlargement
B) Facial swelling
C) Sudden weight gain
D) Swelling of the feet and ankles
Q2) The patient with gestational hypertension has all the signs below. The nurse immediately reports:
A) Diarrhea
B) Decreased urine output
C) Blurred vision
D) Backache
Q3) The nurse explains that a woman who uses oral hypoglycemic agents to control diabetes mellitus will need to take insulin during pregnancy because:
A) Insulin can cross the placental barrier to the fetus
B) Insulin does not cross the placental barrier to the fetus
C) Oral agents do not cross the placenta
D) Oral agents are not sufficient to meet maternal insulin needs
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Q1) While caring for a laboring woman, the nurse notices a pattern of variable decelerations in fetal heart rate with uterine contractions. The nurse's initial action is:
A) Stop the Pitocin infusion
B) Increase the intravenous flow rate
C) Reposition the woman to her side
D) Start oxygen via nasal cannula
Q2) One hour postdelivery the nurse notes the new mother has saturated three perineal pads. The nurse should:
A) Check the fundus for position and firmness
B) Report to the doctor immediately
C) Change the pads and chart the time
D) Time how long it takes to soak one pad
Q3) The nurse explains that the "four P's" of the birth process are

Q4) After the pregnant woman is admitted to the labor suite, the nurse assesses the position of the baby as ROA; this means that the baby's head is ______
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Q1) An 18-year-old primigravida is 4 cm dilated and her contractions are 5 minutes apart. She received little prenatal care. She had no childbirth preparation. She is crying loudly and shouting, "Please give me something for the pain. I can't take the pain." What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Pain related to uterine contractions
B) Knowledge deficit related to the birth experience
C) Ineffective coping related to inadequate preparation for labor
D) Risk for injury related to lack of prenatal care
Q2) A nurse instructs a woman's labor coach to comfort her by firmly pressing on her lower back. This technique is called:
A) Sacral pressure
B) Distraction
C) Effleurage
D) Conscious relaxation
Q3) The nurse clarified that the amount of pain a person is willing to endure is referred to as _____ ______________.
Q4) The massage technique that stimulates the large-diameter fibers in order to block impulses from the small-diameter fibers is ____________________.
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Q1) A woman 2 weeks past her expected delivery date who is receiving an oxytocin infusion to induce labor begins to have contractions every 90 seconds. The nurse's initial action should be to:
A) Stop the oxytocin infusion
B) Continue the infusion and report the findings to the physician
C) Turn her on her left side and reassess the contractions
D) Administer oxygen by mask
Q2) A pulsating structure is felt during a vaginal examination of a woman in labor. To prevent compression of a prolapsed cord, the nurse would position the woman:
A) On her hands and knees
B) On her left side with a pillow placed between her legs
C) On her back with her head lower than the rest of her body
D) Supine with her legs elevated and bent at the knee
Q3) The nurse explains to a client that a minimum score of ____________________ on the Bishop scale is predictive of successful labor induction.
Q4) Following an amniotomy, the umbilical cord becomes depressed. The nurse prepares the client for an installation of a bolus of warm sterile saline into the uterus, which is called ____________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the physician will order RhoGAM in the event that a/an:
A) Unsensitized Rh-negative mother has an Rh-positive pregnancy.
B) Rh-negative mother becomes sensitized.
C) Sensitized infant has a rising bilirubin level.
D) Unsensitized infant exhibits no outward signs.
Q2) While instructing a new mother on formula preparation, the nurse will include information about formula choices, such as: Select all that apply.
A) Ready-to-feed formula
B) Concentrated liquid formula
C) Powdered formula
D) Cow's milk
E) Canned evaporated milk
Q3) The hormone responsible for milk "let-down" or ejection from the breasts is
Q4) The nurse assessing a newborn recognizes a sign of hypoglycemia, which is:
A) Increased respiratory rate
B) Increased temperature
C) Active muscle tone
D) High-pitched cry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a woman who had a cesarean birth yesterday. Varicose veins are visible on both legs. To prevent thrombus formation the nurse would:
A) Have the woman sit in a chair for meals.
B) Monitor vital signs every 4 hours and report any changes.
C) Tell the woman to remain in bed with her legs elevated.
D) Assist the woman with ambulation for short periods of time.
