Obstetric and Gynecologic Sonography Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Obstetric and Gynecologic Sonography provides a comprehensive overview of ultrasound imaging as applied to obstetrics and gynecology. The course covers foundational principles of sonographic technology, including image acquisition, interpretation, and instrumentation. Emphasis is placed on the assessment of normal and abnormal female pelvic anatomy, early and advanced pregnancy evaluations, fetal growth, and development, as well as detection of gynecologic pathologies. Students will gain an understanding of scanning protocols, clinical indications, and patient safety, with practical sessions aimed at developing proficiency in sonographic techniques relevant to womens reproductive health.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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31 Chapters
845 Verified Questions
845 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) HBV and HIV can transmitted through _____________ _______________ caused by contaminated sharp objects.
Answer: accidental injuries
Diseases can be transmitted in many ways. Accidental injuries from contaminated sharp objects (e.g., needles, scalpels, broken glass, and exposed dental wires) are the most common means of transmission.
Q2) Performing frequent hand washing is a strategy for reducing exposure to blood-borne pathogens. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The sonographer should write technical observations of the ultrasound examination in the patient's chart._____
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Fever and chills ´ 3 days ____
Answer: CH "Fever and chills ´ 3 days" describes clinical symptoms (clinical history).
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Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Annotation On/Off
A) erases the last character to the left of the cursor.
B) erases all user-entered annotations, starting at the cursor's location.
C) clears the patient's ID number and stored images.
D) allows comments to be entered on the screen.
Answer: D
Q2) The advantages of the Radiology Information System include appointment scheduling and the use of work lists. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) PACS is a computer technology system that
A) captures the patient's demographics and other information from the person's medical record.
B) allows for storage of digital images.
C) unites the Hospital Information System and the Radiology Information System.
D) automatically selects the correct frequency, depth, and focal zone controls.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If patients ask about the ultrasound findings, they should be told that sonographers _____________________; rather, sonographers
Answer: do not provide a diagnosis; provide the ultrasound images to an interpreting physician, who provides an interpretive report to the referring physician Patients should be told that sonographers do not provide a diagnosis; rather, they provide the sonographic images to an interpreting physician, who sends an interpretive report to the patient's referring physician.
Q2) A sterile field is created by ________________________________. To maintain a sterile field, _________________________.
Answer: placing prepackaged sterile drapes around the cleaned site; all items that enter the sterile field must be sterile.
A sterile field is created by placing prepackaged sterile drapes around the cleaned site. To maintain a sterile field, all items that enter the field must be sterile.
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Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long axis measurements are taken in either the sagittal or coronal scanning plane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With regard to echo texture characteristics, a disease can be described as _________ or __________.
Q3) Which of the following terms would NOT be used to describe a true cyst?
A) Anechoic
B) Irregular margins
C) Posterior enhancement
D) Refractive shadows
Q4) Which of the following statements is most likely true of an intraorgan mass?
A) Discontinuity of the organ capsule
B) Obstruction of other organs and structures
C) Disruption of the normal internal architecture
D) Internal invagination of organ capsules
Q5) Coronal planes divide the body into unequal ________ and ________ sections.
Q6) Axial views show a structure's depth and ______________.
Q7) Longitudinal views show a structure's depth and ___________.
Page 6
Q8) Sagittal planes divide the body into unequal _________ and _________ sections.
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The musculoskeletal system controls most functions throughout the body through voluntary and involuntary muscle signaling. ____
A)True B)False
Q2) If the bone marrow in the musculoskeletal system cannot replace dying red blood cells, the urinary system steps in and produces new red blood cells.____
A)True B)False
Q3) The nervous system assists the endocrine system through the hypothalamus, which controls the pineal gland; the pineal gland in turn controls the other endocrine glands.
A)True B)False
Q4) The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system responds to stress or impending danger; it is known as the "fight or flight" system. ____ A)True B)False
Q5) Homeostasis is defined as _____________________________________________________.
