Obstetric and Gynecologic Sonography
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Obstetric and Gynecologic Sonography is a specialized course focusing on the principles and clinical applications of ultrasound imaging in the fields of obstetrics and gynecology. The course covers topics such as the safe use of sonographic techniques, anatomical and physiological assessment of the female reproductive system, evaluation of fetal development and well-being, identification of normal and abnormal findings during pregnancy, and the role of sonography in diagnosing gynecologic pathologies. Emphasis is placed on image acquisition, interpretation, patient care, and collaboration with healthcare professionals to support diagnostic and therapeutic decision-making in maternal and women's health.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflamed appendix ____
Answer: IR
An interpretive report (final report) includes a detailed description of the ultrasound findings and a diagnosis (or diagnoses) derived from them.
Q2) Sources of infection for HBV and HIV include amniotic fluid. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The ultrasound request form contains the patient's Social Security number. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The sonographer should always review available patient information._____ A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q5) A crisis medical form may be part of the psychiatry assembly order. ____ A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage
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Q1) Annotation On/Off
A) erases the last character to the left of the cursor.
B) erases all user-entered annotations, starting at the cursor's location.
C) clears the patient's ID number and stored images.
D) allows comments to be entered on the screen.
Answer: D
Q2) List the steps followed to operate an ultrasound system.
Answer: The steps for operating an ultrasound system are (1) Enter the patient identification data; (2) select the appropriate transducer and scanning preset; (3) place the transducer on the patient, along with coupling gel; (4) adjust the TGC until the returning echoes are appropriately amplified; (5) adjust the focal zones to ensure that the area of interest is optimally displayed; (6) use depth control to adjust the image size.
Q3) Discuss the functions of the Worklist program.
Answer: Worklist is an electronic program that transfers patient information electronically to the ultrasound system. Sonographers can "query" Worklist from the ultrasound system. When information is requested for a particular patient, the Worklist program automatically enters the data into the ultrasound system.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Q1) What action conveys a sense of genuine interest in the patient?
A) Making small talk
B) Adjusting the tone and expression of your voice
C) Obtaining a medical history
D) Discussing your opinion of the ultrasound findings
Answer: B
Q2) During an ultrasound examination, it is acceptable for a sonographer to
A) show the patient any abnormal findings.
B) discuss his or her opinion of the ultrasound findings.
C) provide a diagnosis.
D) briefly point out one or more structures.
Answer: D
Q3) When helping a patient out of a wheelchair or before seating the person in the chair, the sonographer should make sure __________________________________.
Answer: both brakes are locked, and the leg and foot rests have been pushed out of the way
When helping a patient into or out of a wheelchair, the sonographer must make sure both brakes are locked and the foot rests have been pushed out of the way.
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5
Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organ parenchyma is described in terms of A) echo texture.
B) location.
C) focal zone.
D) refraction.
Q2) The term through transmission is synonymous with A) sound attenuation.
B) posterior enhancement.
C) acoustic shadowing.
D) infiltrative process.
Q3) Structures that cast a shadow
A) either reflect or attenuate the sound beam.
B) are nonattenuating.
C) are always directly in front of another structure.
D) show acoustic enhancement.
Q4) An accumulation of serous fluid in the abdominopelvic cavity is called __________.
Q5) The _______ and _______ planes are parallel to the long axis of the body
Q6) With regard to echo texture characteristics, a disease can be described as _________ or __________.
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Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Q1) Which is the "master" endocrine gland?
A) Pineal gland
B) Brain
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary gland
Q2) The thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by a muscular partition called the visceral pleura. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormones transfer information from one set of cells to another. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The paired lungs enclose the branching bronchial tree and alveoli. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the bone marrow in the musculoskeletal system cannot replace dying red blood cells, the urinary system steps in and produces new red blood cells.____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) The quadratus lumborum muscle is a bilateral muscle tissue that is ________ to the psoas major muscle.
A) medial
B) lateral
C) anterior
D) posterior
Q2) Which structure is NOT intraperitoneal?
A) Gallbladder
B) Pancreas
C) Liver
D) Spleen
Q3) Which structure is NOT oriented vertically in the body?
A) Abdominal aorta
B) Superior mesenteric vein
C) Right renal artery
D) Superior mesenteric artery
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Chapter 7: Embryology
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Q1) The foregut herniates from the abdomen, rotates, and then returns to the abdominal cavity. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The prerenal section of the IVC is derived from the
A) subcardinal/supracardinal vein.
B) proximal vitelline vein.
C) subcardinal vein.
D) supracardinal veins.
Q3) At 4 months of gestation, the testes descend to the level of the urinary bladder; at 7 months, they descend into the scrotum. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The septum transversum in the embryo eventually becomes the connective tissue for the liver. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Q1) The inferoposterior pancreatic duodenal artery feeds the pancreatic head and duodenal area and is a branch of the
A) celiac artery.