Q2) After a prolonged labor, a woman vaginally delivered a 10 pound, 3 ounce baby boy. In the immediate postpartum period, the nurse would be alert for the development of:
A) Cervical laceration
B) Hematoma
C) Endometritis
D) Retained placental fragments
Q3) If massage and putting the baby to breast is not effective in controlling a boggy uterus, the nurse explains that the physician may order:
A) Ritodrine
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Pitocin
D) Parlodel
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Sample Questions
Q1) At her 6-week postpartum check-up, a woman states, "I am wondering about birth control. I used oral contraceptives before. I'm breastfeeding now. Can I use the pill again?" The nurse's best response is:
A) "You should know that oral contraceptives increase your milk production."
B) "Oral contraceptives can be taken once lactation is well established."
C) "You don't need to use any form of birth control as long as you are breastfeeding."
D) "Oral contraceptives are contraindicated for the lactating woman."
Q2) The nurse would tell the patient to expect which of the following after she had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted?
A) Menstrual flow will be lighter.
B) Menstrual cramps are eliminated.
C) A string should be felt in the vagina.
D) The device should be changed every 2 years.
Q3) The nurse outlines the process of ova being mixed with sperm and then the resulting embryos being returned to the mother's uterus. This process of infertility treatment is
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Q1) While inspecting a newborn's head, the nurse identifies a swelling of the scalp that does not cross the suture line. The nurse would document this finding as:
A) Molding
B) Caput succedaneum
C) Cephalohematoma
D) Enlarged fontanelle
Q2) The nurse is measuring the vital signs of a full-term newborn. An abnormal finding would be:
A) Axillary temperature of 98° F
B) Apical pulse rate of 178 beats/min
C) Respirations of 35 breaths/min
D) Blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg
Q3) To protect newborns from infection while in the nursery, the nurse plans to:
A) Keep the newborn dressed warmly.
B) Adjust room temperature between 75° F and 80° F.
C) Wash hands before touching each baby.
D) Wear a disposable gown when giving infant care.
Q4) The nurse in the nursery may use CRIES, PIPP, NIPS, or NPASS as a guide to ____________________ assessment.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes symptoms of cold stress in a preterm infant as:
A) Tremors and weak cry
B) Plasma glucose level <40 mg/dl
C) Warm skin with low core temperature
D) Increased respiratory rate and periods of apnea
Q2) Assessment of altered skin integrity in the preterm infant is made difficult because of the immature immune system that cannot produce an ____________________ reaction.
Q3) The nurse's safest action to ensure tube placement when preparing to initiate a gavage feeding is to:
A) Check tube placement by injecting air into the stomach
B) Weigh the infant before the feeding
C) Aspirate stomach contents
D) Check serum glucose level
Q4) The nurse is caring for an infant born at 43 weeks. A physical assessment would reveal:
A) Dry, peeling skin
B) Minimal hair on the head
C) Short, rough nails
D) Abundant lanugo on the body

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Q1) The nurse clarifies to the parents of a child with spina bifida that their child has a portion of the spinal cord in the sac, in addition to the meninges, which makes this defect a ____________________.
Q2) The nurse in the newborn nursery is watchful for neonatal abstinence syndrome in the newborn of a crack-addicted mother, which would be manifested by: Select all that apply.
A) Body tremors
B) Excessive sneezing
C) Hyperirritability
D) Drowsiness
E) Excessive appetite
Q3) The nurse bathing an infant would recognize a sign of developmental hip dysplasia, which is:
A) Hypotonicity of the leg muscles
B) One leg is shorter than the other
C) Broadening and flattening of the buttocks
D) Two skin folds on the back of each thigh
Q4) The nurse demonstrates how to flush the ventriculoperitoneal shunt by the use of the ____________________ that is in place behind the baby's ear.
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Q1) To meet Erikson's developmental task of industry, the nurse caring for a 7-year-old would choose an activity such as:
A) Working a jigsaw puzzle
B) Looking at a comic book
C) Playing a competitive board game
D) Coloring a picture in a coloring book
Q2) The nurse assessing patterns of growth in a child would investigate further if:
A) Previous weight was in the 75th percentile, and present weight is in the 25th percentile.
B) Height is in the 90th percentile, and weight is in the 75th percentile.
C) Last weight was in the 5th percentile, and present weight is in the 10th percentile.
D) Weight is in the 50th percentile, and sibling's weight at the same age was in the 75th percentile.
Q3) The nurse recognizes Piaget's concrete operational thinking when:
A) A 2-year-old says, "It's night time" when his room is darkened.
B) A 4-year-old refers to the hospital as "my house."
C) A 5-year-old coloring a picture of a puppy says, "This is my puppy."
D) A 7-year-old says, "I am sick because I have germs in my chest."
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Q1) The nurse is aware that the 7-month-old can signal feeding readiness by: Select all that apply.