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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anatomic area is NOT seen on a coronal scanning plane image?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Anterior
D) Superior
Q2) Which group of structures is intraperitoneal in location?
A) Ureters, adrenal glands, and prostate gland
B) Gallbladder, stomach, and ovaries
C) Adrenal glands, pancreas, and ovaries
D) Uterus, abdominal lymph nodes and somatic nerves
Q3) Which structure is NOT intraperitoneal?
A) Gallbladder
B) Pancreas
C) Liver
D) Spleen
Q4) Which anatomic area is NOT seen on a sagittal scanning plane image?
A) Posterior
B) Inferior
C) Anterior
D) Medial
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neural development continues postnatally. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The umbilical veins degenerate into one umbilical vein, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gastrointestinal tract begins to form at 4 weeks of embryologic age. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The portal vein is formed in embryologic week 6. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ventral and dorsal diverticula of the primitive hindgut rotate to form the pancreas.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The liver is formed from the foregut. ____
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin II is a hormone that causes A) the release of renin.
B) vasodilatation.
C) vasoconstriction.
D) bleeding.
Q2) The inferoposterior pancreatic duodenal artery feeds the pancreatic head and duodenal area and is a branch of the A) celiac artery.
B) superior mesenteric artery.
C) pancreatic artery.
D) suprarenal arteries.
Q3) Sonographically, in a longitudinal section, the abdominal aorta appears as a
A) pulsatile, tubular, anechoic lumen with bright, echogenic walls.
B) pulsatile, axial, anechoic lumen with bright, echogenic walls.
C) non-pulsatile axial, anechoic lumen with anechoic walls.
D) none of the above
Q4) Splenic vein ____
Q5) Left lobe of the liver ____
Q6) Psoas major muscle ____
Q7) Pylorus of the stomach ____
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatic veins are anechoic. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) From inferior to superior, identify the veins that converge into the IVC.
A) Common iliac veins, lumbar veins, renal veins, and left and right suprarenal veins
B) Common iliac veins, lumbar veins, renal veins, right gonadal vein, and hepatic veins
C) Hepatic veins, renal veins, left and right gonadal veins, and left and right suprarenal veins
D) External iliac veins, left suprarenal vein, right gonadal vein, renal veins, and hepatic veins
Q3) The IVC courses through the liver. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Body of the liver ____
Q5) Hepatic veins ____
Q6) The right renal vein is easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tributaries of the portal vein include which vessels?
A) Right and left gastric veins and pancreaticoduodenal veins
B) Splenic and superior and inferior mesenteric veins
C) Gastroepiploic and right and left gastric veins
D) All of the above
Q2) The medial branch of the left portal vein is easier to visualize than the lateral branch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Inferior vena cava lumen ____
Q4) Where does the portal vein form in the body?
A) At the tail of the pancreas
B) At the left lobe of the liver
C) Near the head of the pancreas
D) Where it first enters the liver
Q5) The bifurcation of the left portal vein is best seen in a sagittal scanning plane. ____
A)True B)False
Q6) Normal liver ____
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true about the celiac artery?
A) The celiac artery feeds organs that have low vascular resistance.
B) The celiac artery originates from the posterolateral wall of the abdominal aorta.
C) The celiac artery has three branches: the common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric arteries.
D) The superior mesenteric artery and the celiac artery may share a common trunk at their origin.
Q2) The blood flow pattern in the normal renal artery can be characterized as
A) high resistance with high diastolic flow.
B) low resistance with high diastolic flow
C) high resistance with high diastolic flow.,
D) low resistance with low diastolic flow..
Q3) The Doppler spectral waveform form the normal renal artery demonstrates:
A) constant forward diastolic flow
B) intermittent forward diastolic flow
C) constant flow reversal during diastole
D) intermittent flow reversal during diastole
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Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycogenesis ______
Q2) Which is NOT related to the caudate lobe of the liver?
A) Splenic vein
B) Left portal vein
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Ligamentum venosum
Q3) The portal veins and hepatic arteries enter the liver and the hepatic ducts exit through the
A) foramen of Winslow.