B) superior mesenteric artery.
C) pancreatic artery.
D) suprarenal arteries.
Q2) The gonadal arteries can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The celiac axis bifurcates into which branches?
A) Main pancreatic artery, left gastric artery, and splenic artery
B) Left gastric artery, right gastric artery, and common hepatic artery
C) Left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, and splenic artery
D) Common hepatic artery, main pancreatic artery, and splenic artery
Q4) The common hepatic artery branches into the
A) celiac and gastroduodenal arteries.
B) celiac and splenic arteries.
C) gastroduodenal and proper hepatic arteries.
D) proper hepatic and celiac arteries.
Q5) Psoas major muscle ____
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Q1) The hepatic veins are anechoic. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The diameter of the normal adult IVC is approximately
A) 1 cm.
B) 1.5 cm.
C) 2.5 cm.
D) 3 cm.
Q3) The walls of the hepatic veins are brightly echogenic. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a sagittal scanning plane, the right renal artery can be seen as a(n)
A) longitudinal, curvilinear structure anterior to the axial IVC.
B) straight structure posterior to the AO.
C) round, short axis structure posterior to the longitudinal IVC.
D) oval structure anterior to the longitudinal IVC.
Q5) The lumbar veins are easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hepatic veins ____
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Q1) What happens to the right and left portal vein branches?
A) The right branches into medial and lateral segments, and the left branches into anterior and posterior segments.
B) The right branches into superior and inferior segments, and the left branches into anterior and posterior segments.
C) The right branches into anterior and posterior segments, and the left branches into medial and lateral segments.
D) The right branches into anterior and posterior segments, and the left branches into superior and inferior segments.
Q2) Hepatic artery walls ____
Q3) The normal main portal vein measures up to
A) 5 cm in diameter and 3 to 4 cm long.
B) 5 cm in diameter and 5 to 6 cm long.
C) 13 mm in diameter and 5 to 6 cm long.
D) 10 cm in diameter and 3 to 4 cm long.
Q4) The bifurcation of the right portal vein is best seen in a sagittal scanning plane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true about the celiac artery?
A) The celiac artery feeds organs that have low vascular resistance.
B) The celiac artery originates from the posterolateral wall of the abdominal aorta.
C) The celiac artery has three branches: the common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric arteries.
D) The superior mesenteric artery and the celiac artery may share a common trunk at their origin.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the portal vein?
A) It supplies approximately 70% of the oxygenated blood flow to the liver.
B) It is an intraabdominal vein.
C) It is formed by the confluence of the umbilical, splenic, and superior mesenteric veins.
D) Blood flow in the portal vein normally is hepatopetal in direction.
Q3) High resistance Doppler spectral waveforms recorded throughout the renal medulla and cortex suggest
A) proximal renal artery stenosis.
B) flow-limiting disease in the distal renal artery.
C) intrinsic medical renal disease.
D) the presence of accessory renal arteries.
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Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow to the caudate lobe is supplied by the A) hepatic artery.
B) right portal vein.
C) left portal vein.
D) right and left portal vein.
Q2) Any of the following except the ______ may be identified as a fibrous cord that was patent before birth and extends upward from the diaphragm to the anterior wall.
A) hepatoduodenal ligament
B) umbilical vein
C) round ligament
D) ligamentum teres
Q3) Kupffer cells are specialized liver cells that play a major role in the body's A) defense.
B) nutrition.
C) storage capacity.
D) fat emulsification.
Q4) Prominent pulsatility of the Doppler waveform in the portal vein is A) normal.
B) abnormal.
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Q1) Length of the right and left hepatic ducts ____
Q2) The common bile duct enters the duodenum through the hepatopancreatic ampulla. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the
A) celiac artery.
B) proper hepatic artery.
C) splenic artery.
D) common hepatic artery.
Q4) Following the main portal vein, the gallbladder is seen just superior to the right portal vein. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The common hepatic duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____ A)True
B)False
Q6) A normal gallbladder appears round on the longitudinal view. ____ A)True B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Q1) Sonographically, the pancreas appears isoechoic to the liver. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pancreatic juice is composed of nucleic acids and also enzymes that help digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) A water-filled stomach makes the pancreas more difficult to visualize. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pancreas is mostly an endocrine gland. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) A small part of the ______ of the pancreas is enclosed in peritoneum.
A) tail
B) body
C) neck
D) head
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are composed mainly of two distinct areas: the
A) corpuscle and proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
B) parenchyma and sinus.
C) renal loops and medulla.
D) medullary and renal pyramids.
Q2) The structures anterior to the left kidney are the:
Q3) Where is aldosterone produced?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Kidney
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Q4) List the structures contained in the renal pelvis.