A) Pulling spoon toward mouth
B) Biting at spoon with upper and lower incisors
C) Pointing to food bowl
D) Bouncing up and down with excitement at sight of food
E) Manipulating finger foods
Q2) The nurse explains the second process of self-mobility a baby learns is seen at the age of 9 months, when the baby begins to ____________________.
Q3) The nurse explains that a baby's prehensile development is progressive and logical. Arrange the development in the order from the simplest to the most complex.
A) Hands held open most of the time
B) Grasps with thumb on one side and three fingers on the other
C) Picks up toy with squeeze action
D) Thumb and forefinger hold object
E) Hands held closed most of the time
Q4) The nurse reminds the parents that the first DPT, oral polio, and flu immunizations should be given when the child is ____________________ months old.
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Q1) The best advice the nurse can offer a parent who is concerned because her 2-year-old is very active and does not eat much is:
A) Insist that the child eat one food on the plate.
B) Help the child to wind down with a quiet activity before mealtime.
C) Maintain a consistent eating schedule for the family.
D) Serve the meal with a variety of interesting plates, cups, and utensils.
Q2) The nurse discussing toilet training with parents would identify which of the following as an indicator of readiness? The child is:
A) Willing to sit on the potty for 15 to 20 minutes
B) Dry in the daytime for 4-hour periods
C) Able to communicate that he or she is wet
D) Curious about bathroom activities
Q3) On a home visit, the nurse notes each of the following. The observation that requires teaching intervention to protect the 15-month-old child who lives there is:
A) The fireplace has a screen.
B) The dining room table has a tablecloth on it.
C) There are paintings on the wall.
D) The kitchen floor is clean but not shiny.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse planning a seminar on safety for the preschooler will focus on: Select all that apply.
A) Poison
B) Burns
C) Falls
D) Abduction
E) Car-pedestrian
F) None of the above
Q2) A parent is concerned about her children's reaction should their grandmother die. In planning a response, the nurse is guided by the understanding that:
A) Children are unlikely to notice their grandmother's absence if no one reminds them.
B) Young children often understand that other people die, but do not equate it with themselves.
C) The children's response will depend entirely on whether they have been acquainted with death before this.
D) Children can understand the concept of a higher being much like adults can.
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Q1) When the school-age child becomes frustrated with a school assignment and says," I can't do this!", the parent should:
A) Ask, "What is it that is so difficult?"
B) Allow the child to quit the effort.
C) Call in older siblings to help.
D) Finish the project for him.
Q2) The parents of an 8-year-old tell the nurse the child wakes the household crying out during his frequent nightmares. The nurse's most helpful response is to explain that nightmares are:
A) A normal extension of the child's fear of mutilation
B) An abnormal response to repressed feelings
C) A common result of latent sexuality
D) A side effect of overactivity and stimulation
Q3) The nurse suggests an appropriate toy for a hospitalized 6-year-old boy would be a:
A) Game Boy game
B) Compact disc player
C) Adventure book
D) Jigsaw puzzle
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Q1) The nurse is amused, but understands that as adolescents strive for individuality, the strongest need of any adolescent in society is that of ____________________.
Q2) When planning to answer a 16-year-old girl's questions about menstruation, the nurse must consider cognitive development. According to Piaget, the cognitive aspect that is developed during adolescence is the ability to:
A) View a situation from multiple perspectives
B) Focus more on the past than present situations
C) Exercise concrete reasoning
D) Consider hypothetical situations
Q3) Foods that would be a healthy choice for an adolescent who just finished playing in a strenuous game would be:
A) Cheeseburger and soda
B) Hot fudge sundae
C) Two Egg McMuffins and orange juice
D) Bagel and skim milk
Q4) The nurse knows that an adolescent may find making a career choice difficult because there is less clarity in ____________________ roles.
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Q1) A 2-year-old child has been crying constantly for his mother since he was hospitalized 3 days ago. The nurse understands that this behavior suggests:
A) The toddler feels abandoned by his mother.
B) The child still has not adjusted to his hospitalization.
C) The child is not separated from his mother often.
D) A poor mother-child bond exists.
Q2) An 8-year-old child will be hospitalized for several weeks in skeletal traction to treat a fractured femur. In planning care for the child, the nurse realizes immobilization in this age group can generate feelings of:
A) Loss of control
B) Altered body image
C) Shame and guilt
D) Fear of bodily harm
Q3) Which child would have the most difficulty in coping with separation from parents because of hospitalization?