B) porta hepatis.
C) pouch of Morrison.
D) lesser sac.
Q4) The free inferior margin of the left lobe lies adjacent to all of the following except the A) splenic artery and vein.
B) gastric body and antrum.
C) body of the pancreas.
D) hepatic flexure.
Q5) Amino acids ______
Q6) Diabetes ______
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the main portal vein, the gallbladder is seen just superior to the right portal vein. ____
A)True B)False
Q2) The relationship of the portal vein, common bile duct. and hepatic artery can be stated as:
A) The common bile duct lies medial to the portal vein, and the hepatic artery is located lateral to the portal vein.
B) The portal vein lies medial to the common bile duct and the hepatic artery.
C) The portal vein lies lateral to the common bile duct and the hepatic artery.
D) The common bile duct is located lateral to the portal vein, and the hepatic artery lies medial to the portal vein.
Q3) The hepatic artery is found slightly medial and anterior to the main portal vein.
A)True B)False
Q4) CCK is a peptide hormone that stimulates the sphincter of Oddi to contract. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pancreatic juice is composed of nucleic acids and also enzymes that help digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) A small part of the ______ of the pancreas is enclosed in peritoneum.
A) tail
B) body
C) neck
D) head
Q3) Sagittal views of the pancreas show the gland in transverse sections. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The exocrine function of the pancreas is carried out by the beta cells. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gastroduodenal artery divides into
A) lateral and medial superior pancreaticoduodenal branches.
B) proper and common hepatic arteries.
C) anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal branches.
D) anterior and posterior portasplenic arteries.
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adult ureter is ______ cm long.
A) 10 to 15
B) 15 to 20
C) 20 to 25
D) 25 to 30
Q2) List and explain the laboratory values that help measure renal function.
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the renal cortex?
A) High level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) Low level echoes
Q4) Where is erythropoietin produced?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Kidney
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Q5) Where is ADH produced?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Kidney
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Posterior pituitary gland
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen is highly vascular. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The splenic artery arises from the
A) superior mesenteric artery.
B) common hepatic artery.
C) celiac artery.
D) proper hepatic artery.
Q3) The primary component of the white pulp is
A) Malpighian corpuscles.
B) epithelial cells.
C) red and pink pulp.
D) splenic cords.
Q4) Left renal cortex ____
Q5) The spleen lies in the epigastrium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The spleen is anterior to the diaphragm and stomach. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The esophagus begins at the level of the
A) cricoid cartilage of the neck.
B) sixth cervical vertebra.
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Q2) Which substance is digested and absorbed in the GI tract?
A) Fats
B) Water
C) Carbohydrates
D) All of the above
Q3) Concentric, focal thickening of the gut walls may present sonographically as the "pseudokidney" or "doughnut" sign in all of the following abnormalities, except A) ulceration.
B) lymphoma.
C) neoplasm.
D) intussusception.
Q4) The stomach is a retroperitoneal structure. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest portion of the glandular prostate is the
A) central zone.
B) transition zone.
C) periurethral zone.
D) peripheral zone.
Q2) In a scan of the prostate and seminal vesicles, the prostate appears
A) hypoechoic to the seminal vesicles.
B) isoechoic to the seminal vesicles.
C) hyperechoic to the seminal vesicles.
D) anechoic to the seminal vesicles.
Q3) Alkaline, viscous fructose is produced by the prostate gland. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The area close to the center of the prostate is called the
A) anterior fibromuscular region.
B) verumontanum.
C) central zone.
D) regional stroma.
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21
Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of the uterus where the fallopian tube passes through the uterine wall and communicates with the uterine cavity is called the
A) corpus.
B) cornua.
C) fundus.
D) infundibulum.
Q2) The uterine tubes are oriented ________ in the body.
Q3) When the uterine body and fundus are tilted posteriorly, uterine position is described as
A) anteflexed.
B) retroflexed.
C) retroverted.
D) anteverted.