Q5) The renal pyramid is one component of the renal lobe. Two other components are the ________ and the ________.
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Q1) At the hilum, the splenic artery branches into
A) two to four lobular arteries.
B) four to six lobular arteries.
C) two to four lobar arteries.
D) four to six lobar arteries.
Q2) The primary component of the white pulp is
A) Malpighian corpuscles.
B) epithelial cells.
C) red and pink pulp.
D) splenic cords.
Q3) The spleen lies in the epigastrium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The average volume of the adult spleen is about
A) 50 ml.
B) 200 ml.
C) 400 ml.
D) 600 ml.
Q5) Left renal cortex ____
Q6) Spleen ____
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) The middle third of the descending duodenum is crossed anteriorly by the _____ portion of the colon.
A) ascending
B) descending
C) transverse
D) sigmoid
Q2) On transverse scans of the thyroid gland, the esophagus normally is visualized as
A) a hypoechoic density with posterior acoustic enhancement, medial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B) a high echogenic mass proximal to the superior parathyroid gland on the left.
C) a target lesion inferior to the lower pole of the right lobe.
D) posterior to the gland on the left, with a bull's eye appearance.
Q3) The layers of the bowel wall create a characteristic sonographic appearance called a "gut signature." Up to _____ layers usually can be visualized.
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Q1) The anterior fibromuscular region, or stroma,
A) is anterior to most of the zonal anatomy.
B) is more clinically significant than the posterior glandular prostate.
C) accounts for most of the weight of the prostate.
D) lies adjacent to the seminal vesicles.
Q2) Alkaline, viscous fructose is produced by the prostate gland. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Denonvilliers' fascia
A) is an interior covering for the prostate gland.
B) is the external coating for the seminal vesicles.
C) lies between the prostate and the rectum.
D) lines the external wall of the urinary bladder.
Q4) The largest portion of the glandular prostate is the
A) central zone.
B) transition zone.
C) periurethral zone.
D) peripheral zone.
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Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Q1) The arteries in the uterus that penetrate the myometrium are the
A) spiral arteries.
B) arcuate arteries.
C) straight arteries.
D) radial arteries.
Q2) Which of the following produces the hormones estrogen and progesterone in females?
A) Anterior pituitary gland
B) Ovarian medulla
C) Ovarian follicles
D) Uterine endometrium
Q3) The _____ phase is the best time to observe blood flow within the ovary.
A) luteal
B) proliferative
C) secretory
D) follicular
Q4) The _______ ligaments are not true ligaments and provide minimal support.
Q5) The three descriptive regions of the pelvis are the ________, ________, and _______ regions.
Page 21
Q6) The uterine tubes are oriented ________ in the body.
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Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Q1) The chorionic villi
A) may become enlarged and cystic.
B) contain the yolk sac.
C) are eventually obliterated by the amniotic cavity.
D) are fingerlike projections of the trophoblast layer that extend into the deciduate endometrium.
Q2) An anechoic area identified sonographically in the embryonic skull at 8 weeks is A) abnormal.
B) the vitelline duct.
C) the hindbrain.
D) the midbrain.
Q3) The embryonic gut herniates
A) into the small bowel.
B) at 5 to 6 weeks GA.
C) into the base of the umbilical cord.
D) into the amnion.
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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42 Weeks
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Q1) Muscles usually appear ______________ compared with adjacent structures.
A) hyperechoic
B) dense
C) hypoechoic
D) echodense
Q2) Abdominal circumference (AC) is measured through (a) _________ plane(s) of section where the __________ are continuous with one another.
A) single; right and left portal veins
B) multiple; right and left portal veins
C) single; right and left hepatic ducts
D) multiple; right and left hepatic ducts
Q3) In more than 90% of pregnancies, the fetal urinary bladder is visualized by A) 10 weeks.
B) 12 weeks.
C) 15 weeks.
D) 20 weeks.
Q4) The bright reflection of the fetal skeleton is an indication of ______________________within the developing bones.
23
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Q1) When certain defects are found during a pregnancy, high concentrations of _____________________ are found in amniotic fluid samples.
Q2) In a twin gestation, division of the zygote before day 4 postfertilization results in a
A) monochorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
B) monochorionic-diamniotic gestation.
C) dichorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
D) dichorionic-diamniotic gestation.
Q3) Which procedure is done earliest in a pregnancy?
A) Chorionic villus sampling
B) Amniocentesis for the L-S ratio
C) Amniocentesis for genetic analysis
D) Umbilical cord transfusions
Q4) If twin fetuses are of opposite gender, they are always
A) monochorionic and monoamniotic.
B) monochorionic and diamniotic.
C) dichorionic and monoamniotic.
D) dichorionic and diamniotic.