A) The 3-month-old child
B) The 16-month-old child
C) The 4-year-old child
D) The 7-year-old child
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Q1) The emergency action for airway obstruction in the infant is to give:
A) 6 to 10 midsternal thrusts
B) 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts
C) 5 chest thrusts followed by 5 back blows
D) Abdominal thrusts until the object is expelled
Q2) The order reads: Give Ampicillin oral suspension 400 mg PO every day. The vial reads Ampicillin 125 mg/5 ml. The nurse will give a dose of ____________________ ml.
Q3) The nurse prepares a 9-year-old child for a lumbar puncture by explaining that the position for this procedure is:
A) "On your stomach with your head turned to the side."
B) "On your side, keeping the legs bent and the head arched back."
C) "On your back with your legs extended straight out."
D) "On your side with the knees bent and the head close to the knees."
Q4) The strategy the nurse might use when administering oral medications to a young child who is reluctant to take it is:
A) Mix the medication with chocolate milk.
B) Tell the child that the medication is candy.
C) Give the medication quickly if the child is crying.
D) Offer the child fruit juice after the medication is swallowed.
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Q1) A parent reports that her child experiences episodes where he appears to be staring into space. This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure?
A) Absence
B) Akinetic
C) Myoclonic
D) Complex partial
Q2) The assessment finding that should be reported immediately if observed in a child with meningitis is:
A) Irregular respirations
B) Tachycardia
C) Slight drop in blood pressure
D) Elevated temperature
Q3) The nurse caring for a 5-month-old with viral influenza suspects the development of Reye's syndrome when the child:
A) Has respirations drop from 18 to 14 breaths/min
B) Goes to sleep after feeding
C) Suddenly vomits
D) Develops a macular rash
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Q1) The nurse who is checking for capillary refill on a child in Bryant's traction will record adequate perfusion if the toe regains color in _____ seconds
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q2) The nurse explains that Bryant's traction is reserved for children who weigh less than ____________________ pounds.
Q3) The nurse caring for a child with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy notes a characteristic manifestation, which is that the child:
A) Ambulates by holding onto furniture
B) Exhibits atrophy of the calf muscles
C) Falls frequently and is clumsy
D) Has delayed fine-motor development
Q4) The child with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy must push on his legs and "walk up the leg" in order to rise to a standing position. The nurse recognizes this characteristic behavior as ____________________ maneuver.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. The child's parent asks the nurse, "How does Kawasaki disease affect my child's heart and blood vessels?" The nurse's response is based on the understanding that:
A) Inflammation weakens blood vessels, leading to aneurism.
B) Increased lipid levels lead to the development of atherosclerosis.
C) Untreated disease causes mitral valve stenosis.
D) Altered blood flow increases cardiac workload with resulting heart failure.
Q2) An appropriate nursing action related to the administration of Lanoxin to an infant would be:
A) Counting the apical rate for 30 seconds before administering the medication
B) Withholding a dose if the apical heart rate is less than 100 beats/min
C) Repeating a dose if the child vomits within 30 minutes of the previous dose
D) Checking respiratory rate and blood pressure before each dose
Q3) The nurse is planning to teach parents about preventing sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Significant information would be to:
A) Wrap the infant snugly for rest periods.
B) Position the infant prone for sleep.
C) Sit the baby up in an infant seat.
D) Place infants on their back or side for sleep.
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Q1) The nurse reviews for a family how the development of synthetic recombinant antihemophilic factor has improved the management of hemophilia, because this drug: Select all that apply.
A) Eliminates the need for frequent transfusions
B) Can be administered by family at home
C) Prevents hemorrhage
D) Reduces cost of care of the hemophiliac
E) Reduces risk of HIV and hepatitis A and B transmission
Q2) The nurse would instruct the parent to give ferrous sulfate drops to the child:
A) With milk
B) With orange juice
C) With water
D) On a full stomach
Q3) A child has just been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. The nurse is aware that the result of an overproduction of immature white blood cells in the bone marrow is:
A) Decreased T-cell production
B) Decreased hemoglobin
C) Increased blood clotting
D) Increased susceptibility to infection
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Q1) An infant is admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration. Laboratory results show pH 7.32, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 40, HCO<sub>3</sub> 21. The nurse interprets these values as:
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Q2) A child is brought to the emergency department because he ingested an unknown quantity of Tylenol. After gastric lavage is completed, the nurse might expect this child to receive:
A) Activated charcoal
B) N-Acetylcysteine
C) Vitamin K
D) Syrup of ipecac
Q3) The nurse, assessing an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) for a baby with gastroenteritis, recognizes that this confirms the ____________________ process that is part of this disease.