Q4) The vagina can be identified in the _____ portion of the pelvis between the _____ (anteriorly) and the _____ (posteriorly).
A) posterior; urinary bladder; rectum
B) anterior; anterior cul de sac; urinary bladder
C) inferior; urinary bladder; rectum
D) superior; urinary bladder; posterior cul de sac
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Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the corpus luteum?
A) The outermost tissues of the developing embryo
B) The part of early development that surrounds the amniotic cavity
C) The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst
D) What remains of the ovarian follicle after ovulation
Q2) The double sac sign
A) describes the early blastocyst.
B) distinguishes a pseudo sac from a gestational sac.
C) is eventually obliterated by the amniotic cavity.
D) describes the sonographic appearance of the trilaminar embryonic disk.
Q3) Lacunae are structures in the A) ovary.
B) fetal brain.
C) amnion.
D) placenta.
Q4) The chorionic frondosum eventually becomes the: A) amniotic cavity.
B) chorionic cavity.
C) yolk sac.
D) placenta.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42
Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What vessels comprise the umbilical cord?
A) Portal vein and umbilical artery
B) Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
C) One umbilical artery and two umbilical veins
D) Umbilical artery and right and left portal veins
Q2) A grade I placenta may have
A) anechoic areas.
B) calcifications.
C) individual segments.
D) calcified basal layer.
Q3) The anechoic areas between the bright subcutaneous and peritoneal fat are the ____________________ and __________________________.
Q4) An accurate biparietal diameter (BPD) measurement can be obtained through any plane of section that intersects the
A) thalami, third ventricle, and cavum septum pellucidum.
B) thalami and cavum septum pellucidum.
C) thalami, cavum septum pellucidum, and cerebellum.
D) thalami and third ventricle.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) If division occurs in the embryonic disk more than 13 days after fertilization, the result is
A) the demise of one twin.
B) a dichorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
C) conjoined twins.
D) a dichorionic-diamniotic gestation.
Q2) In a twin gestation, division of the zygote before day 4 postfertilization results in a A) monochorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
B) monochorionic-diamniotic gestation.
C) dichorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
D) dichorionic-diamniotic gestation.
Q3) Increases in the pulsatility of the inferior vena cava are associated with A) macrosomia.
B) fetal hypoxia.
C) twin gestations.
D) intrauterine growth restriction.
Q4) The most common indications for the sampling of fetal blood are the _________________________ and ______________________.
Q5) __________________________ measures the degree of fetal lung development.
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
A) Normal adult parathyroid glands generally are not seen with sonography.
B) The parathyroid glands are situated posterior to the thyroid gland and anterior to the longus colli muscle.
C) Normal parathyroid glands almost always can be seen, especially in young patients.
D) A prominent longus colli muscle may be mistaken for a parathyroid adenoma.
Q2) The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly
A) echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver.
B) heterogeneous with medium to high level echoes.
C) hyperechoic with high level echoes.
D) hypoechoic with medium level echoes.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the neck muscles and the esophagus?
A) The esophagus appears hypoechoic with an echogenic center representing mucosa.
B) The infrahyoid muscles, or strap muscles, are hypoechoic relative to the thyroid gland.
C) The sternocleidomastoid muscle is hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
D) The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
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26
Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolactin is produced in the
A) anterior pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) thyroid gland
Q2) What is the sonographic appearance of Cooper's ligaments?
A) Hypoechoic
B) Bright linear echoes
C) Low to medium level echoes
D) Anechoic tubular structures
Q3) Each breast has 10 to 15 lobes. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prolactin-inhibiting factor
A) aids breast development.
B) prevents milk production
C) acts on the breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.
D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Q1) The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the A) deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, dorsal artery, and pampiniform plexus arteries.
B) superficial dorsal artery, deep dorsal artery, and deep artery of the penis.
C) deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.
D) deep artery of the penis, dorsal artery, and deep dorsal artery.
Q2) In an adult, testicular volume is _____, and testicular weight is _____.