Q5) Twin gestations result from fertilization of either _______ or a _______.
Q6) __________________________ measures the degree of fetal lung development.
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
A) Thyroid volumes increase with age and body weight, as well as in patients with acute hepatitis and those living in regions deficient in iodine.
B) It is an endocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin.
C) It is an exocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and iron.
D) The normal mean thyroid volume is 18.6 ± 4.5 ml (± SD), which converts to a 18.6-g gland.
Q2) The superior and inferior parathyroid glands are supplied by the
A) superior thyroid artery and vein.
B) inferior thyroid artery only.
C) venous plexus only.
D) separate small branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries and by branches from the longitudinal anastomoses between these vessels.
Q3) Patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism develop hypercalcemia. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Q1) Prolactin-inhibiting factor is produced in the A) anterior pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) thyroid gland
Q2) Oxytocin
A) aids breast development.
B) stimulates the breast's secretory system after childbirth.
C) acts on the breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.
D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.
Q3) Estrogen
A) aids in breast development.
B) stimulates the breast's secretory system after childbirth.
C) acts on the breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.
D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.
Q4) Elastography is a technique that improves sonographic visualization of tissues in fibrous breasts. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Q1) The epididymis is connected to which portion of the testis?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Medial
D) Lateral
Q2) The epididymis empties into the
A) urinary bladder.
B) ductus deferens.
C) testis.
D) seminal vesicles.
Q3) The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the A) deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, dorsal artery, and pampiniform plexus arteries.
B) superficial dorsal artery, deep dorsal artery, and deep artery of the penis.
C) deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.
D) deep artery of the penis, dorsal artery, and deep dorsal artery.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the choroid plexus?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the quadrigeminal plate cistern?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Q1) The oxygen content and intracardiac pressures are higher on the right side of the heart than on the left. _____
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the normal heart, the right and left innominate veins come together connecting them to the superior vena cava. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The heart is the primary organ that provides the force that propels blood through the veins as well as the arteries. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The best view to image the coronary artery ostia is the
A) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level (base)
B) Apical 4-chamber
C) Parasternal Long axis view
D) Parasternal Short axis view papillary muscle level
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Q1) Blood with a high oxygen content entering the heart comes from the pulmonary veins. ____
A)True B)False
Q2) The apical four-chamber view displays the ventricles at the top of the screen and the atria at the bottom of the 2D sector image. ____
A)True B)False
Q3) The SA node is the "pacemaker" of the heart. ____
A)True B)False
Q4) The AV node can provide pacing for the heart in the event of SA node failure. ____ A)True B)False
Q5) The suprasternal view orientation can visualize the ascending and descending aorta and aortic arch. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true?
A) The resistance to blood flow in the small tibial arteries should be greater than that in the aorta.
B) Normally, at rest no significant pressure gradient is seen between the aorta and the distal tibial arteries.
C) With normal arterial wall compliance, the Doppler spectral waveform from the peripheral arteries of the extremities should be triphasic.
D) During systole and left ventricular contraction, the arterial pulse pressure wave is transmitted through the aorta and into the high-resistance peripheral arterial bed.
Q2) The Doppler spectral waveform from the low-resistance internal carotid artery can be characterized by
A) high peak systolic velocity and low diastolic flow.
B) rapid systolic upstroke and rapid deceleration to low diastolic flow.
C) slow systolic rise time, rapid deceleration, flow reversal in late systole, and low diastolic flow.
D) cephalad flow throughout the cardiac cycle.
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matrix array transducers represent advances in volume transducers. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Volume acquisition can be done by
A) automatic and orthogonal acquisition.
B) orthogonal and 4D acquisition.
C) automatic or manual acquisition.
D) none of the above
Q3) For a multiplanar format, data must be achieved from the A) original acquisition plane.
B) three orthogonal planes.
C) fourth acquisition plane.
D) none of the above
Q4) The acquisition of patient anatomy using 3D is called acquiring A) a volume data set.
B) a flat screen image.
C) algorithms.
D) measurements.
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22070
Sample Questions
Q1) Endoluminal ultrasound is
A) used for percutaneous tube placement.
B) used to evaluate vessels and grafts during surgery.
C) not currently practiced.
D) limited to neurosurgical procedures.
Q2) Intraoperative ultrasound is not limited by __________, __________, or __________.
Q3) A biopsy site is scanned before the biopsy to determine the best __________ with the shortest __________ and the __________ angle.
Q4) During intraoperative ultrasound procedures, sterile gel is A) not used.
B) used as a scanning couplant.
C) used as a couplant between the transducer and the probe cover.
D) used in place of sterile sheaths.
Q5) Ultrasound-guided biopsies assist needle placement for A) fluid sampling.
B) small organ or stone extraction.
C) amniocentesis.
D) tissue sampling.
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