Q4) The nurse reminds parents of a child allergic to cow's milk that they should avoid foods that list ____________________ as part of their contents.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a physical assessment of a hospitalized 5-year-old, the nurse notes that the foreskin has been retracted and is very tight on the shaft of the penis; the nurse is unable to return it over the head of the penis. The nurse should:
A) Forcibly push the foreskin down over the head of the penis.
B) Place a warm compress on the penis.
C) Notify the charge nurse.
D) Wait a few hours and try again.
Q2) When asked about correcting the hypospadias of their newborn, the nurse explains that with this condition:
A) No intervention is necessary as the defect will correct itself over time.
B) Surgical repair of the hypospadias is done before 18 months of age.
C) Corrective surgery is usually delayed until the preschool period.
D) Repairing the defect will increase the risk of testicular cancer.
Q3) The physical assessment that the nurse would omit in caring for a 2-year-old who has a Wilms' tumor is:
A) Performing ROM on lower extremities
B) Palpating the abdomen
C) Assessing for bowel sounds
D) Percussing ankle and knee reflexes
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30446
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse observes a tarry stool from a 16-year-old burn victim who has been in the ICU for 2 weeks, the nurse documents and reports the probable complication of:
A) Diverticulitis
B) Stress diarrhea
C) Curling's ulcer
D) Perforated bowel
Q2) A child is brought to the emergency department with burns on the face and chest. The nurse's first priority is:
A) Assessing respiratory status
B) Administering pain medication
C) Removing clothing
D) Inserting a Foley catheter
Q3) The nurse recognizes the blisters and erythema of the hands of a person recovering from frostbite as the skin disorder called ____________________.
Q4) A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a second-degree burn of his entire right arm and hand, anterior trunk and genital area, and front of right thigh. The nurse assesses the BSA percentage burn as ____________________.
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother reports that her 4-month-old infant is lethargic, is sleeping 18 hours a day, and is snoring. The nurse recognizes that these signs are characteristic of:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Tay-Sachs disease
Q2) Although the type 1 diabetic child had her prescribed insulin at 7:30 AM, the child is complaining of hunger and thirst and is drowsy at noon. The nurse should:
A) Administer glucagon immediately and test her blood with a glucometer in 10 minutes.
B) Have her eat some peanut butter crackers.
C) Give her a cup of orange juice.
D) Test her blood with a glucometer and give insulin according to the sliding scale.
Q3) The nurse explains that the diagnosis of diabetes is made when the fasting blood glucose level is ____________________ mg/dl on two separate occasions, and the history is positive for indication of the disease.
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24 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30448
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is hospitalized for RSV bronchiolitis. Which type of precautions would the nurse use when caring for the infant?
A) Large-droplet infection precautions
B) Airborne-infection precautions
C) Contact precautions
D) Protective precautions
Q2) A child was sent to the school nurse because of a rash. The nurse noted the rash was present on the trunk, extremities, and face. The child's cheeks were bright red. The nurse is aware this type of rash is consistent with:
A) Measles
B) Roseola
C) Varicella
D) Fifth disease
Q3) The nurse uses a diagram showing how the wood tick acts as a ____________________ in the transmission of Lyme disease.
Q4) The school nurse recognizes the presence of macules, papules, vesicles, pustules, and scabs on the child as the particular sign of the communicable disease of
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24 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30449
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department after an automobile accident. When the nurse approaches the adolescent, he becomes combative. The nurse notes his speech is slurred and his gait is ataxic. The nurse suspects the adolescent has used:
A) Alcohol
B) Cocaine
C) Amphetamines
D) PCP
Q2) The nurse takes into consideration in planning the care of an adolescent with anorexia nervosa that the cause of this disorder is: Select all that apply.
A) Discomfort relative to emerging sexuality
B) Fear of intimacy
C) Pervasive low self-esteem
D) Egocentricity
E) Inability to meet developmental needs
F) None of the above
Q3) The nurse assists with the intervention of ____________________ therapy, which provides a physical and social environment that is stable and therapeutic.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30450
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suggests the herb that is used for discomforts associated with menopause such as hot flashes, which is:
A) Evening primrose oil
B) Echinacea
C) Milk thistle
D) Black cohosh
Q2) The nurse uses a diagram to show the location of meridians, which are:
A) Lymph nodes
B) Invisible pathways for energy
C) Lines that divide the body into 10 zones
D) Areas of skin thich are specifically innervated
Q3) The nurse outlines the advantages of alternative health care as: Select all that apply.
A) Offering more patient control of health care
B) Being less expensive
C) Allowing patients to be part of the decision-making process
D) Using natural products rather than chemical
E) Incorporating cultural beliefs and practices
F) None of the above
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