A) 5 ml; 2 to 3 g
B) 10 ml; 4 to 5 g
C) 15 ml; 8 to 10 g
D) 25 ml; 10 to 15 g
Q3) Spermatozoa exit the testis through the
A) tail of the epididymis.
B) efferent ducts.
C) body of the epididymis.
D) head of the epididymis.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the corpus callosum?
A) Anechoic
B) Hypoechoic
C) Echogenic
D) Moderately echogenic
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the sulci and fissures?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) The structures of the brain stem are
A) the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
B) the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata.
C) none of the above
D) all of the above
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Q1) The heart is the primary organ that provides the force that propels blood through the veins as well as the arteries. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the long axis of the aortic arch (suprasternal notch view), using blood direction, in what sequence will you encounter the normal head/neck vessels?
A) left common carotid, left subclavian, innominate artery
B) innominate, left common carotid, left subclavian artery
C) right subclavian, right common carotid, innominate artery
D) innominate, left subclavian, left common carotid artery
Q3) The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood and return it to the left atrium ___
A)True
B)False
Q4) The best view to image the coronary artery ostia is the
A) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level (base)
B) Apical 4-chamber
C) Parasternal Long axis view
D) Parasternal Short axis view papillary muscle level
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Q1) Epicardium is another name for pericardium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Three-dimensional echocardiography would be indicated in which patient?
A) A patient with a normal heart size and function on 2D examination
B) A patient with mild mitral valve regurgitation on Doppler
C) A patient with a small to moderate VSD on 2D examination
D) A patient with a reduced ejection fraction on 2D examination
Q3) Blood with a low oxygen content entering the heart comes from the inferior and superior vena cava. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The thickest layer of the heart is the myocardium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood with a low oxygen content entering the heart comes from the coronary arteries. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intracranial arteries are identified during a noninvasive vascular examination based on all the following factors except
A) pulsatility.
B) peak systolic velocity.
C) depth.
D) flow direction.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the internal carotid artery?
A) Middle cerebral artery
B) Posterior cerebral artery
C) Anterior cerebral artery
D) Ophthalmic artery
Q3) The internal carotid artery supplies the high-resistance vascular beds of the brain and eye. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is NOT part of the deep venous system of the lower extremities?
A) Perforator vein
B) Profunda femoris vein
C) Femoral vein
D) Anterior tibial vein
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The SonoVCAD and SonoAVC are volumetric advances that can identify the A) nongravid uterus and early pregnancy.
B) fetal heart outflow tract and ovarian follicles.
C) neonatal brain in three orthogonal views.
D) adult and pediatric urinary system.
Q2) Three-dimensional ultrasound consists of which three steps?
A) Measurements, volume data set, and minimum mode
B) Measurements, flat screen image, and algorithms
C) Volume acquisition, measurements, and 3D rendering
D) Volume acquisition, multiplanar display, and 3D rendering
Q3) For a multiplanar format, data must be achieved from the
A) original acquisition plane.
B) three orthogonal planes.
C) fourth acquisition plane.
D) none of the above
Q4) Volume acquisition can be done by
A) automatic and orthogonal acquisition.
B) orthogonal and 4D acquisition.
C) automatic or manual acquisition.
D) none of the above
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultrasound-guided biopsies assist needle placement for A) fluid sampling.
B) small organ or stone extraction.
C) amniocentesis.
D) tissue sampling.
Q2) Chorionic villus sampling is
A) a percutaneous biopsy.
B) collected during amniocentesis.
C) limited to intraoperative surgical procedures.
D) collected during a nephrostomy.
Q3) A biopsy site is scanned before the biopsy to determine the best __________ with the shortest __________ and the __________ angle.
Q4) During intraoperative ultrasound procedures, sterile gel is A) not used.
B) used as a scanning couplant.
C) used as a couplant between the transducer and the probe cover.
D) used in place of sterile sheaths.
Q5) Intraoperative ultrasound is not limited by __________, __________, or __________.
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